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PHGY 209 Practice Final 2022

Mammalian Physiology 1 (McGill University)

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PHGY209 2022
PHGY209 2021
Practice Final Final
Practice Exam

Select the ONE best answer for each question and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet.

1) Which statement(s) about Cytotoxic T Cells is/are TRUE?

a. They recognize endogenous antigens attached to MHC class 2 molecules.
b. They express CD8 on their surfaces.
c. They develop and mature in the bone marrow.
d. They release chemicals that enhance phagocytosis.
e. All of the statements above are TRUE.

2) Identify the structure marked by the arrows in the image.

a) epitopes
b) antigen receptors
c) haptens
d) antibodies
e) pseudopods

3) Which of the following are antigen presenting cells?

I. Dendritic Cells
II. Helper T Cells
III. B Cells
IV. Macrophages
V. Cytotoxic T Cells
a. I, II, III, IV, V
b. I, III, IV
c. I, II, III
d. I, III
e. I, V

4) A female has a blood test. One mL of her blood is drawn, spun in a centrifuge, and the plasma
volume is measured and found to be 0.6 mL. What is her hematocrit level?
a. 35%
b. 40%
c. 45%
d. 55%
e. 60%

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PHGY209 2022
PHGY209 2021
Practice Final Final
Practice Exam

Select the ONE best answer for each question and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet.

5) Normally, the hydrostatic pressure difference between capillary fluid and interstitial fluid favors
movement of fluid ________ a tissue capillary. The protein osmotic pressure difference between
capillary fluid and interstitial fluid normally favors movement of fluid ________ a
tissue capillary.
a. into; into
b. into; out of
c. out of; out of
d. out of; into
e. None of the above are CORRECT.

6) In a patient with decreased production of plasma proteins, which is TRUE?

a. More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.
b. Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the osmotic pressure.
c. More fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.
d. Less fluid than usual will flow out of the capillary based on the hydrostatic pressure.
e. Fluid distribution will be unchanged.

7) Which statement about blood clotting is FALSE?

a. It is the formation of a thrombus.
b. It occurs after formation of a platelet plug in a damaged vessel.
c. It requires the presence of erythrocytes.
d. It is a result of a cascade of enzyme activation.
e. It involves positive feedback by thrombin.

8) Which statement(s) is/are TRUE?

a. Blood loss is likely to stimulate the secretion of higher than normal plasma levels of
erythropoietin.
b. Mature erythrocytes lack a nucleus.
c. The hydrostatic pressure difference between the plasma inside the capillary beds and the
interstitial fluid surrounding the cells favors filtration of fluid.
d. In the clotting cascade, thrombin feeds back and further stimulates its own activation, which
is a positive feedback mechanism.
e. All of the statements above are TRUE.

9) A solute, X, is placed in compartment A of a two-compartment container and allowed to diffuse

to compartment B and attain diffusion equilibrium. At that point in time…
a. there will be no further movement of any solute molecules between compartments.
b. solutes will be moving in both directions equally.
c. solutes will only continue to move from A to B.
d. solutes will only continue to move from B to A.
e. the concentration in compartment B will be much higher than that in compartment A.

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PHGY209 2022
PHGY209 2021
Practice Final Final
Practice Exam

Select the ONE best answer for each question and darken the appropriate circle on the answer sheet.

10) Ion channels in cell membranes…

a. are nonspecific.
b. are not affected by differences in electrical potential across the membrane.
c. may open in response to binding a ligand.
d. only allow ions to move from the extracellular fluid into the cell.
e. only allow ions to move from the intracellular fluid out of the cell.

11) Which is a feature that distinguishes active transport from facilitated diffusion?
a. Saturation of transport rate
b. Requirement for a carrier molecule
c. Carrier molecules have specificity
d. Presence of a transport maximum
e. Requirement for metabolic energy

12) You examine a cell by electron microscopy and find a molecule in vesicles located outside of the
cell and in vesicles in the cytoplasm. The most likely explanation is that this substance moved
into the cell by…
a. diffusion.
b. osmosis.
c. facilitated diffusion.
d. endocytosis.
e. apoptosis.

13) Physiological saline…

a. has a protein content that is similar to that found in plasma.
b. is made by diluting 9.0 grams of NaCl in 1 liter of water.
c. is given to individuals suffering from water intoxication.
d. is given to hypervolemic individuals.
e. contains an equal proportion of NaCl and KCl.

14) The Indicator Dilution Method may be used to measure the volume of the various body fluid
compartments. Which of the following compartment volumes may be determined using a
SINGLE INDICATOR?
I. Total-body water
II. ECF
III. Plasma
IV. ISF
a. I, II, III, IV
b. I, II, III
c. IV, III, II
d. IV, III
e. IV

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PHGY209 2022
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Practice Final Final
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15) An individual has the following daily water intake and output:
Total Daily Intake: 0.5 L oral intake as water, 0.6 L oral intake in the food, 0.4 L water
produced from metabolic processes
Total Daily Output: 0.4 L from the lungs, 0.5 L from the skin, 0.5 L from the kidneys, 0.1 L in
the stool
Which statement is TRUE?
a. 1.5 L of output are insensible losses.
b. 0.6 L of output are obligatory losses.
c. 0.6 L of output are facultative losses.
d. this individual is in water balance.
e. 0.5 L of output are sensible losses.

16) You are studying a cross-sectional tissue slice of a nerve using a transmission electron
microscope. You find an area where there appears to be a small amount of cytoplasm
surrounded by about 100 layers of stacked cell membranes. You conclude that you have found…
a. a neuron cell body.
b. a synapse.
c. an unmyelinated axon.
d. a myelinated axon.
e. a dendrite.

17) Which is TRUE about the resting membrane potential?

a. It requires very few ions to be distributed unevenly.
b. It has the same value in all cells.
c. It is oriented so that the cell's interior is positive with respect to the extracellular fluid.
d. Only nerve and muscle cells have a potential difference across the membrane at rest.
e. It is not altered by changing concentration gradients of permeating ions.

18) Two neighboring neurons are at rest. Neuron A has a resting membrane potential of -80mV,
Neuron B has a resting membrane potential of -70mV. Which is likely to be TRUE?
a. Neuron A has more K+ channels open than Neuron B.
b. Neuron B has more K+ channels open than Neuron A.
c. Neuron A has more Na+ channels open than Neuron B.
d. Neuron B has more Na+ channels open than Neuron A.
e. Neuron A has the same number of K+ channels as Neuron B.

19) A threshold stimulus applied to an excitable membrane is one that is just sufficient to…
a. trigger an excitatory postsynaptic potential.
b. cause a change in membrane potential.
c. trigger an action potential.
d. be conducted to the axon hillock.
e. depolarize a dendrite.

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Practice Final Final
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20) The relative refractory period of an axon coincides with the period of…
a. activation and inactivation of voltage-dependent Na+ channels.
b. Na+ permeability that is greater than that during the depolarization phase.
c. increased K+ flux into the cell.
d. increased K+ permeability of the cell.
e. Increased Na+ flux through K+ channels.

21) How is the strength of a stimulus encoded by neurons?

a. By the size of action potentials
b. By the frequency of action potentials
c. By the duration of action potentials
d. By whether the action potential peak is positive or negative
e. All of the above are CORRECT.

22) If you block Ca2+ channels on an axon, which will NOT occur?
a. The depolarization phase of the action potential
b. The repolarization phase of the action potential
c. The exocytosis of neurotransmitter
d. The graded potential
e. None of these will occur.

23) A postsynaptic neuron has three presynaptic inputs—from neurons X, Y, and Z. Stimulation of
neuron X causes the postsynaptic neuron to depolarize by 0.5 mV. When X and Y are stimulated
simultaneously, the postsynaptic neuron depolarizes by 1 mV. When X and Z are stimulated
simultaneously, however, there is no change in the membrane potential of the postsynaptic
neuron. What is most likely TRUE about presynaptic neurons Y and Z?
a. They are both excitatory.
b. They are both inhibitory.
c. Y is excitatory and Z is inhibitory.
d. Z is excitatory and Y is inhibitory.
e. None of these are TRUE.

24) Nicotinic receptors are expressed on skeletal muscle cells. Which would likely be a side-effect of
the use of nicotine, an agonist, for those receptors?
a. Muscle relaxation
b. Muscle cell twitches (contractions)
c. Muscle paralysis
d. Drowsiness
e. None of the answer choices are CORRECT.

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PHGY209 2021
Practice Final Final
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25) You are studying a disease in which inhibition of sensory neurons is diminished, leading to more
dramatic sensory sensations than are appropriate for stimulus strength. For example, when a
person with this disease listens to a person talking in a normal voice, it sounds like they are
yelling. Which neurotransmitter might be expressed at lower levels in this disease compared to a
healthy individual?
a. Glutamate
b. Dopamine
c. Norepinephrine
d. Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)
e. Beta-endorphin

26) Postganglionic neuron cell bodies of the autonomic nervous system have which category of
neurotransmitter receptor?
a. Adrenergic receptors
b. Serotonin receptors
c. Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors
d. Nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
e. Dopamine receptors

27) Which statement regarding contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber is TRUE?

a. Thick filaments shorten when muscle cells contract.
b. Some contractions occur without cross-bridge activation.
c. Contracting muscle fibers do not always shorten.
d. Contraction does not always require the occurrence of an action potential.
e. Contraction only occurs following summation of action potentials from many motor neurons.

28) What is the definition of a "motor unit"?

a. A single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates
b. A single muscle fiber plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it
c. All of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle
d. A pair of antagonistic muscles
e. All of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint

29) A scientist labels ACh with a fluorescent dye. This allows her to visualize, under the
microscope, where ACh travels and binds. She takes an image of the motor end plate and sees
that ACh is…
a. bound to muscarinic receptors at the end plate.
b. inside the muscle cell sarcoplasm.
c. bound to acetylcholinesterase in the end plate membrane.
d. bound to receptors on the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
e. bound to Ca2+ ions.

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Practice Final Final
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30) Which statement regarding myosin in skeletal muscle is TRUE?

a. Myosin cross-bridge heads contain two binding sites, one for actin and one for tropomyosin.
b. Myosin is an ATPase.
c. The rate of ATP hydrolysis by myosin is the same in all types of skeletal muscle.
d. All of the myosin cross-bridge heads in a thick filament are oriented and rotate in the same
direction.
e. Troponin covers the binding site on myosin molecules until Ca2+ binds to troponin to remove
it from its blocking position.

31) The muscles in your fingers contain mostly fast-glycolytic fibers, whereas the muscles of your feet
contain mostly slow-oxidative fibers. Which statement accurately describes their differences?
a. The muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of glycogen than do the muscle fibers
of the hands.
b. Muscle fibers of the feet have a greater abundance of myoglobin than do muscle fibers of the
hands.
c. Muscle fibers of the hands can generate greater tension than muscle fibers of the feet.
d. Muscle fibers in both locations are innervated by alpha motor neurons of the same diameter.
e. More oxidative phosphorylation occurs in the hands than the feet.

32) Which statement about the flow of sound energy in the ear is CORRECT?
a. Pressure waves move through the scala vestibuli to cause vibrations of the basilar membrane.
b. Sound enters the cochlea at the oval window.
c. The pressure wave is amplified in the middle ear because the oval window and tympanic
membrane are the same size.
d. Sound waves travel first through the external auditory canal, followed by the Eustachian tube,
the middle ear and the inner ear.
e. Auditory afferents are part of the vagal (10th nerve).

33)
i. Which statement(s) about hair cells is/are CORRECT?
ii.

a. When the hair cell is depolarized it fires an action potential.

b. Hair cells release neurotransmitters onto afferent fibers.
c. Outer hair cells are mainly used to send sound information to the brain.
d. Hair cells in the semicircular canal respond to high frequency sounds.
e. All of the statements above are CORRECT.

34) Which statement about the vestibular system is FALSE?

a. Each semicircular canal detects a different axis of the head’s angular rotation.
b. Vestibular and auditory sensory information travels in the same nerve to the medulla.
c. The utricle and saccule report linear acceleration in the horizontal and vertical planes,
respectively.
d. A lesion in the saccule would affect a person’s ability to stabilize their gaze during head
rotations.
e. The mass of the otoliths allows them to oppose the motion of the fluid in the utricle/saccule,
resulting in a shearing force on the stereocilia.

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35) Which statement about the olfactory and gustatory systems is CORRECT?
a. A G-protein cascade inhibitor applied to the tongue would prevent a person from tasting
bitter, sweet and umami flavours.
b. Chemicals travel through the taste pore into taste cells where they can access the taste bud.
c. Afferents from both the olfactory and gustatory systems travel to the thalamus where their
information is integrated. This is why your sense of smell completes your sense of taste.
d. The olfactory nerve projects directly into the limbic system which allows memories and
emotional responses to be linked to a particular odour.
e. Chemoreceptors in the olfactory system are non-selective and bind many different odorant
molecules.

36) Which statement(s) about receptor potentials and action potentials is/are TRUE?
a. Receptor potentials are all-or-none responses while action potentials are graded.
b. Receptor potentials in sensory neurons are triggered by a physical stimulus that results in
specific ion channels closing.
c. Action potentials are only triggered if the cell is depolarized below its threshold voltage.
d. Action potentials fire in response to the summed receptor potential exceeding a specific
voltage threshold.
e. None of the statements above are TRUE.

37) Which statement(s) is/are TRUE with regard to the middle level of motor control in the brain?
a. It is where the conscious initiation of movement occurs.
b. The corticospinal descending motor pathway controls upright posture, balance, and walking.
c. It includes stretch receptors.
d. The cerebellum is part of the middle level and is involved in the learning of new motor skills.
e. All of the statements above are TRUE.

38) Which statement about the Golgi tendon organ is TRUE?

a. The Golgi tendon organ is in parallel with the extrafusal muscle fibers.
b. The Golgi tendon organ sends out Ia afferents.
c. The Golgi tendon organ reports muscle tension.
d. The Golgi tendon organ responds to changes in muscle length.
e. Stretching the Golgi tendon organ produces more tension than would active contraction of a
muscle.

39) Which statement(s) about the reward pathway is/are TRUE?

a. Serotonin is the primary neurotransmitter involved.
b. In self- stimulation experiments starving rats will choose to eat rather than to press a lever for
brain stimulation.
c. This pathway was elucidated through experiments showing that rats can be motivated by
electrical stimulation of certain areas of the mesolimbic pathway.
d. Broca’s area is associated with the mesolimbic pathway.
e. All the statements above are TRUE.

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40) Which statement about electroencephalograms (EEG) is TRUE?

a. They mainly measure the activity of neurons located deep in the brain.
b. They reflect the subject’s mental state.
c. Alpha rhythms are fast frequencies while beta rhythms are slow.
d. Alpha rhythms are seen during alert states while beta rhythms are seen when the patient is
relaxed with their eyes closed.
e. High amplitude signals are related to asynchronous neural activity.

41) Which statement concerning the motor reflexes is FALSE?

a. To keep one’s balance, the response of the ipsilateral antagonist muscle is opposite to the
response of the muscle of interest.
b. Irradiation is the activation of the contralateral muscles in response to injury.
c. In response to injury, if the flexor is contracted, the contralateral extensor will be too.
d. All three reflexes we discussed in class have a polysynaptic component.
e. The stretch reflex relies on the muscle spindles and the inverse stretch reflex relies on the
Golgi tendon organ.

42) Which statement regarding brain circulation is FALSE?

a. The 3 meninges of the CNS are the dura mater, the arachnoid membrane and the pia mater.
b. The internal and external carotids meet at the Circle of Willis.
c. The cerebral aqueduct connects the third and fourth ventricles.
d. There are two foramens of Monro, each connecting a lateral ventricle to the third ventricle.
e. The brain receives 15% of total blood supply.

43) Which is NOT part of the brainstem:

a. Thalamus
b. Pons
c. Medulla
d. Midbrain
e. All of these are part of the brainstem.

44) Which statement about photoreceptors is FALSE?

a. Rods are associated with day vision, and cones with night vision.
b. Rods have more rhodopsin and capture more light than cones.
c. Cones have less opsin than do rods.
d. Rods have slower response time than do cones.
e. Cones are most sensitive to direct axial rays.

45) Which statement is FALSE?

a. cGMP-gated Na+ channels open by binding cGMP.
b. cGMP phosphodiesterase converts cGMP to GMP.
c. The inner segment of photoreceptors contains discs stacked on top of each other.
d. Photoreceptors release neurotransmitter in the dark.
e. The opsin protein contains a chromophore which enables it to be sensitive to photons.
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46) Cutting one of the optic tracts will cause…

a. loss of vision in the ipsilateral eye.
b. loss of vision in the contralateral eye.
c. loss of vision in the ipsilateral visual field.
d. loss of vision in the contralateral visual field.
e. bilateral loss of temporal visual hemifields.

47) Which cellular layer develops into the neural tube?

a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Neural plate
e. None of the above are CORRECT.

48) Which body area is NOT innervated by the lumbar spinal segments?
a. Hips
b. Legs
c. Lower abdominal wall
d. Lower digestive track
e. Genitals

49) The cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the:

a. Hypothalamus
b. Arachnoid villi
c. Midbrain
d. Subarachnoid space
e. Choroid plexus

50) Fill in the blanks: Lips have a __ ____ receptive field and __ ____ acuity.
a. Small, low
b. Small, high
c. Large, low
d. Large, high
e. None of the above are CORRECT.

51) Temperature and pain travel up the spinal cord in which pathway?
a. Anterolateral pathway only
b. Contralateral pathway only
c. Ipsilateral pathway only
d. Anterolateral and ipsilateral pathways
e. Anterolateral and contralateral pathways

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52) Which statement would be CORRECT, concerning a skeletal muscle fiber obtained from a
troponin knockout mouse, which does not make skeletal muscle troponin?
a. The fiber would not generate an endplate potential in response to stimulation of the motor
neuron.
b. The fiber would not generate action potentials.
c. The fiber would not contract in response to a rise in intracellular calcium.
d. Fiber action potentials would not invade the fiber t-tubules.
e. The intracellular calcium concentration would not increase in response to a fiber action
potential.

53) The calcium that triggers skeletal muscle contraction comes from…
a. calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
b. calcium influx through voltage-gated calcium channels.
c. calcium release from the t-tubules.
d. calcium influx through NMDA receptors
e. calcium release from troponin.

54) The most important factor contributing to the force of muscle contraction is…
a. The transition of muscle fibers from unfused to fused tetanus.
b. The size of the muscle fiber action potential.
c. The duration of the muscle fiber action potential.
d. The amount of calcium released inside the muscle fiber.
e. The number of muscle fibers that are recruited into the muscle contraction.

55) Curare is a plant toxin that prevents activation of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors. Which would
be the main effect of curare on the motor unit?
a. It would prevent initiation and propagation of the motor neuron action potential.
b. It would block calcium influx at the motor neuron presynaptic terminal.
c. It would prevent acetylcholine release from the motor neuron presynaptic terminal.
d. It would prevent the motor neuron from making synapses with the muscle fiber.
e. It would prevent the end plate potential at the muscle fiber end plate.

56) Which statement about the nucleus of the skeletal muscle fiber is CORRECT?
a. The nucleus extends for the entire length of the skeletal muscle fiber.
b. A single skeletal muscle fiber contains a large number of nuclei.
c. Each skeletal muscle fiber contains exactly two nuclei.
d. Skeletal muscle fibers do not contain nuclei.
b. During embryonic development, immature muscle cells contain many nuclei; however mature
muscle fibers in the adult contain a single nucleus.

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57) During concentric isotonic contraction of a skeletal muscle fiber, which of these occurs?
a. Sarcomeres lengthen
b. A bands shorten
c. I bands shorten
d. A bands lengthen
e. Thin filaments shorten

58) Propranolol is a drug that prevents activation of beta-adrenergic receptors. Professional

musicians have been known to take propranolol before performances. Why would they do this?
a. To increase breathing rate, enabling them to blow more air through their instruments
b. To inhibit activity in the digestive system, enabling the musicians to focus on their
performance
c. To inhibit the increased heart rate, sweaty palms and fast breathing that accompany
nervousness.
d. To relax skeletal muscle fibers, enabling musicians to perform more smoothly and gracefully.
e. To improve learning and memory, enabling performers to remember their parts more easily.

59) Pilocarpine is an activator of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors. Which effects would

pilocarpine have if it was applied to a beating heart?
a. The rate and force of heart contractions would increase.
b. The rate and force of heart contractions would decrease.
c. The rate of heart contractions would increase, but the force of the contractions would
decrease.
d. The heart tissue would die by excitotoxicity.
e. Nothing would happen.

60) What is the definition of a "motor unit"?

a. A single motor neuron plus all the muscle fibers it innervates
b. A single muscle fiber plus all of the motor neurons that innervate it
c. All of the motor neurons supplying a single muscle
d. A pair of antagonistic muscles
e. All of the muscles that affect the movement of any given joint

61) What protein is the principal component of skeletal muscle thick filaments?
a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Troponin
d. Calmodulin
e. Tropomyosin

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62) Nicotine is…

a. a cholinergic antagonist.
b. a beta-adrenergic agonist.
c. a cholinergic agonist.
d. an alpha-adrenergic antagonist.
e. a neurotransmitter.

63) Which statement regarding action potentials generated in a neuronal membrane is FALSE?
a. Action potentials travel in both directions along the axon.
b. An action potential generates a new action potential in an adjacent area of membrane.
c. An action potential generates a local current that depolarizes adjacent membrane to threshold
potential.
d. Action potentials are usually initiated at the axon hillock of a neuron.
e. An action potential generated by a threshold stimulus is the same size as one generated by a
supra-threshold (a much larger) stimulus.

64) Which statement about cerebrospinal fluid is FALSE?

a. It has the same composition as blood plasma.
b. It acts as a cushion for the brain and spinal cord.
c. It is secreted by cells lining the ventricles of the brain.
d. It circulates within and between brain ventricles and surrounds the spinal cord.
e. It is in diffusion equilibrium with the extracellular fluid of the central nervous system.

65) A patient has been experiencing difficulty with homeostatic regulation. An MRI scan reveals a
brain tumor. Which brain region is the tumor likely in?
a. The thalamus
b. The hippocampus
c. The cerebrum
d. The cerebellum
e. The hypothalamus

66) Stretch reflexes

a. occur only in the legs.
b. inhibit antagonistic muscles.
c. mediate flexor activation and withdrawal from a painful stimulus.
d. are initiated by stimulation of Golgi tendon organs.
e. are initiated by stretching of extrafusal muscle fibers.

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67) When a doctor's reflex hammer taps a patient's patellar tendon…

a. Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of intrafusal fibers in extensor muscles.
b. Alpha motor neurons stimulate contraction of extrafusal fibers in extensor muscles.
c. Alpha motor neurons that innervate ipsilateral flexor muscles are stimulated.
d. Inhibitory interneurons reduce action potential firing in alpha motor neurons to extrafusal
fibers of extensor muscles.
e. Golgi tendon organs in the patellar tendon stimulate the contraction of extrafusal fibers of
extensor muscles.

68) You accidentally touch a hot pan on the stove and pull your hand away quickly. Physiologically
speaking, what just happened?
a. An afferent neuron sent a signal in a monosynaptic reflex arc.
b. A nociceptor initiated muscle spindle fibers.
c. A nociceptor stimulated the local Golgi tendon organ.
d. A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the ipsilateral flexor muscle and inhibited contraction
of the ipsilateral extensor muscle.
e. A nociceptor stimulated contraction of the contralateral flexor muscle and inhibits contraction
of the contralateral extensor muscle.

69) You discover a novel compound that, when fed to rats, appears to stimulate dopamine secretion
from the substantia nigra. You decide to try to market the drug to humans as a therapy to treat…
a. nicotine addiction.
b. Vertigo.
c. Parkinson's disease.
d. cerebellar disease.
e. loss of voluntary motor movement following a stroke.

70) The corticospinal pathways…

a. are descending motor pathways.
b. begin in the cortex of the cerebellum.
c. consist of many interneurons linked synaptically.
d. are composed of alpha motor neurons.
e. bring sensory information from the spinal cord to the somatosensory region of the cerebral
cortex.

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