2023 BASIC EDUCATION

CERTIFICATE
EXAMINATION
 TABLE OF CONTENTS

1. General Résumé of the Chief Examiners’ Reports ... ... ... 2 - 10

2. Résumé of Languages Reports… … … … … … 11 - 13

3. English Language ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 14 - 16

4. French ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 17 - 20

5. Ghanaian Languages ... … … … … … … 21 - 62

6. Résumé of the Humanities Reports … … … … … 63 - 65

7. Religious and Moral Education … … … … … 66 - 72

8. Social Studies ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 73 - 79

9. Résumé of Mathematics Reports … … … … … 80

10. Mathematics ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 81 - 89

11. Résumé of Science … … … … … … 90

12. Integrated Science ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 91 - 102

13. Résumé of (ICT) … … … … … … … 103 - 104

14. Information & Communication Technology (ICT) … … … 105 - 113

14. Résumé of Basic Design and Technology … … … … … 114 - 116

14. Pre-Technical Skills … … … … … … … 117 - 126

15. Home Economics ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 127 - 140

16. Visual Art ... ... ... ... ... ... ... ... 141 – 153

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 GENERAL RESUMÉ OF CHIEF EXAMINERS’ REPORTS ON THE BASIC
EDUCATION CERTIFICATE EXAMINATION FOR SCHOOL
AND PRIVATE CANDIDATES, 2023

STANDARD OF THE PAPERS

The Chief Examiners reports focus on the essay component of the papers.
All the Chief Examiners reported that the standard of the papers was within the scope of the
syllabus and compared well with that of previous years.

They also indicated that all the questions were clear and within the reach of the candidates.

A. LANGUAGES

1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

The Chief Examiners reported that candidates’ performance in the various

subjects varied. The Chief Examiners for French, Dagaare, Akuapem Twi,
Asante Twi, Gonja, Ga, Fante, Ewe and English Language observed that there
was a slight improvement in the performance of candidates. However, for
Dangme, Kasem, Dagbani and Nzema, the Chief Examiners reported that the
performance remained relatively same as that of the previous year.
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiners reported that some candidates performed well in the
following areas:
(a) Adherence to Rubrics
The Chief Examiners for French, Nzema, Dagaare, Fante, Kasem,
Akuapim Twi, English Language, Gonja and Asante Twi reported that a
good number of candidates adhered to the rubrics of the papers.
(b) Good Organisation of Essays
According to the Chief Examiners for Nzema, Gonja, Dagaare, Dangme,
Asante Twi, and Akuapem Twi, a good number of candidates presented
well-organised essays. Candidates demonstrated mastery of the features
of the various forms of essays, hence presented their essays in a
systematic order.
(c) Appropriate Use of Language/Clarity of Expression

The Chief Examiners noted that there was improvement in the

expressions of the candidates for Nzema, English Language, Dagbani,
Kasem, Ga, French and Dagaare as compared to that of the previous
years. They reported that a number of candidates used appropriate
vocabulary to write their essays.
(d) Presentation of Comprehension Answers
The Chief Examiners for English Language, Ewe, Gonja, Dagaare, Ga,
Akuapem Twi and Asante Twi commended candidates for the precise
way in which some of them presented their answers.

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 (e) Lexis and Structure
Most of the candidates for Akuapem Twi, Dangme, Asante Twi, Gonja,
Nzema and Kasem performed well in the Lexis and Structure. They
reported that the candidates demonstrated mastery of the grammar aspect
of the languages.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The following weaknesses of candidates were identified by the Chief Examiners

of the various languages:

(a) Poor use of language

The Chief Examiners for French, English Language, Fante, Ga,
Dagbani, Gonja and Dagaare observed faulty constructions and spelling
errors in the responses of some candidates. Also, the Chief Examiners
for Ewe and Dangme observed that the use of the spoken form of the
language instead of the standard form was common in the candidates’
scripts. They further noted with concern that some candidates misused
personal pronouns in the various languages.

(b) Poor Stock of Vocabulary

The Chief Examiners for French, Dagbani, Gonja and Dagaare observed
that candidates’ stock of vocabulary was limited. As such, a lot of
English words were found in their essays. This made it very difficult to
understand some of the sentences they constructed.

(c) Poor Skills in Answering Comprehension Questions

It was noted by the Chief Examiners for English Language, Gonja, Ewe,
Ga, Dagbani and Dagaare that some candidates copied portions of the
comprehension passages, which were irrelevant, as answers to some
questions.

(d) Poor Usage of Punctuation Marks

The Chief Examiners for Akuapem Twi, Gonja, Fante, Dagbani,
Dagaare and Ewe indicated that some candidates failed to use
punctuation marks appropriately. They used commas where they were
expected to use full stops while some used capital letters after commas.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The following remedies were recommended to address the weaknesses

identified:

(a) Teachers should endeavour to teach all aspects of the syllabi, conduct
frequent word drills and other exercises in grammar.
(b) Candidates should be urged to read supplementary materials to improve
their vocabulary.

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 (c) Candidates should cultivate the habit of answering past questions on
comprehension passages. They should also read the Chief Examiners
Report so as to learn how to answer questions appropriately.
(d) Candidates should be taken through correct organization of answers
and be guided on the use of appropriate punctuation marks.
B. HUMANITIES

1. PERFORMANCE OF THE CANDIDATES

The Chief Examiners for Religious and Moral Education and Social Studies
noted that the performance of candidates varied. In Religious and Moral
Education, candidates’ performance was satisfactory and in Social Studies, the
performance was good.

SOCIAL STUDIES

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner noted that some of the candidates were able to demonstrate
understanding in the following areas of the syllabus:
(a) function of rocks;
(b) methods of preserving forest vegetation;
(c) methods of reducing the pollution of water bodies in Ghana.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner reported that some candidates had challenges in answering
questions from the following topics:

(a) effects of migration of the youth from their sources of origin;

(b) maintaining law and order in schools;
(c) classification of human resource;
(d) calculation of time, using lines of longitude.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance
to understand the following topics in the syllabus:

(a) Effects of migration of the youth from their sources of origin;

(b) Maintaining law and order in the schools;
(c) Classification of human resource;
(d) Calculating time using lines of longitude.

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 RELIGIOUS AND MORAL EDUCATION

1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner noted that most of the candidates showed understanding in the
following areas of the syllabus:

(i) Islamic marriages; how they are contracted and ways of sustaining
them;
(ii) Causes and prevention of physical death in the society;
(iii) Acceptable ways of saving money.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

According to the Chief Examiner, most candidates could not show understanding in the
following topics in the syllabus:

(a) Moral teachings in West African Traditional Religion,

(b) The Concepts of Cleanliness and Holiness in Islam,
(c) Comparative studies of the major religions in Ghana.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that teachers should give further attention to the
following areas of the syllabus:

(a) Moral teachings in West African Traditional Religion;

(b) Concepts of cleanliness and holiness in Islam;
(c) Basic comparative studies on the major religions in Ghana.

C. INTEGRATED SCIENCE

1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

The performance of the candidates was satisfactory, with a substantial number of

candidates performing above average.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates were able to:

(i) define aerobic respiration in terms of biochemical reactions;

(ii) identify farm tools correctly;
(iii) provide precise and accurate responses on physical properties of soil;
(iv) identify accurately areas of technology used for the benefit of humans;
(v) identify the major causes of teenage pregnancy;
(vi) state the importance of mulching on the soil;
(vii) state practices that destroy water bodies;
(viii) provide methods of conservation of water bodies.
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 3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some candidates produced avoidable errors in some aspects of their responses and some
are listed below:

(i) identification of electronic symbols;

(ii) explanation of neutralization reaction;
(iii) writing and balancing chemical equations;
(iv) food web diagrams were drawn without proper indication of energy flow;
(v) fundamental units and physical quantities;
(vi) wrongly listing HIV/AIDS as a common infectious disease that affects human
reproductive systems;
(vii) differentiation between aerobic and anaerobic respiration;
(viii) difficulty in explaining the term Milky Way as well as failure to establish the
relationship between stars and galaxies;
(xi) effects of soil erosion on the growth of plants;
(xii) failure to infer and interpret laboratory results from written observations.

SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance to be able
to:

(i) spell scientific terms accurately;

(ii) understand basic electronic concept and identify electronic symbols;
(iii) provide appropriate formulae or expression and leave answers in required units
of measurements if any;
(iv) write chemical symbols, equations and balancing of these equations.

D. MATHEMATICS
1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES
The Chief Examiner stated that candidates’ performance declined as compared with
that of the previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates showed strengths in the following areas:
(a) solving problems on sets;
(b) simplifying fractions;
(c) solving problems on powers of numbers;
(d) solving problems on rigid motion.

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 3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
Candidates’ weaknesses were observed in the following areas:
(a) solving problems related to distance and time;
(b) translating word problems into mathematical statements;
(c) drawing a pie chart;
(d) factorizing algebraic expression.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates should be:
(a) given adequate tuition and exercises to address the
weaknesses.
(b) encouraged to read carefully and understand the demands
of the questions before answering.

E. INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATION TECHNOLOGY

1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES'
The Chief Examiner reported that there was greater improvement in candidates’
performance compared to those of the previous years.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths as follows:
(a) appreciable knowledge of the print dialogue box and functions of some of the
commands on the dialogue box for Question 1;
(b) satisfactory response to Question 5 which was on Microsoft Excel data types;
(c) demonstrate a deeper understanding of the content of the questions;
(d) appropriate use of ICT terms in their responses;
(e) adherence to the general and specific instructions outlined in the paper.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES' WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:
(a) could not differentiate between current page and selection as demanded in
question 1;
(b) wrote most of the ICT terms wrongly even though some were provided in the
preamble to the question;
(c) failed to adhere to rubrics.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner suggested the following to help address the weaknesses identified:
(1) there should be adequate practical activities to improve or enhance proficiency.

(2) ICT teachers should develop spelling drills to improve the poor spelling of ICT
terminologies;

(3) teachers should stress the need to adhere to rubrics.

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F. BASIC DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY (PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS, HOME
ECONOMICS AND VISUAL ARTS

1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES
The Chief Examiners for Pre-Technical Skills and Visual Arts reported that there was
improvement in candidates’ performance compared with that of the previous years.

However, the Chief Examiner for Home Economics indicated that the candidates’
performance was not satisfactory.

PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiner reported that most of the candidates:

(a) showed a good grasp of pictorial drawings and how to convert them into
orthographic perspectives;

(b) correctly stated the symptoms of scurvy;

(c) provided neat sketches.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner indicated that the majority of the candidates:

(a) lacked in-depth knowledge on seams and its characteristics;

(b) failed to formulate analysis questions based on ergonomics;

(c) majority of the candidates could not provide standard dimensions;

(d) failed to state the specific use of the rip saw.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner suggested that:

(a) candidates should be given more exercises involving description of workshop

processes;

(b) teachers should pay adequate attention to the Core Skills aspect of the syllabus;

(c) candidates should be exposed to theory and practical training to improve the
understanding of the subject.

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 HOME ECONOMICS
1. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiner reported that candidates:

(a) performed well in questions that demanded short answers and recall of facts.

(b) were able to answer questions on exhibition.

(c) did well in the following areas:

(i) functions of nutrients;
(ii) balanced diet;
(iii) cooking methods.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that:

(a) the majority of the candidates demonstrated lack of knowledge in

Clothing questions.

(b) candidates failed to use the correct terminologies to answer questions and this
affected them.

3. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner recommended that:
(a) candidates should read the recommended textbooks in order to be familiar with
Clothing terminologies.
(b) the Summary of the Chief Examiner’s Report should be made available to
candidates. This will help them to be familiar with common errors.
(c) teachers are expected to teach both the clothing as well as the foods aspect of
the subject so that candidates can cultivate a balanced interest in both subjects.

VISUAL ARTS

1. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths as follows:
(a) ability to state the primary colours in art;

(b) showing in-depth knowledge in packaging;

(c) providing adequate responses to the questions on fabric and leather decorations;

(d) providing sufficient responses to terms such as pairing, splitting, scraping,

intertwining and coiling.

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2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:
(a) had difficulty in stating the differences between: signboard
and billboard, signpost and poster, and collage and mosaic;

(b) had a challenge in identifying the sources of weaving materials

such as straw, coir, rachis and raffia;

(c) could not describe how singeing is done on woven articles;

(d) had difficulty in matching question.

3. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that:

(a) teachers must endeavour to explain to the candidates, differences between the
following terms: signboard and billboard, signpost and poster, collage and
mosaic;

(b) the candidates should be encouraged to read their textbooks, notes and make
good use of the internet;

(c) teachers should make teaching and learning more practical than theoretical;

(d) teachers are encouraged to adapt the use of audio-visuals, in teaching functions
of tools and processes.

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 RESUME OF LANGUAGES
1. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES
The Chief Examiners reported that candidates’ performance in the various subjects
varied. The Chief Examiners for French 2, Dagaare 2, Akuapem Twi 2, Asante Twi 2,
Gonja 2,
Ga 2, Fante 2, Ewe 2 and English Language 2 observed that there was a slight
improvement in the performance of candidates. However, for Dangme 2, Kasem 2,
Dagbani 2 and Nzema 2, the Chief Examiners reported that the performance remained
the same as that of the previous year.
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiners reported that some candidates performed well in the following
areas:
(a) Adherence to Rubrics
The Chief Examiners for French 2, Nzema 2, Dagaare 2, Fante 2, Kasem 2,
Akuapim Twi 2, English Language 2, Gonja 2 and Asante Twi 2, reported that a
good number of candidates adhered to the rubrics of the papers.

(b) Good Organisation of Essays

According to the Chief Examiners for Nzema 2, Gonja 2, Dagaare 2, Dangme 2,
Asante Twi 2, and Akuapem Twi 2, a good number of candidates presented
well-organised essays. Candidates demonstrated mastery of the features of the
various forms of essays, hence presented their essays in a systematic order.

(c) Appropriate Use of Language/Clarity of Expression

The Chief Examiners noted that there was improvement in the expressions of the
candidates for Nzema 2, English Language 2, Dagbani 2, Kasem 2, Ga 2, French 2
and Dagaare as compared to that of the previous years. They reported that
candidates used appropriate vocabulary to write their essays.

(d) Presentation of Comprehension Answers

The Chief Examiners for English Language 2, Ewe 2, Gonja 2, Dagaare 2, Ga 2,
Akuapem Twi 2, and Asante Twi 2, commended candidates for their remarkable
handling of questions on comprehension passages. They especially lauded
candidates for the precise way in which some of them presented their answers.

(e) Lexis and Structure

Most of the candidates for Akuapem Twi 2, Dangme 2, Asante Twi 2, Gonja 2,
Nzema 2 and Kasem 2 performed creditably well in the lexis and structure,
according to the Chief Examiners. They reported that the candidates demonstrated
mastery over the grammar aspect of the languages.

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3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
The following weaknesses of candidates were identified by the Chief Examiners of the
various languages:
(e) Poor use of language

The Chief Examiners for French 2, English Language 2, Fante 2, Ga 2, Dagbani 2,

Gonja 2, and Dagaare 2 observed that faulty constructions, poor grammar and
spelling errors were still found in candidates’ responses. In the same way, the Chief
Examiners for Ewe 2 and Dangme 2 observed that the use of the spoken form of the
language instead of the standard form was common in the candidates’ scripts. They
also noted concern that some candidates misused certain personal pronouns in the
various languages.
(f) Poor Stock of Vocabulary
The Chief Examiners for French 2, Dagbani 2, Gonja 2 and Dagaare 2 observed that
candidates’ stock of vocabulary was limited. As such, a lot of English words were
found in their essays. This made it very difficult to understand some of the
sentences they constructed.
(g) Poor Skills in Answering Comprehension Passages
It was noted by the Chief Examiners for English Language 2, Gonja 2, Ewe 2,
Ga 2, Dagbani 2 and Dagaare 2 that some candidates lifted portions of the
comprehension passages, which were irrelevant, as answers to some questions.
(h) Poor Usage of Punctuation Marks
The Chief Examiners for Akuapem Twi 2, Gonja 2, Fante 2, Dagbani 2, Dagaare 2,
and Ewe 2 indicated that some candidates failed to use punctuation marks
appropriately. They used commas where they were expected to use full stops
while some used capital letters after commas.
4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The following remedies were recommended to address the weaknesses identified:
(e) Teachers should endeavour to teach all aspects of the syllabus, conduct frequent
word drills and other exercises to equip candidates to tackle all aspects of the
questions. Candidates should pay more attention to the correct use of tenses and be
given regular exercises and assignments which should be marked and corrected to
improve their grammar.

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(f) Candidates should be made to read supplementary books to improve their
vocabulary and appropriate use of the language.

(g) Candidates should cultivate the habit of solving past questions on comprehension
passages. They should also read the Chief Examiners Report so as to learn how to
tackle questions effectively.

(h) Candidates should be taken through the correct organization of their answers and
should be guided to use the appropriate punctuation marks especially the use of full
stops, commas and quotation marks. More exercises on punctuation should be
given regularly to candidates.

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 ENGLISH LANGUAGE 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper is comparable to that of previous years. The essay topics
comprised the different genres of formal letter writing, storytelling (i.e. narrative) and
article writing.

The content of the comprehension passage was within the experience and understanding of
the J.H.S students. The sentences and the vocabulary used were also within the reach of the
candidates.

With Literature, there was general improvement as more candidates attempted the
questions compared to previous years.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) The formal features for the different essay types were observed, e.g. the features of a
formal letter, and article writing.

(2) The standard of sentence constructions had improved in some cases.

(3) For the comprehension test, many candidates scored more than ten marks out of a total
mark of thirty.

(4) Candidates’ paragraphing and paragraph linkages improved.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some of the candidates mixed up the features of formal letter writing and with the features
of article writing. For example, in some cases there was no recipient’s address and no
heading; for the subscription, some candidates wrote their names before appending their
signatures instead of the other way round – signatures before full name. For the article,
some candidates did not write their names and addresses at the end of the essay.

A few candidates copied the comprehension passage for their essays. With literature, it was
evident that some candidates had not read the text book at all.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(1) The subject should be taught by persons who have obtained at least a Diploma (in
English) at the JHS level.
(2) Teachers should give more exercises to the pupils in all aspects of the language
(English composition, comprehension and grammar)
(3) Pupils/students should be encouraged to read widely.

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5. DETAILED COMMENTS
PART A (ESSAY)
Q1. Write a letter to the Director of Health of your district, discussing two ways in which
the activities of some food sellers affect the health of people in your community and
suggest one solution to the problem.

This was a formal letter and it had to be treated as such – with all the formal features. Many
candidates attempted it and the general performance was good.

Q2. Narrate an interesting story that ends with the statement, Indeed, it was a great
achievement.

This was a narrative a story that ends with the statement, “Indeed it was a great
achievement”. Not many candidates attempted this topic. The few who did, wrote all kinds
of stories and just tagged the statement at the end of it. There was no logical flow from
beginning, climax and end of the story. The performance here was below average.

Q3. Write an article for publication in a national newspaper on two effects of poor disposal
of waste on the people and suggest two ways of solving the problem.

Many candidates attempted this topic and they were mindful of the features of an article –
the heading, the body of the essay, and the writer’s name and address at the end of the
body. Those who attempted this topic did well.

Q4. Comprehension

PART B (COMPREHENSION)

a. This was a very easy question. Almost all the candidates got the answers correct.

b. The answers were: they performed poor academically OR it affected their academic
performance. Since pupils could perform all kinds of duties, the words academically
or academic were emphasized.

Without any of them, the candidate lost half a mark.

Another point was that the candidates were often absent from school or they were not
regular at school. Just stating ‘absenteeism’ , candidate lost half a mark. “They were
not punctual” was wrong.

c. Many candidates answered this question incorrectly because it was an implied

question. The correct answers for the question were: it was a community problem.
She wanted the work to be done effectively. She and the staff could not have solved
the problem on their own.

d. The two questions here were implied questions. However, many students got the
answers correct.

e. Candidates were asked to explain the following expressions:

(i) one thing puzzled her

(ii) often under the weather
(iii)all hands were on deck
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 What must be reserved here is that no word in the given expressions should be
repeated in the candidate’s response. For example, in (i) it was wrong to write
“something worried her” because her was repeated.
The right answers were – “She was not clear about something” or “she could not
understand/explain something. For iii “All hands were on deck”, we expected
answers like “Everybody was involved”, or Everybody worked (very) hard.
f. For the lexical items, candidates should take into consideration the tense, the part of
speech, the number (whether singular or plural) of the word and its environment e.g.
noticed – the answer should be saw or realized (not see or realise).
perform – do or work but not do well.

This can’t fit into the sentence. We can’t have do well better in school.

PART C (LITERATURE)

All the questions were based on the text from The cockcrow – compiled by John A. Sackey
and Lawrence Darmani.

The fact that some candidates did not answer any question on Literature is an indication that
they did not read the set book.
6. CONCLUSION

The standard that has been set for the BECE was maintained. Both the questions and
rubrics were clear. The marking scheme was quite comprehensive. Many alternative
answers were given for some of the questions.

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 FRENCH 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
This paper had a standard comparable to that of the past years in content and structure. The
questions followed the scope as prescribed in the BECE French syllabus. The candidates
were expected to answer one out of two questions. Question 1 was a simple description of
the candidate’s favourite day of the week.

Question 2 had to do with a description of pictures that told a story about a bad day for
school children.

There was general improvement in the performance of candidates. However, there was lack
of imagination and lack of vocabulary to express their ideas. In spite of the liberal scheme
of marking, many candidates lost marks because of poor spelling and wrong conjugation of
first group verbs.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Generally, candidates displayed outstanding performance in their compositions since
they understood the guidelines.

(2) Most candidates followed the rubrics of the paper and provided their answers in simple
sentences.

(3) Many candidates had a good knowledge of the days of the week in French and could
write them correctly.

(4) Candidates’ sentences were simple and logically connected to address the guidelines on
the days of the week.

(5) As usual, very few candidates attempted Question 2. Candidates studied the picture
very well and gave good answers. On the whole, those who produced good essays were
those who followed the given guidelines to the letter in their presentations.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Generally, candidates were weak in conjugation of verbs. Verbs like préférer, réparer,
and tomber en panne were not conjugated correctly.

(2) Some candidates were confused with the use of vous in the guidelines and used nous
instead of je in their responses.

(3) Candidates lack appropriate vocabularies to express themselves and many were those
who could not answer question 1 (j) correctly. Most candidates also avoided Question 2
which was on picture description because of the lack of expressions.

(4) Candidates who could not write the composition resorted to copying guidelines of the
composition and/or sections of the comprehension passage.

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4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(1) Teachers should remind candidates that the French Paper 2 is a composition so the
guidelines should be answered in complete sentences. Candidates should also avoid
tabulating or itemizing their essays.

(2) It appeared some candidates were totally ignorant of picture description. Periods must
be devoted to picture description.

(3) Teachers should adequately prepare their students for the examination by making use of
modern teaching methodology by including teaching aids to make their lessons lively.

(4) Teachers are encouraged to give regular exercises on grammar and discuss grammatical
errors with students after exercises.

(5) Students should be encouraged to read prescribed texts for the acquisition of additional
vocabulary and idiomatic expressions.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1

Write an essay about your preferred day of the week

(a) Il y a combien de jours dans la semaine?

Candidates were to state the number of days in a week and the expected answer is: Il y
a sept jours dans la semaine. Some of the candidates did not separate Il y a and wrote Il
ya. Others simply wrote the figure seven and avoided the word sept.

(b) Les jours de la semaine

Some candidates listed the days of the week straight away without forming a sentence.
Many candidates started the days of the week in capital letters instead of small letters as
it is written in the French language.

(c) Votre jour préféré

Candidates were expected to mention their favourite day of the week. A large number
of candidates answered the point correctly. However, a few of the candidates named
the day without constructing a sentence.

(d) Pourquoi vous préférez ce jour

Most ccandidates were able to provide one of the expected answers: C’est le jour où je
suis né(e). Others used nous, the first person plural pronoun in answering the question
just because vous, the second person plural was used in asking the question.

Others also had challenges with the conjugation of the verb préférer, a first group verb.

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(b) Où vous passez ce jour

Candidates were expected to state where they spend the day. Many answered correctly by
writing: Je passe ce jour à la maison/ chez moi.

(c) Vos activités de la journée

Candidates were expected to name some activities they engaged in during that special day.
Suitable answers such as Je fais la lessive/ Je joue au football, were provided.

(d) Avec qui vous passez la journée

Candidates were expected to name the person or people they spend the day with. Expected
answers were: Je passe la journée avec ma famille/ mon père/ ma mère/ mon ami(e), etc.
Many candidates had difficulty with the use of the appropriate possessive determiner.

(e) Ce que vous mangez ce jour

Candidates were expected to mention the food they eat on that favourite day. Je mange du
riz à la sauce/ du riz au gras/ du fufu à la sauce d’arachide. Candidates had problems with
the use of the partitive articles. Others avoided them altogether by writing: Je mange riz/ Je
mange la riz, etc.

(f) Comment se termine le jour

Candidates were expected to state how they usually end the day. Expected answers were: Le
jour se termine bien/ à l’église/ à la mosquée/ dans un restaurant, etc. Candidates had
difficulty in understanding the question and therefore, they could not answer effectively.

(g) Votre sentiment à la fin de ce jour

Candidates were expected to express how they feel at the close of the day. Most candidates
answered this with ease by simply stating: Je suis content(e)/ heureux/ heureuse, etc.

Question 2

Une mauvaise journée pour les écoliers. (A bad day for school children).

Candidates were expected to study a series of pictures and use questions provided under each
picture to narrate a story about how school children made it to school when the bus broke
down. Only a few candidates answered the question on picture description.

A. (i) Où sont les écoliers?

Candidates were expected to identify the location of the students in the picture. Candidates
relied on their knowledge of bus stop designations and supplied answers like: Les écoliers sont
à la station/ Les écoliers sont à la gare.
(ii) Qu’est-ce qu’ils attendent?

Candidates were expected to mention what the students were waiting for at the bus stop. This
answer “Ils attendant le/leur bus/voiture” was rightly provided by majority of candidates.

B. (i) Où sont le chauffeur et son apprenti?

19
 Candidates were expected to indicate the location of the driver and his apprentice
according to the picture. Candidates had problem including the two subjects (chauffeur,
apprenti) in one sentence. So, they mentioned them in two different sentences or in
some cases mentioning one and leaving the second out of their answers. Those who
understood the context used the plural subject pronoun, Ils in answers like: Ils sont
(assis) dans le bus/la voiture.
(ii) Qu’est-ce que les écoliers font?

Candidates were to tell what the students were doing in the picture.
The following answers were expected from candidates: Les écoliers paient leurs frais
de transport à l’apprenti/ Les écoliers montrent leurs cartes d’étudiant à l’apprenti/
Les écoliers sont en train de monter dans le bus/entrent dans le bus. Les écoliers
montent/entrent dans le bus. This item had many options/alternatives answers and so,
many candidates gave the right answer.
C. Où est le bus maintenant?

Candidates were expected to identify the location of the bus which was on its way to
school.
Most candidates found this point quite easy to answer by simply stating: Le bus est en
route/ Le bus est sur la route. Le bus va à l’école.

D. (i) Qu’est-ce qui arrive au bus?

Candidates were expected to guess what had happened to the bus which was no longer
in motion. Many candidates answered quite well: Le bus est en panne/ Le bus ne
marche plus. A few of the candidates used the appropriate vocabulary: Le bus tombe en
panne.

(ii) Qu’est-ce que le chauffeur fait?

Candidates were expected to guess what the driver was doing on his phone. Candidates
got this right by answering: Le chauffeur fait un appel/ Le chauffeur appelle un
mécanicien.

E. (i) Qui est avec le chauffeur?

Candidates did not follow the logical presentation of events and failed to identify the
mechanic in the picture. With the help of the spanner in his hands, the intelligent ones
used the word “le mécanicien”.

(ii) Pourquoi est-ce que le chauffeur lui donne de l’argent? Le chauffeur lui donne de
l’argent parce que le mécanicien répare le bus/a réparé le bus/la voiture. A few
candidates were able to get the correct answer.
F. Les écoliers arrivent à l’école. Pourquoi est-ce qu’ils sont derrière la porte?

Many candidates seemed to have noticed the word “fermé” in the picture and used it
rightly in answering the question: La porte est fermée. Les écoliers sont derrière la
porte parce que c’est est fermé. Others simply answered: Ils sont en retard.

20
 DAGAARE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was comparable with that of previous years. It tested the various
aspects of the language as prescribed by the syllabus.

Candidates’ performance however dipped as compared to that of the previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES STRENGTHS

(1) Generally, candidates who did averagely well used the appropriate context and
Content words to answer essay and comprehension questions; an indication of good
understanding of questions and the passage.

(2) On the Lexis and Structure, candidates were able to use the required conjunctions to
join phrases and sentences.

(3) A good number of candidates were able to provide punctuations, negation and word
classes appropriately.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Some candidates either copied the comprehension passage wholesale or partly for their
essays.
(2) A few candidates used English words and Dagaare words alternatively to write their
essays whilst others deviated in answering the questions.

(3) A good number of candidates also started sentences with lower case letters while others
failed to punctuate their sentences. Some also wrote single words as two.

(4) A lot of spelling mistakes were identified in candidates’ work. A few candidates could
not paragraph their essays correctly.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Candidates should be discouraged from copying comprehension passage as an answer

to essay questions.
(2) They should also be taken through the format of letter writing.
(3) Candidates should be encouraged to read carefully and get the demands of questions
before answering them.

(4) Dictation and grammar exercises should be given to candidates and duly marked by
teachers. Candidates should equally be made to do corrections as a way to reducing
spelling mistakes.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

21
Question 1

(a) De yɛlɛ anaare di ne dɛmɛ wuli bone naŋ so ka fo boɔrɔ ka fo gaa te zanne Senia Haae
Sakuuri kaŋa fo naŋ kaa iri poɔ ka fõõ wa baare fo Gyunea Haae Sakuuri.

This was a descriptive essay in which the candidates were expected to choose their
preferred SHS after JHS and discuss four points to support their stance. The candidates
were expected to suggest reasons for their choice to include; a high performing school of
good reputation, a school with good discipline, a school with qualified and dedicated
teachers to teach well and adequate infrastructures like classrooms, laboratories and
dormitories. They could also talk about adequate teaching and learning materials and well
stocked libraries to aid teaching and learning in the school.

Few candidates attempted this question. Some wrote good essays by giving appropriate
paragraphs and the future tense correctly. Others however, either copied the comprehension
passage or part of it as their answers and so, scored low marks.

Performance was not encouraging.

(b) Fo waa la a karendie zuzeɛ, de yɛlɛ anaare di ne dɛmɛ wuli bone naŋ so ka fo boɔrɔ ka
fo karembitaaba mine maŋ danne a sakuuri waabo .

This question was an expository essay and the candidate was expected to discuss four
reasons as a school prefect why his classmates should be punctual to school. Candidates
could then discuss the benefits of being punctual to school to include the following; it
enables lessons to begin in time, it allows candidates to partake in all the lessons, teachers
will be able to complete all their lessons or activities for the day with the students and it
helps candidates to cultivate the habit of punctuality in life.

They could also discuss that punctuality encourages peer learning collaboration in class, it
helps one to be time conscious and it saves the teacher the trouble of conducting remedial
classes.

Few of the candidates who attempted this question did pretty well. The rest of the
candidates deviated as they treated it as a letter writing. Some candidates however gave
good points and had the maximum score.
Performance was encouraging.

(c) Sɛge lɛtɛ ko fo zɔmaŋa/kyɛnɛ naŋ be sakuuri yuo poɔ, a manne fo sakubitɔ kaŋa fo
naŋ nɔŋ yaga meɛroŋ kyɛ de yɛlɛ ayi di ne dɛmɛ wuli bone naŋ so ka fo nɔŋ o.
This was an informal letter in which the candidate was expected to write a letter to a friend
describing a student he/she likes most in the school and give two reasons why he/she likes
him/her.

In the introduction, candidates could talk about the name and class of the student he/she
likes best, his physical features, his character and his/her likes and dislikes. In the body,
they could discuss the reasons why they like him/her to include that he is respectful, clever
in academic work, sociable and good in co-curricular activities like sports, singing, dancing
etc. They could also state that they like their friend because he/she is neat and always well-
dressed, reliable and above all he is kind.

22
 The majority of the candidates attempted this question. However, only a handful of them
performed creditably by presenting the features of an informal letter, stating the
pleasantries and the purpose of the letter correctly.
They also presented their points in an orderly manner with appropriate paragraphs. The rest
either deviated by writing formal letters or copying the comprehension passage as their
answers and so got no marks.
Performance was average.
(d) De yɛlɛ anaare di ne dɛmɛ wuli bone naŋ so ka fo sage ne ba naŋ ba sage ka ba feɛrɛ
sakubibilii sakue poore.
This is an argumentative essay in which candidates were asked to discuss four reasons why
they agree or disagree with the ban on caning in our basic schools.
Candidates were to take a stance for or against the motion and advance their arguments
accordingly in informal language using appropriate registers and appropriate figures of
speech.

For those in favour of caning in schools, they could advance the following points among
others; Caning inflicts pain on the individual, puts fear in learners and can even make some
learners drop out of school. They could also argue that caning brings about hatred for the
teacher and can also lead the death of the affected student. In conclusion, they could say it
is not a good corrective measure for learning.

On the other hand, candidates who support caning in the basic schools could argue that
caning causes students to do the right thing, it disciplines most students and can also put
fear in students to learn very hard. They could also argue that caning is used to correct bad
behaviour in the short possible time.

Few candidates answered this question and they satisfied the demands of the question.

Performance on this question good.

Question 2
COMPREHENSION
Candidates were expected to read a comprehension passage and answer questions (a) to (j).
Questions 2(a), (b) and (g) demanded recall answers and the majority of candidates were able
to provide the right answers. The responses were in the passage, yet few candidates could not
get them correct while 2(d) demanded that candidates should give the meaning of the word
‘maale’ as used in the passage.
Question 2(c) was an inference question where candidates needed to infer from the passage
and provide an answer. A few candidates were able to answer it correctly. In question 2(e),
candidates were asked why the barren woman refused to help the children of her rival. Many
candidates answered it very well.
For questions 2(f) and 2(h), candidates were expected to get the miracle the barren woman saw
on the farm and the miracle that was revealed after the man had shot the hyena and the
majority of them did as expected.
Many candidates were able to get the lesson learnt from the story correctly as demanded by
question 2(i).

23
For question 2(j)j which demanded a title for the passage, the majority of the candidates got it
correct.
Performance on this question was very high.
3. LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
It is question 3 with sub questions (a) – (t).
Questions 3 (a ‒ e) expected candidates to provide appropriate conjunctions to make certain
sentences complete. Most candidates did quite well but a few of them wrote post positions as
conjunctions and they scored low marks.
In questions 3 (f ‒ j), candidates were expected to give five examples of each of the following
word classes:
Proper noun, abstract noun, verb, adjective and pronoun. The majority of them did as expected
but a few of them interchanged the examples for the various word classes.
For questions 3 (k ‒ o), candidates were to write the opposite of certain underlined words in
some sentences. Most of them had challenges with this part. Some just wrote down certain
words as if they were identifying them while others repeated the same words as their answers.
Many of them got zero for this sub question.
Questions 3 (p‒ t) expected candidates to identify the adjectives in some sentences provided.
The majority of the candidates did it correctly and scored high marks.
Few of them wrote the nouns and the adjectives that qualify them as their answers, and they
got low marks.
Performance was average.

DAGBANI 2

24
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper is comparable to those of the previous years. The questions
touched on all the aspects of the syllabus.

There was a slight improvement in performance this year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES STRENGTHS

(1) Many candidates gave good introductions to their essays. They presented their
facts and ideas in an orderly manner. They raised relevant points and presented
them logically in appropriate paragraphs.

(2) A good number of candidates dealt very well with the grammatical issues
involved in the lexis and structure aspect of the paper effectively.
(3) Candidates were able to provide alternative responses, apart from those offered
by the marking scheme. They displayed some level of maturity in the use of the
language by using figurative expressions.

(4) A good number of candidates also proved to have command over the
orthography of the language. They spelt and punctuated their work very well.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Some candidates copied parts of the comprehension passage as answers to the
essay questions, and this was a complete deviation.

(2) Bad punctuations: Most candidates seemed not to have any idea about
punctuation signs. They even started names of towns, persons and even
sentences with small letters. They did not know where to apply full stops,
question marks, commas, exclamation marks and so on.

(3) Some candidates just wrote only the address, date and in some cases, the
salutation as their letters. Others also mixed Dagbani with English in their
write-ups.

(4) Some of the candidates could not follow the rubrics of the questions especially
the format for letter writing. Others copied the comprehension passage as
answers to some essay questions.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Candidates should be discouraged from copying comprehension passage as an

answer to essay questions since they will score zero for it.
(2) Students are supposed to learn punctuation signs at all levels. Knowledge in
general punctuations could be transferred and applied from one language to
another. If punctuation signs were first taught for instance in English to Dagbani,
they could apply them appropriately.

(3) Students should be taught all types of letters and be given the opportunity to
practice several of them for correction.

25
 (4) Teachers should discuss past questions with students so that they can become
conversant with the rubrics of the questions before writing the main
examination.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1
(a) Sabimi dalirinima Anahi n-wuhi din che ka a bɔri ni a chaŋ SHS shɛli a ni piila,
a yi naai JHS.

In this question, candidates were expected to advance four reasons why they will like to
attend a particular SHS after their JHS. They were also expected to advance reasons for
their choice such as the following:

There are qualified and dedicated teachers in the school who make the school to
perform well and gain good reputation, there is discipline and adequate teaching and
learning materials in the school that promote teaching and learning and there are
adequate infrastructures like classrooms, laboratories and dormitories that aid teaching
and learning.

A good number of candidates who answered this question performed well. However,
few of them wrote their answers in bullets form instead of in an essay form and they got
low marks.

Performance was encouraging.

(b) Di yi niŋ ka a nyɛ a kariŋduu shikuru bihi kpema, sabimi dalirinima Anahi
n-wuhi di nit u ni a shikurubihi taba daŋdi shikuru kandi na shɛm.

Candidates were expected to discuss four reasons why his/her classmates should be
punctual at school. They could discuss that punctuality in school is very important
because; it enables lessons to begin on time, it enables the teachers to complete all
activities for the day and it also helps students to take part in all the lessons in the day.

They could also add that punctuality encourages students to be time conscious and
children even develop the habit of being punctual in life when they learn to be punctual
in school.

A good number of candidates attempted this question. They were able to explain the
points clearly. However, few of them just tabulated their points and got low marks.
Performance was average.
(c) Sabimi gbaŋ n-ti a yikperilana ŋun be shikuru ni n-yɛli o a shikuru bila so a ni
yuri pam yɛla, ka yɛli o daliri dibaayi din chɛ ka a yuri o maa.

This is an informal letter which required that candidates should write a letter to a friend
in another school describing a colleague he/she likes best and give two reasons why
he/she likes him or her in their school. Pleasantries and the purpose of the letter were to
be at the introduction and clearly stated.

Candidates could also talk about the name and class of the student he/she likes best,
his/her physical features, his/her character and his/her likes and dislikes.

26
 In the body, candidates were expected to discuss the reasons why they like their friend.
They could state that they like him/her because he/she is academically good, sociable,
kind and reliable. They could stress the fact that he/she is very good in co-curricular
activities like sports and music and that he/she is always neat and well dressed.

To conclude, candidates could state the influence their colleague may have on their live.

A good number of candidates attempted this question. They were able to choose their
preferred student and advanced reasons why they like him correctly.
However, few candidates just bulleted the reasons without explaining them and so they
scored low marks.
Performance was highly impressive.
(d) Sabimi dalirinima Anahi n wuhi din che ka a saɤiti zaligu shɛli din mɔŋ kariŋbihi
fiɛbbu bibihi shikuruti ni la.

This was an argumentative essay and candidates were expected to discuss four reasons
why they agree or disagree with the ban on caning in our basic schools.
Candidates who do not support caning in the schools could argue that caning inflicts
pain or causes injuries on the individual, puts fear in the learners and can even make
some students stop schooling.
They could also add that it brings about hatred for the teacher and is not a corrective
measure for learning because it can result in court case or death of the offender.
On the other hand, candidates who support caning in basic schools could argue that it
brings about discipline and can also cause the student to do the right thing. They could
add that it puts fear in most students to learn and it can be used to correct bad
behaviors.
To conclude, candidates were expected to re-echo how the reasons for their choice
outweigh that of the other side.
A good number of candidates attempted this question. The majority were able to
advance the reasons for their preferred choices correctly.
However, a few candidates just bulleted the reasons without explaining them and so
they scored low marks.
Performance was highly impressive.
Question 2 – Comprehension

Candidates were presented with a prose passage to read and answer questions based on
it. These questions tested areas such as stated facts or recall, inference, meanings,
grammar and summary or title. They were able to give correct or suitable responses to
the stated facts and grammar questions.
However, they had challenges answering questions on inference and getting the
meanings of words.

They had problems with the language also as most of them could not write well.
Generally, performance on this question was not encouraging.

27
Question 3 - Lexis and Structure

This part sought to test candidates’ knowledge in filling in conjunctions to make

sentences complete, giving examples of some word classes, identifying adjectives in
given sentences and getting opposite in meaning of words. From questions 3(a-e),
candidates were asked to provide appropriate conjunctions to make the sentences
complete and they did as expected.

In 3(f-j), the candidates were tasked to give examples of proper noun, abstract noun,
verb, adjective and pronoun which they did very well.

From 3(k-o) however, candidates could not get the opposite of certain underlined
words in sentences. Some of them just copied the sentences down as their answers and
they scored no marks.

The last part, 3(p-t), requested the candidates to write the adjectives in given sentences
and the majority did very well. Few of them however wrote down different word
classes as adjectives and they scored low marks. Here, most candidates were able to
punctuate the sentences correctly.

Performance was encouraging.

DANGME 2

28
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of this year’s paper compared favourably with that of the previous years.
Generally, candidates’ performance have improved greatly in the area of subject matter
and language usage.
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
(1) The understanding of the questions was very good.

(2) Orderly presentation of ideas were very good.

(3) Good use of language such as proverbs, idiomatic expressions, figures of speech,
registers and loan words.

(4) Candidates’ performance in essay writing, comprehension and the Lexis and Structure
was commendable.

(5) Most of the candidates were able to raise relevant points and presented them
systematically.

(6) Generally, candidates exhibited some maturity in answering the questions.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some weaknesses of candidates were noticed as follows:

(1) Some candidates wrote the local dialects instead of the standard/written Dangme, ie lack
of ability to use the orthography with the rules of spellings e.g. verbal nouns-tsɔɔmi, fiami
were written as tsɔɔ mi, fia mi.

(2) Lack of vocabularies to enable candidates construct their sentence.

(3) Some candidates reproduced comprehension passage as their essay.

(4) Some candidates could not give the correct title to the comprehension question.
In some cases, the number of words exceeded what was requested.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Candidates should be encouraged to do a lot of reading in Dangme to enrich their

vocabulary.

(2) Teachers should give more exercises, mark and discuss with candidates in class.

(3) The conventionally accepted forms of speech and writing should be seriously taught on
the rules of the language.

(4) Parents should speak the Dangme with their wards.

(5) Comprehension exercises should be done regularly to enrich their understanding in the
language.

29
5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1a.
Sɛsɛ he kɛ tsɔɔ nɔ eywiɛ komɛ a he je nɛ o maa suɔ kaa o maa ya SHS pɔtɛɛ ko ke ji o gbe
JHS nya a. (Discuss four reasons why you want to attend a particular SHS after Junior High
School Education)
In the introduction, candidates were expected to state the reasons for his/her choice e.g. a high
performing school, good reputation, good discipline, good infrastructure, qualified teachers,
school performance in terms of sports, cultural activities, etc.
Candidates were also expected to use appropriate figures of speech, idiomatic expressions,
contemporary expressions, use of informal language with orderly presentation of ideas as well
as good paragraphing.
Majority of candidates who attempted this question demonstrated what was expected. Candidates
showed their high level of understanding of the question which enable them to perform well.

1. (b)
Kaa mo ji nyɛ sukuu sɛ ɔ nya dalɔ ɔ, moo sɛsɛ he kɛ tsɔɔ nɔ eywiɛ komɛ a he je nɛ e sa kaa
o sɛ nɔ bi ɔmɛ nɛ a ba sukuu mla ngɛ. (As a class prefect, discuss four reasons why your
classmates should be punctual to school.)
This question requested candidates in the introduction to mention some reasons like; lessons
begins on time, to be able to partake in all the lessons, to help candidates acquire the habit of
punctuality in life, to prevent teachers from remedial classes, to encourage the classmates to be
time conscious, etc.
A good number of candidates attempted this question. Indeed, those who answered it
demonstrated clear understanding of the demands of the question and therefore did well.
1 (c)
Ngmaa sɛ womi ya ha o huɛ ko ngɛ sukuu ekpa mi kɛ kale o huɛ ko nɛ o suɔ e sane pe
kulaa konɛ o tsɔɔ nɔ enyɔ komɛ a he je nɛ o suɔ jamɛ a huɛ ɔ. (Write a letter to a friend in a
different school describing a student you like most and give two reasons why you like him/her)
Candidates were expected to take note of the following features of informal letter e.g. address,
date, salutation, body introduction, content, conclusion and the subscription with the name of
the writer.
Candidates were expected to give a brief description of the student they like most e.g. name of
the student, school and class, physical features, height, complexion, character, like and dislike,
clever in academic work, sociable/friendly, respectful etc. The candidates were also expected
to use appropriate figures of speech, informal language and idiomatic expressions with the
correct use of tenses.
Candidates who attempted this question tackled it as informal letter and gave vivid description
of the friend in body. In the conclusion, candidates gave the reason for liking the friend.
There was clear demonstration of understanding. The performance was good.

30
1(d)
Sɛsɛ he kɛ tsɔɔ nɔ eywiɛ komɛ a he je nɛ o kplɛɛ nɔ aloo o kua mlaa nɛ tsiɔ sukuu bi kpa
fiami nya a. (Discuss four reasons why you agree or disagree with ban on caning in our basic
schools.)
This is an argumentative essay and demanded candidates taking a stance on one of the two
positions. a. Pros: e.g. caning inflicts pain on the individual, it makes some learners stop
schooling, it also results into court case/death, it brings hatred for some teachers, it sometimes
causes injuries to the offender and the teacher etc.

Cons: e.g. caning causes pupils to do the right thing, it disciplines some pupils. It can
sometimes be used to correct bad behaviour etc.

Majority of the candidates who attempted this question lacked the necessary vocabulary and
only resorted to the use of English words in certain instances. They also lacked good
introduction and orderly presentation of ideas for defending the stance. They only limited to
the stance and performed poorly.

COMPREHENSION

Candidates were expected to read the prose and answer the questions based on it. A good
number of candidates demonstrated good understanding and they were able to answer most of
the questions correctly. A few number of candidates however, showed lack of understanding
and got some of the answers wrong. The inferential questions posed considerable difficulty to
some candidates which might be due to lack of both intensive and extensive reading in the
language. Candidates’ performance generally was really above average.

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

3(a-e)
Ngmaa tsali nɛ da pe kulaa nɛ a maa da blɔhe nɛ a si ɔmɛ. (Candidates were required to use
the appropriate conjunctions to fill the gaps in the given sentences).

The expected answers were: and/or (kɛ, aloo, loo) and/or (kɛ, aloo, loo), but (se) because/if (ke,
akɛnɛ, ejakaa, ke ji). Unless (ja, lɔ ɔ he ɔ, lɔ ɔ he je ɔ, he je ɔ, lɔ ɔ)

3(f-j)
Ngmaa nɔhyɛ nɔ kakaaka kɛ ha munyungukuu nɛ ɔmɛ. (Candidates were required to write
down one example of each of the following word classes.)

The expected answers:

Proper noun-(Biɛnitsɛ) (Natɛ, Ogɔmɛ, Osabu, Padi etc. Abstract Noun-(Hihepɛtɛmi aloo
hinami) (Kɔɔhiɔ, abofu, suɔmi, gbenɔ, ninyɛ etc)
Verb-(peemimunyu) (fia, gbe, je, ba, ye etc)

31
Adjective-(kalelɔ) (futaa, nyafii, gaga, yumu, tsutsuutsu etc.)
Pronoun-(Biɛnanemidalɔ) (wa, o, e, a, mɛ, wɔ, i, lɛ, nyɛ, imi/ami)

3(k-o) Ngmaa kolisimi aloo senyamunyu kɛ ha munyunguhi nɛ a po a sisi ɔmɛ. (Required

candidates to rewrite down the opposite of each of the underlined words in the following
sentences)

Expected words and their answers:

Finifini-(sɛmusɛmu, musɛmusɛ, yayaaya, basabasa etc)
Mlamlaamla-(blɛuublɛuu)
Le- (li)
Hii si-(Daa si),
Tee- (si)
Gagaa-(kpitii)

QUESTION (3 p-t)
Ngmaa kaleli nɛ a ngɛ munyuza nɛ ɔmɛ a mi ɔmɛ. (Write down the adjectives in the given
sentences) The expected answers;
(futaa, kungwɔ-zɔ, kpanaa, kpiti, fufui.)

Generally, the performance on this section was highly commendable.

32
 EƲE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of this year’s paper compared favourably with that of the previous years.
Generally, candidates’ performance has improved greatly in the area of subject matter and
language usage.
2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES STRENGTHS

(1) Candidates attempted all the required number of questions, i.e. an essay,
comprehension and the lexis and structure.

(2) Most candidates presented their essays in the required number of words (150) and
above and scored good marks.

(3) Most candidates answered all the comprehension questions correctly.

(4) Candidates performance regarding the lexis and structure was very commendable.

(5) Most of the candidates were able to raise relevant points and presented them
systematically.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES WEAKNESSES

(1) Some candidates failed to answer the required number of questions which affected
their performance badly.

(2) Some candidates wrote short essays which affected the required number of words.
(3) Lack of vocabularies to enable candidates construct their sentence.
(4) Some candidates reproduced comprehension passage as their essay.
(5) Some candidness could not give a suitable topic for the comprehension passage.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) The issue of poor orthography can be resolved if teachers give more exercises to
students, mark and discuss.

(2) The culture of reading should be encouraged by the schools.

(3) Reading materials should be provided in the schools.

(4) Teachers should help students to develop interest in learning the subject.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

(1.a) Discuss four reasons why you want to attend a particular SHS after Junior High
School education:
Candidates were expected to state the name of the particular SHS they want to attend as the
introduction.
33
The body should contain some of the following: high performing school good discipline in the
school, qualified teachers who teach well, good infrastructure, proximity to where candidates
resides, prestige, friends and seniors who have been admitted in the school, school
performance in terms of sports, quiz etc.
Few candidates attempted this question and their presentation was just a discussion of general
reasons why they want to attend SHS after JHS. A couple of them mentioned the name of the
SHS they wanted to attend but the rest just talked about the benefits of attending SHS and
this resulted in their poor performance.
1b) As a class prefect, discuss 4 reasons why your classmates should be punctual
to school:

This question requested candidates in the introduction to mention some reasons like; lessons
begins on time, to be able to partake in all the lessons, to help candidates acquire the habit of
punctuality in life, to prevent teachers from remedial classes, to encourage the classmates to be
time conscious, etc.
A good number of candidates attempted this question. Indeed, those who answered it
demonstrated clear understanding of the demands of the question and therefore did well.
1c) Write a letter to a friend in a different school describing a student you like most
and give two reasons why you like him/her:

Candidates were expected to take note of the following features of informal letter e.g. address,
date, salutation, body introduction, content, conclusion and the subscription with the name of
the writer.
Candidates were expected to give a brief description of the student they like most e.g. name of
the student, school and class, physical features, height, complexion, character, like and dislike,
clever in academic work, sociable/friendly, respectful, etc. The candidates were also expected
to use appropriate figures of speech, informal language and idiomatic expressions with the
correct use of tenses.
Candidates who attempted this question tackled it as informal letter and gave vivid description
of the friend in body. In the conclusion, candidates gave the reason for liking the friend.
There was clear demonstration of understanding. The performance was good.
1d) Discuss 4 reasons why you agree or disagree with the ban on caning in your basic
school:

Majority of candidates attempted this question. This is an argumentative essay and demanded
candidates taking a stance on one of the two positions.
a. Pros: e.g. caning inflicts pain on the individual, it makes some learners stop schooling, it
also results into court case/death, it brings hatred for some teachers, it sometimes causes
injuries to the offender and the teacher etc.

Cons: e.g. caning causes pupils to do the right thing, it disciplines some pupils. It can
sometimes be used to correct bad behaviour etc.

Majority of the candidates who attempted this question lacked the necessary vocabulary and
only resorted to the use of English words in certain instances. They also lacked good
introduction and orderly presentation of ideas for defending the stance. They only limited to
the stance and performed poorly.

34
1. Comprehension:

The passage was very comprehensive and very interesting and the questions were
straightforward. Some candidates didn’t perform well. Question (a,b,e,f,g t, h) are recall
questions and their answers can be easily got from the passage but some candidates got them
wrong.

Questions C and I are the application types whereby candidates have to think and infer the
answers from the passage. Most candidates failed to give the right answers because they
couldn’t express their views.

Questions (i) is about the lesson learned from the passage which has been well handled by
the majority. Questions (d) is about the meaning of some expression from the passage. Most
candidates got it wrong.

Finally question (j) is about the title of the passage which was well done by the majority.
The performance on this section was average.

2. Lexis and Structure:

Questions (a-z) tested candidates on conjunction, (f-g) tested them on word classes, (k-o)
tested them on opposite or antonyms of words and (p-t) tested them on the identification of
adjectives in some sentences.

Even though some few candidates had everything correct, majority messed up in some
instances. They failed to provide the appropriate conjunctions.

Some gave so many examples of the word classes in question and had everything wrong.
The rubric of that question required an example each of proper noun, abstract noun, verb,
adjective and pronoun.

35
 GA 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

This year’s paper was standard because it tested the various aspects of the
language prescribed by the Ga syllabus.

The performance of the candidates was good.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Evidence from the scripts of candidates showed that a good number of them understood
the demands of the questions and gave correct answers.

(2) With regard to the essay topics candidates were able to give detailed answers to the
questions selected.

(3) With regard to the comprehension many candidates were able to give accurate
responses to them.

(4) Most candidates provided the precise answers to the Lexis and Structure.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES WEAKNESSES

(1) Poor orthography: spellings, word divisions, punctuations and tenses of some
candidates were very poor.

(2) Lack of vocabularies to enable candidates construct their sentence.

(3) Some candidates reproduced the comprehension passage as their essay.
(4) Some candidates could not give the correct title to the comprehension question. In
some cases, the number of words exceeded what was requested.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) If teachers put in a little more effort through class exercise with students, the problem
of poor orthography by students can be solved.

(2) Dictations, word drills and vocabulary building activities with students should be able
to help students to do corrections in building their vocabulary.

(3) Reading should be encouraged in the schools and teaching of phonics should be
encouraged in the lower classes.

36
5. DETAILED COMMENTS
a. Mɛni Siniͻ Hai Sukuu (SHS) obaasumͻ ni oya kɛji ogbe Juniͻ Hai Sukuu (JHS)
naa? Kɛ nibii ejwɛ atsͻͻ naa.
(Discuss four reasons why you want to attend a particular SHS after Junior High
School Education?).

Candidates were expected to discuss four reasons why they want to attend a particular
SHS after JHS. Candidates were expected to by way of introduction mention the kind
of SHS that he/she will like to attend.

Candidates were expected to talk about good reputation, discipline in the school,
qualified teachers who teach well, good infrastructure, proximity, etc. Most candidates
tackled this question.

Candidates were expected to express their personal impression about the school. They
were expected to use the future tense. Poor spelling affected their work.

Most of them were not even aware of programmes in their senior school of choice and
were not even able to say exactly what attracts them to those Senior High Schools. This
affected their performance negatively.

b. Akɛ onukpa yɛ oklasi kɛ nibii ejwɛ atsͻͻ naa nͻ hewɔ ni esa akɛ oklasibii lɛ aba
sukuu yɛ be ni sa lɛ mli.
(As a class prefect, discuss four reasons why your classmates should be punctual to
school.)

Candidates were expected to discuss four reasons why their classmates are expected to
come to school early. This is to help clean the compound and tidy the classrooms for
classes.

Also, for everyone to partake in all the lessons and to enable the teachers to complete
all lessons and all activities planned for the day. To help children acquire the habit of
punctuality in life. To encourage the classmates to be time conscious.

Most of them talked about punctuality, so as they can clean the compound before
classes’ starts and others were talking about punctuality to avoid unnecessary
punishments from teachers. Candidates performance was very good.

c. Ŋmaa wolo oyaha onaanyo ko yɛ sukuu kroko ni ogba lɛ sukuunyo ko ni osumɔɔ

esane waa lɛ he sane. Kɛ nibii enyɔ atsɔɔ naa.
(Write a letter to a friend in a different school describing a student you like most and
give two (2) reasons why you like him/her.)
This is an informal letter and candidates were expected to present an essay with
features such as address, date, appropriate salutation, good introduction, content,
conclusion and subscription where the candidate was expected to write his/her first
name or nickname.

37
 Candidates were expected to ask of the health of friends and relatives, give reasons for
writing the letter and mention the name of their school. Give two reasons why you like
the person.

Most candidates wrote on this essay topic and their performance was good but poor
spellings, wrong use of quotation marks and incorrect tenses affected candidates’
expressions and this caused them to lose marks under Mechanical Accuracy.

d. Ŋmaa nibii ejwɛ kɛtsɔɔ naa akɛ mɔyii no afo nli yɛ sukuu lɛ, okɛ mla wolɔi lɛ kpaa
gbee aloo okɛ amɛkpaaa gbee.
(Discuss four (4) reasons why you agree or disagree with the ban on caning in our basic
school.)
Candidate has to take a stance here and discuss four reasons why he/she agrees or not.

It puts fear in students and some even stop school. It is not a corrective measure for
learning.

On the other hand it disciplines the pupils and causes students to do the right thing.

Only few candidates attempted this question but they were not able to argue their points
well. To indicate their choice made them have an advantage over the other.

E.g. Caning:

Pros - Makes some students to stop school

- Puts fear in learners

- It brings about hatred for the teachers.

Cons - Puts fear in pupils

- Disciplines pupils.
- Causes pupils to do the right thing.

The performance of candidates was average.

1. Comprehension

The candidates were expected to read the prose passage of three paragraphs and answer questions
based on recall, facts and inference and precise. The performance was above average. The stated
facts questions were straightforward and easily answered by most candidates.

Others just lifted sentences from the passage to answer questions which shows those people were
not able to read or understand the passage and the questions.

Recall questions were very well answered but some candidates’ struggled with the inference
questions.

Question (i) asking for the lesson learnt was not properly answered by most of the candidates –
The answer could be that we should not envy our neighbour.

38
LEXIS AND STRUCTURES

There were four (4) Sub-sections

3 (a-e) The candidates were expected to fill the blank spaces in the sentences with conjunctions.

The expected answers were:

a. Kwei kɛ/loo Awo baaba. (Kwei and Awo will come.)

b. Kɛjeee Tsotsoo lɛ belɛ/no lɛ Mole baatere. (If not Tsotsoo then Mole will carry).

c. Wɔna polisifonyo lɛ shi/tsɛbelɛ wɔnako julɔ lɛ. (we saw the policeman but we could not
see the thief.)

d. Miyaŋ shia ejaakɛ mibɛ shika. (I would not go home because I do not have money)

e. The sick person cannot walk unless you carry him. (Helatsɛɛ lɛ nyɛŋ enyiɛ bɛja/ja owo
lɛ.)

Write down one example of each of the following word phrases:

f. Proper noun (Kɔsoaŋ Gbɛi)

g. Abstract Noun (Gbɛi sisa)

h. Verb (Feemɔwiemɔ)

i. Adjective (Sutsɔɔlɔ)

j. Pronoun (Najiaŋdamɔlɔ)

Write down the opposite of each of the underlined words in the following sentences:

k. Ugly (taŋ, taŋtaŋ)

l. Slowly (blɛoo, nyaa)

m. Stupid (leee nii, bɛ jwɛŋmɔ)

n. Stand (tee shi, te shi)

o. Short (kuku)

Write down the adjectives in the following sentences:

p. White - yɛŋ

q. yellow - wuɔfɔ su

r. wise - hiɛ ka shi

s. short – kpitioo

t. ripe - etsutsui

39
Majority of candidates performed well on lexis and structure.

NZEMA 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper is comparable with those of previous years. All the questions were in
line with the syllabus.

The general performance of the candidates was average. However, a few particular schools
performed remarkably.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Candidates adhered to the rubrics of the paper and followed the requirements of the questions
and arranged their answers perfectly and correctly.

(2) With respect to the essay, most of the candidates arranged their thoughts well with
good paragraphing and conclusions as demanded by the questions.

(3) Most of the candidates could write the required number of words demanded for the essay.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) The general performance of students on the orthography of the language still remains very
poor.

(2) Word division - attaching the pronoun to the verb e.g. “Bɛkɔ” (they go) and detaching the
pronoun from the noun e.g “Me sa” (My hand) continues to be a challenge to candidates.
Just a few followed the orthographic rules of the language.

(3) Most of the candidates appeared ignorant of the sounds of the alphabets. Consequently, quite
a number of them could not write simple words correctly.

(4) There was a complete disregard of the use of punctuations in the essay and that marred the
beauty of most of the essays.

(5) Most of the candidates jumbled different ideas, totally ignoring the rules of paragraphing,
thus marring the beauty of their essays.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Teachers are entreated to consciously teach or revise the sounds of the alphabets in order
to improve the reading and writing skills of pupils.

(2) Teachers are advised to introduce supplementary books in the language to the pupils and
motivate them to read them in order to improve their competence in the language.

(3) Teachers should give their students more exercises in the language, mark and discuss
their shortcomings as a means of preparing them adequately for the final examination.

40
5. DETAILED COMMENTS

COMPOSITION
1a. Kilehile nu maa yɛnwu ninyɛne nsa mɔɔ ɔti wɔva mgbanyima sukunwiɔ ko bie wɔzie
ɛ nye zo kɛ saa ɛwie wɔ sukukyi ne a ɛbahɔ la.

The candidate was required to discuss four reasons for choosing to attend a particular
SHS after the JHS education.

Expected Response:

Introduction: The candidate was to give a suitable introduction, then state the SHS of
his/her choice.

Body: The following reasons were expected from the candidates:

(i) Qualified teachers who teach well.

(ii) An academically-high performing school.
(iii) School with a good reputation.
(iv) Good infrastructure in the school.
(v) Proximity to the candidate’s home/town.
(vi) Good performance in terms of sports , quiz etc.

Conclusion: A good conclusion, eg. Attainment of good grades to further one’s

education.

Comments: This question was not popular. However, the few who attempted it failed
to meet the demands of the question.

(b) Kɛmɔ ɛdawɔ a ɛle sukoavoma kpanyinli wɔ wɔ sukulu sua ne anu la, kilehile nu maa
yɛnwu ninyɛne nna mɔɔ ɔti ɔwɔ kɛ sukulu ngakula ne ba sukulu ndɛ dahuu biala la.

The candidate was asked as the Class Prefect to discuss four reasons why his/her
classmates should be punctual in school.

Expected Response:

Introduction: A relevant introduction e.g. Some students come to school late….

Body:

The following reasons were expected:

(i) To enable lessons to begin on time.

(ii) To enable the pupils to partake in all lessons.
(iii)To enable the teacher to complete all lessons scheduled for the day.
(iv) To enable the pupils develop/build the habit of punctuality in life.
(v) To encourage effective peer learning and collaboration in class.
41
Conclusion:

A good conclusion e.g. Punctuality is key to the achievement of good academic performance.
Only a few candidates answered this question, but the few who did were able to come out with
the expected points. However, the different points were not put in paragraphs.

(c) Kɛlɛ kɛlata kɔmaa ɛ gɔnwo mɔɔ wɔ sukulu gyɛne nu la, na ka ɛ gɔnwo sukoavo mɔɔ ɛkulo ye
edwɛkɛ kpalɛ la anwo edwɛkɛ nee ninyɛne nwiɔ mɔɔ ɔti ɛkulo ye edwɛkɛ la.

The candidate was expected to write a letter to a friend in another school to tell him/her about
his/her best friend and give two reasons why he/she likes him/her.

Expected Response:

Organization:

This is a friendly letter and the candidate was expected to produce the following:

(i) The writer’s address with date.

(ii) The salutation, e.g. Me gɔnwo Adwoba

(iii) Valediction, e.g. Medame Aka ɔ

Introduction:
Pleasantries and purpose of the letter.

This is a friendly letter and the candidate was expected to follow the following lines:

Body: a. Description of the friend the student likes most, e.g. the name of the friend and class,
physical features,

Student’s character, likes and dislikes. etc.

b. Reasons:

(i) Clever in academic work

(ii) Sociable/Friendly
(iii) Reliable and kind
(iv) Respectful
(v) Good in co-curricular activities etc.

Conclusion: A suitable conclusion e.g. … because he/she helps me in my studies and helps me
when I am in need.

Comments:

This question was the most popular of all the questions. A good number of the candidates who
attempted it were able to meet the full demands of the question and were rewarded
accordingly. A few of them who attempted it partially deviated and rather described the friend
they were writing the letter to.

42
(d) Kilehile nu maa yɛnwu ninyɛne nna mɔɔ ɔti ɛdie ɛto nu kɛ bɛbo kakula wɔ sukulu nu anzɛɛ
ɛnlie ɛndo nu la.

The question required the candidate to discuss four reasons why he/she agrees or disagrees with
the idea of the caning of pupils in our basic schools.

Expected Response:

Introduction: A suitable introduction and the candidate taking a stance

Body:

1. FOR

▪ Caning inflicts pain on the pupil.

▪ It makes some learners stop schooling.
▪ Caning puts fear in pupils.
▪ It may cause injuries on the pupil.
▪ It brings hatred for the teacher etc.

II. AGAINST
▪ Caning causes pupils to do the right thing.
▪ It instils discipline in pupils.
▪ Used to correct bad behaviour.
▪ It can put fear in pupils.

Conclusion: Any suitable conclusion e.g.

For: Caning cannot redress poor academic performance

Against: It is said that spare the rod and spoil the child

Comments:

This question was not popular and the few who attempted it could not argue their points
convincingly. They also jumbled their ideas ignoring the rules of paragraphing.

Question 2

COMPREHENSION

This was a comprehension passage followed by ten questions of different thinking levels - stated
facts, inference, meaning and summary/title.

Expected Answers:

2. (a) Motavolɛ ne a le ɔ ye ekyi ne./Motavolɛ ne a le ɔ ye ne mɔɔ tɔ zo nwiɔ la.

(b) Nrenyia ne wole mralɛ nnu.

43
 (c) Amaa biala anyia ye ɛya yeayɛ/Amaa bɛ hu anzo nu adwo ye /Amaa bɛ hu anwu
biala anwosesebɛ

(d) Fifile yɛle ngɛnlɛma

(e) Ɔhola adwenle hakyile la ati ɔ/Ɔnwunle kɛ ɔ hola ne subane ɛhakyi la ati ɔ

(f) Ɔnwunle kɛ nane bie ɛlɛsɛkye ye ɛya ne/Ɔnwunle weɛlɛ kpole bie kɛ ɔlɛsɛkye ye
ɛya ne.

(g) Kɛmɔ ɛnee weɛlɛ ne ɛlɛsɛkye ye ɛya ne la ati ɔ./Amaa weɛlɛ ne angɔ zo anzɛkye y
ɛya ne.

(h) Weɛlɛ ne hakyile sonla

(i) Ɛtaneyɛlɛ ɛnle kpalɛ./Saa awie yɛ wɔ boɛ a ɔnle kɛ ɛfa ɛtane ɛtua ye kakɛ/Anyebolo
ɛnle debie kpalɛ.

(j) Mɛhola nwiɔ ne./Kunli ne nee ye mraalɛ nwiɔ ne./Motavolɛ ne nee ɔ hola

The general performance of candidates was satisfactory. However, the area of concern for most
of the candidates was the questions on inference, meaning and giving the passage a title.

The performance of most of the candidates in these areas was rather poor.

Question 3

LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

This section was made up of four sub-sections:

▪ Filling in a space with the correct conjunction

▪ Giving examples of selected word classes

▪ Finding the opposites of some words underlined in sentences.

▪ Identifying adjectives in some sentences

Expected Answers:

(a) nee/yɛɛ (k) ɛtane

(b) anzɛɛ (l) bɛtɛɛ/nyaanyaa
(c) na/ noko / noko akee (m) koasea/kɔnwɔne
(d). ɔluakɛ /ɔboalekɛ (n) mmasele
(e) ɔti / yemɔti / zɔhane ati/ɛhye ati (o) ezinra
(f) Kodwo/Bolɔfo/Molɛ/gana (p) fufule
(g) fɛlɛko/anyiemgba / anyebolo (q) akɔlɛnlome
(h) Kɛ/da/kɛlɛ/ . ( r) nrɛlɛbɛvolɛ
(i) kɛnlɛma/bile/awule (s) adwola
(j) me/ɔ/medame (t) amunli

The performance of the candidates was generally very good.

44
 FANTE 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was good, and it matched well with that of previous years. The
questions were of good quality and within the reach of the candidates.

Many candidates showed a better understanding of most of the questions they answered which
reflected generally in their performance.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Candidates observed the rubrics of every question and answered them as requested.

(2) Many candidates were able to write about one hundred and fifty (150) words on the
composition topics they chose and this time, only a few of them copied the comprehension
passage for their essays.

(3) The candidates were able to handle the comprehension questions very well. Most of them
gave clear and straight forward answers to the recall questions.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Most of the candidates had problems with grammar. They prefixed verbs with subject
pronoun such “migye” instead of “megye’, “menyim” instead of “minyim”, “mowie”
instead of “miwie”, “motum” instead of ‘mobotum” and many others.

(2) Although the candidates answered the recall questions on the comprehension passage very
well, the majority of them could not answer the questions on inference and meaning.

(3) About 90% of them lifted long sentences from the passage as their answers

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Pupils in the Basic schools must be encouraged to cultivate the habit of reading Fante
materials.

(2) Students must be encouraged to give gists of texts they read in the form of summary.

(3) Teachers must take students through regular dictation drills to sharpen their spelling
skills.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Give four reasons why you would like to attend a particular S.H.S after you have
completed J.H.S.
This is an expository essay which required the candidate to discuss four (4) reasons why
they want to attend a particular SHS after JHS education.
Few candidates wrote on this topic and they were able to give tangible reasons for their
choice/stance. The reasons given included, proximity to where they reside, great academic
performance of the school, nice uniform, prestige, etc.

45
 Unfortunately, the majority of them couldn’t use the future tense/aspect of the verbs very well.
Punctuations and spellings were also poor.

(b) As a class prefect, discuss four reasons why your classmates should be punctual to school.

Not many candidates attempted this question. However, those who answered it, did very well
by giving good reasons why students should be punctual in school at all times. Some of the
reasons given include:

It enables students to settle down and the prepare for the day’s work, it prepares them for life,
lessons are started early when students are punctual.

(c) Write a letter to a friend in a different school describing a student you like most and
give two reasons why you like him/her.
This was the most popular question. Most candidates chose it and they did very well. They
were able to describe their best friends vividly with good reasons why they have them as
friends. Appropriate features of an informal letter writing were well displayed. The
Introduction, Presentation of ideas and Conclusion were very good.
(d) Discuss four reasons why you agree or disagree with the ban of caning in our basic
school.
Not quite a good number of candidates attempted this question. Nevertheless, those who
attempted, did very well. Some candidates argued very well on the use of the cane in schools.
They were able to prove why the use of the cane in schools is necessary.

Some of the points they advanced were that, the use of canes promotes and helps to maintain
discipline in schools: students obey school authorities, are very punctual to school issues,
keep orders in class, study hard and respect their teachers and others.

Fewer candidates copied the comprehension passage as their essays as compared to last year.
Question 2 - Comprehension
The Comprehension passage was well answered by many candidates which earned them very
high marks.

Many candidates also selected good titles to the comprehension passage. The only challenge
was their inability to answer the questions on inference and meaning.

Question 3 - Lexis And Structure.

Candidates were asked to answer all the questions in this section for a total of twenty (20)
marks.
Questions (a-e) were on conjunctions. Candidates were asked to supply the appropriate
conjunctions to make the various sentences complete and meaningful.
Questions (f-j) were on word classes and types of nouns. (f and g) were on proper and abstract
nouns respectively while (h-j) were also on verb/adjective and pronoun respectively.
Questions (k-o) were based on opposites. Candidates were asked to give the opposites of
underlined words in the various sentences.
Questions (p-t) were on adjectives.
Candidates were asked to select the adjectives in the given sentences Almost all the candidates
gave good responses to this part of the examination questions.

46
 TWI (AKUAPEM) 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was the same as that of the previous years.

The performance of the candidates was equally good as the majority of the candidates
performed creditably.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) The candidates were able to give precise and concise answers to the questions they
attempted. They also adhered to the rubrics for each section of the paper.

Their handwritings were also legible and that enhanced the marking and scoring of their
work.

(2) The majority of the candidates were able to write the required number of words for the
composition. They were also able to raise good points for their essays.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some candidates showed numerous weaknesses and these have been grouped
as follows:

(1) Deviation: Few candidates deviated from the required content in the composition. For
example, instead of writing on caning (Mmaabᴐ), they wrote about girl-child education. Few
candidates wrote on this topic and scored below average.

(2) Mindless Lifting: Some candidates copied the comprehension passage as their essays and
were penalised for that. Some candidates also copied words from the questions and joined
them any how as their essays and they were not meaningful or intelligible as well.

(3) Overcrowding of Answers: A few candidates overcrowded their answers which made
marking and scoring quite difficult and time-wasting. This was found in the comprehension
and in the Lexis and Structure.

(4) Tenses: Some candidates could not use the correct tenses especially in the composition.
Candidates used the verbs anyhow and that marred their essays.

E.g. Question (ԑ) {A, B and C} required the use of the future tense but candidates mixed the
tenses up which made their essays difficult to read.

(5) Punctuation Marks: Most of the candidates did not use the appropriate marks in their works.
Some of them ignored the punctuations like: [full stop (.), question marks(?) commas,
quotation marks (“”, ‘’) and used the apostrophe (‘) anyhow.

In Twi, this apostrophe is used to show possession but candidates used it anyhow.

47
4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Deviation: There is the need for Subject-teachers to advise candidates on the
consequences of deviation. They should instruct/teach candidates to choose wisely and
make sure they understand the questions before they set forth to write and to avoid
creating their own topics.

(2) Lifting: It would be very prudent if teachers are educated on this problem, to inculcate in
candidates the need to avoid unnecessary and mindless lifting and copying of the
comprehension passage as their composition/essays.

(3) Overcrowding of Answers: Teachers must endeavour to advise candidates on how to use
the answer booklet. They should be advised to leave some lines between sub-questions to
avoid overcrowding of answers.

They should be told to answer a new question on a fresh page to make their work neat
and readable.

(4) Tenses: Candidates should be taught on the use of the tenses. Teachers should stress on
the conjugation of the verbs so that pupils would be able to use them correctly in their
essays. More exercises should be given to ensure improvement.

(5) Punctuation Marks & Capitalization: The Principal Punctuation marks should be stressed
i.e. Full stop, comma, inverted comma, question mark etc.

Candidates should be advised to use them in their essays. On Capitalization, teachers

must do well to ensure that pupils use punctuation marks effectively.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1 – Composition.

(a) Kyerԑw sԑnti anan a wobԑpԑ sԑ wokᴐ Ntoaso Sukuu (S.H.S) pᴐtee bi bere a woawie
Junior High School.
This is an expository essay which required the candidate to discuss four (4) reasons why they
want to attend a particular SHS after JHS education.
Few candidates wrote on this topic and they were able to give tangible reasons for their
choice/stance. The reasons given included, proximity to where they reside, great academic
performance by the school, nice uniform, prestige and etc.

Unfortunately, the majority of them couldn’t use the future tense/aspect of the verbs very well.
Punctuations and spellings were also poor.

(b) Woyԑ wo gyinapԑn sofo panyin. Kyerԑ sԑnti anan a ԑsԑ sԑ wo mfԑfo no ba sukuu ntԑm

Here, the candidate was expected to act as the class prefect of his/her class and discuss four
reasons why his colleagues ought to be punctual in school.

Very few candidates attempted this question. They could not give enough reasons but rather
emphasised on loss of contact hours.

48
 The candidates could have added that it enables lessons to begin on time, it encourages
students to be time conscious, it enables teachers to exhaust their topics and it helps prepare
them for life.

(c) Kyerԑw lԑtԑ kᴐma w’adamfo a ᴐwᴐ sukuu foforo mu na ka w’adanfo a wopԑ n’asԑm pa
ara ho asԑm kyerԑ no. Kyerԑ sԑnti abien a wopԑ n’asԑm.

This is a friendly letter which required the candidate to write a letter to a friend in a
different school describing a student he/she likes most with two reasons why he/she likes
that particular friend.

Most of the candidates wrote on this topic. They were able to provide the features of an
informal letter. They were able to express pleasantries and they stated the purpose of the
letter as well.

They were able to mention the new friend’s name, describe their stature/complexion/
age/parents age and their educational backgrounds. They were also able to stress on why
they like their friends. On the whole, they did well.

Only the weak ones could not write as expected.

(d) Kyerԑ sԑnti anan a wopene anaa wompene mmaatwa so wᴐ mfitiase Sukuu mu.

This is an argumentative essay which expected the candidate to give four reasons why
he/she agrees or disagrees with the ban on canning in our Basic Schools.

This was the least attempted question and the candidates who chose it could not put up
any better argument.

However, a few were able to speak in favour of the motion that the Holy book even
supports caning, it causes people to do the right thing, it can sometimes be used to
correct bad behaviours and it puts fear in students.

Teachers should do well to teach students on the approved style of raising one or two points
of the opposite side before they choose a stance. For instance, the fact that it inflicts pain, it
may also cause injuries and too much fear may also lead to timidity.

In all, the performance was average.

Question 2 - Comprehension
The passage was made up of five (5) short paragraphs which was associated with ten (10) sub
questions lettered [A-J]. The questions were comprehensible and very accurate.
Most of the candidates did well, they were able to score high marks especially the brilliant
candidates who could read and understand it.
The weak ones however resorted to mindless lifting from the passage. They were not able to
answer the inference type of questions.
On the whole, most candidates scored above average.

49
Question 3 - Lexis and Structure
Candidates were asked to answer all the questions in this section for a total of twenty (20) marks.
Questions (a-e) were on conjunctions. Candidates were asked to supply the appropriate
conjunctions to make the various sentences complete and meaningful.
Questions (f-j) were on word classes and types of nouns. (f and g) were on proper and abstract
nouns respectively while (h-j) were also on verb/adjective and pronoun respectively.
Questions (k-o) were based on opposites. Candidates were asked to give the opposites of
underlined words in the various sentences.
Questions (p-t) were on adjectives. Candidates were asked to select the adjectives in the given
sentences.
In all, the candidates performed very well in this section. They were able to score high marks
especially the academically brilliant candidates.
As usual, the weak ones followed the old trend and could not perform as brilliantly as the good
ones.

50
 TWI (ASANTE) 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was comparable with that of the previous years. The performance of
the candidates was better as compared with that of the previous years.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Most of the candidates did very well in the comprehension and the Lexis and Structure.
Their ability to read and understand the comprehension passage is commendable.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Most of the candidates who answered the essay question 1(a) deviated. It seems they did not
understand the question well so instead of writing about a particular S.H.S they wish to attend,
they wrote on why they wish to attend S.H.S after their J.H.S. education

Again, those who chose question 1(c) answered only the second part of the question, which was
on two reasons why they like the friend and left the description of the friend.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

Teachers should help or teach their students how to answer essay type questions. They should
let them know that one has to understand the question well and plan the essay before attempting
it.
5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question One
(a) Kyerԑ sԑnti nnan a wobԑpԑ sԑ wokᴐ Ntoasoᴐ Sukuu (S.H.S) pᴐtee bi berԑ a woawie
Junior High School. (Give four reasons why you would like to attend a particular S.H.S
after you have finished the J.H.S).

In this question, candidates were expected to mention the particular S.H.S and give four
reasons for choosing that school but almost all the candidates understood the question to be
why they want to go to SHS

(b) Woyԑ wo gyinapԑn sofo panin. Kyerԑ sԑnti nnan a ԑsԑ sԑ wo mfԑfo no ba sukuu ntԑm
(You are the prefect of your class. Give four reasons why your mates should come to
school early).

Candidates were to give four benefits of being punctual at school. They were therefore
expected to give the reasons and elaborate them but some just stated one or two reasons.
In fact those who answered this question could not answer it well.

(c) Twerԑ lԑtԑ kᴐma w’adamfo a ᴐwᴐ sukuu foforᴐ mu na kyerԑ no w’adamfo a wopԑ
n’asԑm pa ara ho asԑm. Kyerԑ sԑnti mmienu a wopԑ n’asԑm. (Write a letter to a friend
in another school describing your best friend to him/her. Give two reasons why you like
him/her).

51
 Here, the candidate was required to describe his/her best friend to a friend in another
school. After the description, they were to give two reasons why they like the friend.
Most of them mentioned the name of the friend and they like and left the description.

Others also gave reasons why they like the friend they were writing to but not the best
friend. This means they did not understand the question well.

(d) Kyerԑ sԑnti nnan a wopene anaa wompene mmaatwa so wᴐ mfitiaseԑ Sukuu mu.
(Discuss four reasons why you agree or disagree with caning in the basic schools).

These types of question are always difficult for candidates therefore very few candidates
answered it. They were to take a stance and defend it with points or reasons. Those who
wrote on it could not raise the four reasons.

Some also mixed the Twi; agreeing and the disagreeing together showing the difficulty
of the question.

Question Two
The candidates’ marks in the comprehension shows that they understood the passage and its
associated questions well.
Question Three
Most of the candidates got about ninety (90) percent of the questions right. This shows that
the Lexis and structure questions were within their strength.

52
 GONJA 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, the standard of this year’s paper was the same as that of the previous years. It really
tested all the aspects of the language as prescribed by the syllabus.

The general performance of the candidates has improved over that of the previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Candidates who attempted the essay questions were very creative and were able to present
their points clearly.

(2) A good number of the candidates performed very well in the comprehension and in the
lexis and structure aspects.

(3) Candidates presented their answers in an orderly manner.

(4) Candidates demonstrated good control over the language and used proverbs, idiomatic
expressions appropriately in their essays.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Candidates were unable to give the correct opposites of the underlined words in the Lexis
and Structure part.

(2) Candidates could not also give the appropriate word classes of the underlined words.

(3) Some of them only copied down the comprehension passage from the second part of the
paper as their essays.

(4) Poor orthography was a challenge to candidates.

(5) Candidates were unable to use the appropriate punctuation marks in their responses. For
instance, they started sentences with small letters, they did not put question marks at the end
of a question, and even ended some sentences with a comma.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Teachers should encourage learners to do more reading, dictation and spelling exercises.

(2) There is also the need to equip schools with the required texts books.

(3) Teachers should endeavor to take candidates through essay writings and discourage them
from copying comprehension passages as their essays.

(4) Learners should read a lot of materials in the Gonja language to improve on their vocabulary.

(5) There is the need for teachers to step up the teaching of punctuation marks and paragraphing.

53
5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1
(a) Discuss four reasons why you want to attend a particular SHS after Junior High
School Education.
This was a narrative essay. The candidates were expected to give and discuss good
reasons why they would want to attend a particular SHS.

Some of the reasons may include:

(i) A high performing school with a good reputation, a school with very good
discipline.

(ii) A school with very qualified teachers and most of them being examiners.

(iii) A school with a good infrastructure, thus, nice and conducive classrooms and
dormitories, well equipped laboratory, etc.

(iv) Proximity to where the candidate resides, friends and seniors who have been
enrolled to that school.

(v) The school’s performance in terms of sports, cultural activities, National

Science and Mathematics Quiz.

(vi) Nice school uniform and prestige

Candidates were also expected to use informal language and the future tense for this essay.
A small number of candidates who attempted this question did well. Most of them only copied
down the comprehension passage from the second part of the paper as their essays.
Teachers should do well to discourage any candidate who does so because those who did that
scored zero for their work.

(b) As a class prefect, discuss four (4) reasons why your classmates should be punctual
to school.

This was an expository essay. Candidates were expected to explain with reasons the benefits of
punctuality to school.

Some of the importance of punctuality to school include but not limited to:
(i) It enables teachers to start lessons on time
(ii) To enable all learners to partake in all lessons of the day
(iii) It helps teachers to complete all lessons and other scheduled activities for
the day.
(iv) To encourage effective peer learning and collaboration in class.
(v) It encourages learners to be time conscious
(vi) It prevents teachers from organizing remedial classes to complete their
syllabus
(vii) Students acquire the habit of punctuality for life.

54
Candidates were expected to raise and discuss any four points vividly. They were also supposed
to use informal language and future tense in their writings.
Only few candidates attempted this question and their performance was average.
(c) Write a letter to a friend in a different school, describing a student you like most
and give two (2) reasons why you like him/her.
This was an informal letter. So, candidates were expected to write the address, date,
salutation, pleasantries and the purpose of such a letter as the introduction of the essay.
Candidates were expected to give a good description of the student they like most.
In describing the student, the candidate may include the following points:
• The name and class of the student
• Physical features of the student
• The student’s character/behavior, likes and dislikes

Some reasons a candidate would like a particular student/candidate may include:

• The student being clever in academic work

• He/she being sociable and friendly
• Good in co-curricular activities, eg. Sports, singing, dancing etc.
• He/she being reliable, kind, respectful, neat and always well dressed

Use of informal language was to be used by candidates to write this letter. Candidates that
attempted this question performed very well.

(d) Discuss four (4) reasons why you agree or disagree with the ban of
corporal punishment in our basic school

This was an argumentative essay, and the candidate was to take a stance, either
agreeing that caning should be abolished or disagree with the ban.
A candidate who agrees with the ban, was expected to raise and discuss the following
points to his/her stance.
(i) Caning inflicts pain on the individual
(ii) It makes some learners stop schooling
(iii) Caning puts fear in learners
(iv) Caning sometimes causes injuries to the offender and at
times, to the teacher

(v) It is not a corrective measure for curbing bad behaviors

(vi) It brings about hatred to the teacher and sometimes can result
into court case

55
 The candidate whose stance was allowing caning in basic schools could raise
and discuss the following points:

(i) Caning causes pupils to do the right thing

(ii) It disciplines some pupils
(iii) Caning can sometimes be used to correct bad behaviors
(iv) It puts fear and respect in pupils

The candidate was to defend his/her stance for the choice made as conclusion of the
essay. Very few candidates attempted this question and performed poorly.

Question 2 - COMPREHENSION
As usual, the candidates were required to read a story in Gonja and answer ten questions based
on it. The questions were on stated facts, inference, figures of speech, vocabulary and title of the
story.
The responses to the ten questions are as follows:
a) Eche nyɔsopo na
b) Mbia asa
c) Ade ere to be kekoŋwule kama
- Baaŋ baa nya adɔjibi
- Baaŋ baa duu bumobe eposɔ
- Baaŋ baa nya amanshɛrbi a tɔ bumobe aparsɔ
- Bu maa baa tɔrɔ mo a firi kechɛto
d) Adɔjibi wɔrɔ nɛnɛ ga
e) Ade ere to be kekoŋwule kama

- E kaa peshɛ n wu mo chamana be da kaa chɛrga so

- Mo chamana be kinishi maŋ bulɔ alɛla nɛ e wɔrɔ n sa mbia na
- Eche junkparso na maŋ churɔ alɛla nɛ e wɔrɔ n sa mbia na.
- Eche junkparso na be kakilkɔ bɔni so
f) Asɔbɔaya ko fara a jajɛ eche nyɔsopo na be ndɔ
g) E wu chibir kaa bee jajɛ eche nyɔsopo na be ndɔ
h) E wu chibir ns kaa kilgi mobe eche junkparso na
i) E wu chibir ns kaa kilgi mobe eche junkparso na
j) Ade ere to be kekoŋwule kama
• Ekama nɛ kananɛ Ebɔrɛ chige mo
• Saaŋ shimɛ fo barkesa be kanya e
The performance here was good. Candidates scored high marks in the comprehension aspect
except the title of the story where they could not stay within the seven words limit. They should
be encouraged to read more passages and answer questions in the Gonja language.
56
 Question 3 - LEXIS AND STRUCTURE
This section of the paper tested candidates on conjunctions, word classes, opposites of words
and adjectives. Candidates’ performance was good in the conjunctions (a-e) and then in the
adjectives (p – t)
Candidates were expected to answer the sections as follows;
Achɛsobi:
a) nɛ
b) nko
c) ama
d) nkpal
e) ama
Mmalgaba be ntuŋso
f) Damango/shoda
g) afuu/mfɛra
h) ba/dese
i) shimbi/tenteŋ
j) e/a/mo
Balafiito
k) bɔni
l) bɔiŋ
m) zuku
n) koso
o) shimbi
Adulwiso
p) fuful
q) kachunɔnyifu
r) lakalwura
s) shimbi
t) belso
On the whole, candidates did well in this aspect of the paper.

57
 KASEM 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

Generally, the standard of this year’s paper was comparable to that of the previous years. It really
tested all the aspects of the language as prescribed by the syllabus.

The general performance of the candidates was slightly better than the previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) Most of the candidates provided precise answers to the comprehension questions and the
lexis and structure questions.

(2) Candidates understood the demands of the questions and provided the expected responses.

(3) Candidates who attempted the essay questions were very creative and were able to present
their points clearly.

(4) Candidates demonstrated a mastery over the features of letter writing.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Some candidates could not provide the correct title to the comprehension passage. In some
cases, the number of words exceeded what was required.

(2) Candidates were unable to give the correct opposites of the underlined words in the Lexis
and Structure part.

(3) Poor punctuation was still a challenge, e.g. using a comma (,) at the end of a sentence
instead of a full stop (.). Some even used lower-case letters to start sentences and proper
nouns.

(4) Poor orthography: Words such as dé (we) was written “di” (eat), “ye” (and) was written
“yi” (eye), “sono” for “swono” and “chiloŋ” for “chilwoŋi”.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(1) Learners should read a lot of Kasem books to improve on their vocabulary.

(2) There is also the need to equip schools with texts books.

(3) Candidates should be taken through the correct organization of their answers and should be
guided to use the appropriate punctuation marks especially the use of full stops, comas and
quotation marks. More exercises on punctuation should be given for candidates to do
regularly.

(4) Teachers’ attention needs to be drawn to the problem of poor orthography so that they take
learners through dictation drills. They should also give more written exercises for students
to do in class and at home which should be marked and the spelling mistakes discussed and
corrected in class. Teachers should endeavor to use the Kasem orthography book to teach.
58
 5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1

(a) Kwei wonnu tena n ma n maŋe Sinia Haye Sikuuli (SHS) delo n na lage n vu n ná ti di
nogo (JHS) to seina. (With four points, describe a particular SHS you intend to attend
after JHS education).
This was a narrative essay. The candidates were expected to give and discuss good reasons
why they would want to attend a particular SHS. Some of the reasons may include;
(i) A high performing school with a good reputation, a school with very good
discipline.

(ii) A school with very qualified teachers and most of them being examiners.

(iii) A school with a good infrastructure, thus, nice and conducive classrooms and
dormitories, well equipped laboratory, etc.

(iv) Proximity to where the candidate resides, friends and seniors who have been
enrolled to that school.

(v) The school’s performance in terms of sports, cultural activities, National

Science and Mathematics Quiz.

(vi) Nice school uniform and prestige

Candidates were also expected to use informal language and the future tense for this essay.
A small number of candidates who attempted this question did well. Most of them only copied
down the comprehension passage from the second part of the paper as their essays.
Teachers should do well to discourage any candidate who does so because those who did that
scored zero for their work.
(b) Nmo mo ye abam kelase dem yuu tu. Ma wonnu tena n maŋe kolo ŋwaane á na jege se á
taa tui sikuuli lela to. (As a class prefect, discuss four (4) reasons why your classmates
should be punctual to school.)
This was an expository essay. Candidates were expected to explain with reasons the benefits of
punctuality to school.
Some of the importance of punctuality to school include but not limited to;
(i) It enables teachers to start lessons on time
(ii) To enable all learners to partake in all lessons of the day
(iii) It helps teachers to complete all lessons and other scheduled activities for
the day.
(iv) To encourage effective peer learning and collaboration in class.
(v) It encourages learners to be time conscious
(vi) It prevents teachers from organizing remedial classes to complete their
syllabus
(vii) Students acquire the habit of punctuality

59
 Candidates were expected to raise and discuss any four points vividly. They were also supposed
to use informal language and future tense in their writings.
Only few candidates attempted this question and their performance was average.
(c). Popone tɔnɔ n pa-n chilwoŋi sikuuli dedwoŋi ne, n maŋe n sikuuli bu dedoa nmo na lage o
ni taane to, n daare pa wonnu telei ŋwaane ye n swo-o to. (Write a letter to a friend in a
different school, describing a student you like most and give two (2) reasons why you like
him/her.)
This was an informal letter. So, candidates were expected to write the address, date, salutation,
pleasantries and the purpose of such a letter as the introduction of the essay. Candidates were
expected to give a good description of the student they like most.
In describing the student, the candidate may include the following points:
• The name and class of the student
• Physical features of the student
• The student’s character/behavior, likes and dislikes
Some reasons why a candidate would like a particular student/candidate may include;

• The student being clever in academic work

• He/she is sociable and friendly
• He/she is good in co-curricular activities, eg. sports, singing, dancing, etc.
• He/she is reliable, kind, respectful, neat and always well dressed
Use of informal language was to be used by candidates to write this letter. Candidates that
attempted this question performed very well.

(d) Ma wonnu tena (4) n popone n sɛ naa n wo sɛ we ba daa yé taa beiri bia sikuuli ne. (Discuss
four (4) reasons why you agree or disagree with the ban of corporal punishment in our
basic school)
This was an argumentative essay, and the candidate was to take a stance, either agreeing that
caning should be abolished or disagree with the ban.
A candidate who agrees with the ban, was expected to raise and discuss the following points to
his/her stance.
(i) Caning inflicts pain on the individual
(ii) It makes some learners stop schooling
(iii) Caning puts fear in learners
(iv) Caning sometimes causes injuries to the offender and at times, to the teacher
(v) It is not a corrective measure for curbing bad behaviors
(vi) It brings about hatred to the teacher and sometimes can result into court case

60
The candidate whose stance was allowing caning in basic schools could raise and
discuss the following points:

(i) Caning causes pupils to do the right thing

(ii) It disciplines some pupils
(iii) Caning can sometimes be used to correct bad behaviors
(iv) It puts fear and respect in pupils

The candidate was to defend his/her stance for the choice made as conclusion of the essay. Very
few candidates attempted this question and performed averagely.

Question 2 - COMPREHENSION

The candidates were expected to read a passage and answer ten (10) questions based on recall,
stated facts, inference, vocabulary and then give a suitable heading to the passage.

The expected answers are as follows:

(a) ka-bia kam

(b) bia batɔ
(c) se o ni wolo na wae o toŋa to/se o swo kaana bam totoŋa ŋwaane/se ba taa
jege ba tetere wonnu
(d) neene/ ke lanyerane
(e) kadwoŋi wom yi na ba sui o na ke kolo to ŋwaane
(f) vara badwonna mo bobo se ba taa chɔge o kara kam wonnu tem
(g) woŋa kam na chɔge o kaane wom kara kam wonnu tem to ŋwaane
(h) Varem wom leiri o ji nabiinu mo na nye de o ka-kwea kam
(i) Kadwonna ba lage daane/Yé ta-n goe vara yɔɔ yɔɔ/ Balwarem ŋweero ye
toone mo/Dé taa pae dé yi sui dé dwonna kikia
(j) Baaro de o kaana balei/Kadega de ka kadwoŋi/Valo de o kaana
balei/Woŋa jigi nabiinu/Ka-kwea jigi woŋa

The recall questions were very well answered but some candidates struggled with the inference
questions. In all, the performance was good in this section.

Question 3 - LEXIS AND STRUCTURE

This part of the paper tested candidates on conjunction, word classes, opposite in meaning, and
adjectives.
A very good number of the candidates performed very well in the parts that tested word classes
and conjunctions. However, some of the candidates performed poorly in the opposite in meaning
and adjectives.

61
Candidates were expected to answer the sections as follows:
Conjunctions
a. dedaane/de/naa
b. naa
c. se/ye/amaa
d. bɛŋwaane/ye/amaa
e. bɛŋwaane/ye/se
Botarebia di
f. Yera Kachega – Anɛmaana, Anɛ, Anutua, Navɔrɔ, Paga
g. Yere Badwio - swono, yiniga, vio, lam,
h. Keimbotarebu – mage, duri, faŋe,
i. Yereseini – lao, memena, polɔgɔ, dedɔrɔ, nasem
j. Yereleirinu – o, ba, se, te, ka, de
Botarebia balo na jege bibeiri sem to tuntula
k. balɔrɔ
l. mɛmɛ/feenfee
m. jwarem/jworim
n. zege/zaŋe
o. kukua
Yereseina yam na wo tapuna yam wone to
p. pwoŋa
q. son-muni
r. jworo
s. kukula
t. sonno

On the average, candidates did well in this aspect of the paper.

62
 RESUME OF HUMANITIES

SOCIAL STUDIES
1. STANDARD OF THE PAPER

The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years. The
questions were unambiguous and at the level of the candidates.

2. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

The performance of the candidates was satisfactory, with a substantial number of

candidates performing above average.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates were able to:
(i) state ways Rocks are useful to the human being;
(ii) give functions of the District Assembly quite adequately;
(iii) provide the obligations of the citizen;
(iv) highlight four ways in which the forest vegetation in Ghana can be preserved;
(v) state measures that can be taken to reduce the pollution of water bodies in Ghana;
(vi) define what a settlement is satisfactorily;
(vii) highlight ways in which the forest vegetation of Ghana can be preserved.

4. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some candidates had challenges in answering questions from the following topics:

(i) problems the rural areas of Ghana suffer from as a result of the migration of the youthful
population to the cities;

(ii) ways of maintaining law and order in schools;

(iii) what Afforestation and Reforestation are;
(iv) the classifications of Human Resources;
(v) measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of human resources in Ghana;
(vi) reasons for which bad layouts of settlements are prevented;
(vii) calculating the time at town “A” on longitude 45° E, if the time at town “B” on
longitude 0° is 9 am;

(viii) functions of the District Chief Executive under the Local Government System of Ghana.

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5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance to be able to:

(i) discuss the problems the rural areas of Ghana suffer from as a result of the
migration of the youthful population to the cities;

(ii) explain ways of maintaining law and order in schools;

(iii) help the students know the meanings of Afforestation and Reforestation;
(iv) state the classification of Human Resource;
(v) know measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of human
resources in Ghana;

(vi) explain reasons for which bad layouts of settlements are prevented;
(vii) gain knowledge on how to calculate the time at town “A” on longitude 45° E, if
the time at town “B” on longitude 0° is 9 am;

(viii) explain the functions of the district chief Executive under the Local government
system of Ghana.

RELIGIOUS AND MORAL EDUCATION

SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
(a) Most candidates adhered to the rubrics of the paper.

(b) Most candidates were able to:

(i) state the four steps involved in contracting Islamic marriage as well as four
ways of ensuring success in marriage;
(ii) state and explain the causes of death in the society and ways by which such
death can be prevented;
(iii) identify the importance of decent dressing in the society;
(iv) explain the moral significance of performing good deeds;
(v) state acceptable ways of saving money.

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A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
Most candidates could not:
(1) explain moral teachings in African Traditional Religion, instead they were
writing on proverbs which had nothing to do with moral teachings;
(2) explain the terms ‘cleanliness’ and ‘humility’ and link them to the Holy Qur’an;
(3) state characteristics that are common to the three major religions;
(4) explain clearly reasons for which it is wrong to give bribe.

SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(1) Teachers need to help candidates understand moral teachings in African
Traditional Religion and how they can be applied.
(2) Teachers should make conscious effort to teach candidates to be able to link
moral teachings in Islam to the Quran.
(3) Candidates must be taught and encouraged to learn how to explain points they
raise in order to earn the full mark.
(4) Teachers must help candidates to understand the reasons for which it is wrong
to give bribe.

65
 RELIGIOUS AND MORAL EDUCATION 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years. The
questions were within the limit of the candidates.

The Chief Examiner for Religious and Moral Education noted that performance of
candidates was satisfactory.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner noted that most of the candidates showed understanding in the
following areas of the syllabus:

(i) Islamic marriages; how they are contracted and ways of sustaining them,
(ii) Causes and prevention of physical death in the society.
(iii) Acceptable ways of saving money.

3. A SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

According to the Chief Examiner, most candidates could not show understanding in the
following topics in the syllabus:

(i) Moral teachings in West African Traditional Religion,

(ii) The Concepts of Cleanliness and Holiness in Islam,
(iii) Comparative studies of the major religions in Ghana.
5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that teachers should give further attention to the
following areas of the syllabus;

(i) Moral teachings in West African Traditional Religion,

(ii) Concepts of cleanliness and holiness in Islam,
(iii)Basic comparative studies on the major religions in Ghana.
6. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1

(a) Narrate the story of the death of Jesus Christ.

(b) What three lessons can be learnt from the story in (a) above.

This question was not popular among the candidates therefore only few attempted it.
The few candidates who attempted it rather gave an account of the birth and life of
Jesus Christ and only concluded that he died and was buried instead of focusing on the
death of Jesus.

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 Some of the expected responses for the (a) included the following:

▪ After Pontius Pilate had condemned Jesus to death, he gave him to the soldiers to be
crucified.

▪ He was to be killed at Golgotha on Mount Calvary.

▪ Jesus was made to carry a wooden cross through the streets of Jerusalem to Golgotha.

▪ On the way, he got tired and Simon of Cyrene was forced to help him carry the cross.

▪ He met some Jerusalem women weeping for him but he advised them to rather weep for
themselves, for harder times were ahead.

▪ At Golgotha, they gave him wine mixed with gall to drink but he refused.

▪ His garments were torn off and lots cast upon them by the soldiers.

▪ He was then crucified on the cross along with two robbers.

▪ Over his head was placed his charge “This is Jesus, the king of the Jews”.

▪ While on the cross, the passersby, the religious leaders and one of the robbers mocked
him.

▪ Jesus told the repentant robber of salvation.

▪ From the sixth to the ninth hour, darkness fell over the land.

▪ Jesus cried out on the cross (one of which was “my God, my God, why hast thou
forsaken me?”)

▪ Jesus died after crying again committing himself into God’s hand.

▪ The temple curtain got torn, the earth quaked, rocks split, tombs opened and the dead
saints raised.

▪ Those guarding Jesus were awed and said “truly this was the son of God.

The (b) part was equally poorly answered. The question required candidates to state lessons to
be learnt from the (a) part which included the following:

▪ Judges should be bold and fair in their judgement.

▪ The need to endure persecutions patiently.
▪ The need to support friends in times of need.
▪ It is good to die for a worthy cause.

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 ▪ Avoid murder/torture/and mocking at people.
▪ Pray for/forgive your enemies.
▪ Jesus died to save mankind.
▪ Be prepared to accept one’s fault/mistakes
▪ God is prepared to forgive sinners who repent.

Question 2

(a) Identify four steps involved in contracting Islamic marriage.

(b) State four ways of ensuring success in marriage.

This was also not a popular question. Candidates who attempted it were able to state some
steps but could not explain them as demanded by the question. Some of the responses
included the following:

(i) There should be mutual agreement between the would-be couple.

(ii) There must be a matrimonial guardian who is the legal representative of the bride.
(Wali)

(iii)The payment of the dowry (Sadiqui) in the form of money or property.

(iv) There must be two witnesses.

(v) Registration of the marriage at the district headquarters of Islam.

(vi) The marriage rites should be performed by a licensed Muslim priest.

The (b) part of the question was well answered by most candidates. Expected responses
include the following:

(i) Careful and proper preparation before marriage

(ii) There should be love and mutual understanding
(iii) The couple must trust and respect each other
(iv) They should respect each other’s views
(v) There should be effective communication between them
(vi) There should not be unnecessary interference from family members
(vii) The couple should satisfy each other sexually
(viii) They must plan financial matters together
(ix) The couple should accept and respect their in-laws.

68
 Question 3
(a) Explain four major causes of death in your country.
(b) What four steps can be taken to prevent such death?

This question was popular among the candidates. Candidates who attempted it performed
creditably well especially in the (a) part.

Candidates could have also raised the following points:

(i) Disease
(ii) Natural disasters
(iii) War
(iv) Hunger /poverty
(v) Old age
(vi) Accident

Those who performed poorly were not able to state complete point.

Some of the points candidates could have raised for the (b) parts included:

(i) Personal Hygiene

(ii) Cleanliness in the community
(iii) Immunization
(iv) Balanced diet
(v) Safe sex
(vi) Exercises

Question 4
(a) Explain four moral teachings in African Traditional Religion.
(b) State four ways in which moral teachings in (a) will guide your personal development.

This question was not popular among the candidates. Just a handful of candidates attempted it
but did so unsatisfactorily. The non-practice of ATR by most pupils and the evil misconception
about the religion may have accounted for that.

The (a) part required candidates to write responses such as:

▪ Patience
▪ Cleanliness
▪ Humility
▪ Tolerance
▪ Respect
▪ Obedience
▪ Truthfulness

69
For the (b) part also expected responses include:

(i) We should be patient and look up to God when we have problems for directions.
(ii) We should tell the truth in all matters no matter the consequences.
(iii) Respect for the elderly and do what is required from us.
(iv) We must be concern about each other.
(v) We should be satisfied with what we have and share our blessings with others.
(vi) We must be sincere and do the right things at all time.

Question 5
(a) Explain the following moral teachings in the Holy Qu’ran.
(i) Cleanliness
(ii) Humility
(b) Explain four reasons for which moral teachings are important in the society.

This question was not a popular choice of the candidates. Very few candidates
attempted this question but did so poorly. They were not able to provide correct
responses to the question for the (a) part.

Candidates could have considered the following point:

Cleanliness:

▪ Islam is a religion that encourages and love cleanliness of mind, body and soul.
▪ Allah loves those who purify themselves.
▪ Cleanliness is an act of faith.
▪ Worshippers are required to remain clean before worship.
▪ Only clean people enter paradise.

Humility:

▪ Muslims should call on Allah in private and in humility.

▪ Muslims should worship Allah in humility.
▪ Parents should show humility to parent
▪ Those who humble themselves are successful believers.
▪ Arrogance leads to hell.

70
 The (b) part was also not answered well by candidates who attempted it. This may be because
they did not understand the demand of the question. The right responses candidates could have
given include:

▪ It helps in imparting in people good moral values

▪ It can promote social cohesion and unity
▪ It ensures orderliness and stability
▪ It ensures tolerance and peaceful co-existence
▪ It aids people to acquire sound and moral principles in life
Question 6
(a) Identify four importance of decent dressing in society.
(b) Explain four moral significance of performing good deeds.

Candidates who attempted this question performed brilliantly especially in the (a) part because
it was a popular question among most of the candidates.

Candidates did not perform so well in the (b) part. Most candidates gave responses relating to
the benefits one derives from performing good deeds and not the moral significance as
demanded by the question.

The right answers candidates could have given as correct answers include:

▪ It is a command from God

▪ It promotes peaceful co-existence and togetherness
▪ It attracts respect and love from members of the society
▪ It enables members of the society to work together in achieving a common goal
▪ Individuals who perform good deeds gain satisfaction.
Question 7
(a) List the three major religions in Ghana.
(b) Describe four characteristics that are common to the three major religions in Ghana.
(c) State five events that causes the traditional believer to perform sacrifices.

This was a popular question among the candidates. This question was in three parts and
candidates were expected to answer all. Candidates performed brilliantly in the (a) and (C) part
thereby scoring good marks.

However, candidates could not advance enough points to satisfactorily meet the demands of
the (b) part. The following were some expected responses:

▪ They both perform sacrifices for their object of worship

▪ They both believe in God
▪ Both believe in the life after
▪ Obeying God brings peace and harmony
▪ Believe in judgement day

71
Question 8
(a) State four acceptable ways of saving money.
(b) Explain four reasons for which it is wrong to give bribe.

This question was a popular one, and the (a) part was satisfactorily answered by candidates.
Candidates were able to bring out the acceptable ways of saving money which earned them full
marks.

However, the (b) part was not satisfactorily answered.

Some of the expected responses included:

▪ It is against the laws of the state

▪ It leads to the misuse of public/state resources
▪ It retards developmental projects
▪ It discourages hard work
▪ It encourages people to use undesirable means to enrich themselves

72
 SOCIAL STUDIES 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the papers compared favourably with that of the previous years. The questions
were unambiguous and were at the level of the candidates.

The Chief Examiners for Social Studies noted that performance of candidates in the subject
was good.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner noted that some of the candidates were able to demonstrate understanding
in the following areas of the syllabus:

(i) functions of rocks;

(ii) methods of preserving forest vegetation;
(iii) methods of reducing the pollution of water bodies in Ghana.
3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES
The Chief Examiner reported that some candidates had challenges in answering questions from
the following topics:

(i) effects of migration of the youth from their sources of origin;

(ii) ways of maintaining law and order in schools;
(iii) classification of Human Resources in Ghana;
(iv) reasons for which bad layouts of settlements are prevented;
(v) calculation of time, using lines of longitudes and latitudes.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance and
understanding in the following topics of the syllabus:

(i) effects of migration on the source region;

(ii) how to maintain law and order in the schools;
(iii) classification of Human Resource;
(iv) how to calculate time using lines of longitudes and latitudes.

73
5. DETAILED COMMENTS:

Question 1

(a) List four features of a good map.

(b) Calculate the time at town ‘A’ on longitude 45° E if the time at town ‘B’
on longitude 0° is 9 am.
(c) In what five ways are rocks useful to the human being?

The question was in three parts: (a), (b) and (c).

The question was not too popular among candidates, and the few who tackled it
answered the (a) and (c) parts quite well. The (a) part required candidates to list four
features of a good map which most of the candidates did satisfactorily.
Some expected responses from candidates include; Title, scale,
Key/Legend/conventional signs, date and direction.
The (b) part posed some difficulty for some candidates. Candidates were to calculate
the time at town “A” on longitude 45° E, if the time at town “B” on longitude 0° is 9
am.
Expected procedure:

Longitudinal difference between A and B = 45°- 0° = 45°

Every 15° = 1 hour
∴ Time difference = 45° ÷15° × 1hour = 3 hours
The time in Town B is 9 am
Since Town A is East of Town B, time in Town A will be 3 hours ahead of time in
Town B.
∴ Time in Town A: 9 hours + 3 hours = 12 hours + 12 pm (noon)

However, some candidates failed to perform the calculations. The general performance
of the candidates was average.
The (c) section demanded the candidates to state five ways rocks are useful to the
human being and this was also answered well by majority of the candidates.
Below are some correct answers expected from candidates:
Ways rocks are useful to the human being

(i) for building;

(ii) for sharpening tools;
(iii) as source for fuel.

74
Question 2

(a) Outline four measures that can be taken to reduce the pollution of water bodies
in Ghana.

(b) Identify four problems the rural areas of Ghana suffer from as a result of
migration.

The question was in two parts (a) and (b). This was a popular question among
candidates. The “a” which asked candidates to outline four measures that could be
taken to reduce the pollution of water bodies in Ghana was managed well by majority
of students, with few candidates using words like “Avoid”, one word or phrasal
sentences that did not help them to state and amplify their points well.
Some expected responses from candidates are as follows:
Measures that can be taken to reduce the pollution of water bodies in Ghana

(i) recycling of sewage;

(ii) effective policies to control mining in and around water bodies;
(iii) proper layout of settlements.

The “b” part posed some difficulty to some candidates. They addressed problems
created in the urban centres, while others addressed reasons why people migrate from
the rural areas to the towns and cities, instead of addressing problems the rural areas
suffer as a result of the migration of the youthful population to the cities.
Below are some of the problems expected to be highlighted by the candidates:

(i) inadequate agricultural labour force;

(ii) low food production;
(iii) increase in school dropouts;
(iv) decrease in rural population.

Question 3

(a) (i) State the three arms of government in Ghana.

(ii) Highlight three functions of the District Chief Executive under the local
government system of Ghana.
(b) Outline four reasons for which Ghana enters into cooperation with other countries.

This question was in two parts: (a)(i), which demanded for the three arms of
government, (a)(ii) and (b). The question was quite popular among candidates. The (a)
section was answered well, however, quite a number of candidates fumbled.
In (a)(i) some students found it difficult to spell the words correctly, for example,
Executive, spelt as Exacative Legislature spelt as Legisletule, and Judiciary spelt as
Judisiali.

75
Some correct responses expected by the Chief Examiner includes:
(i) The Executive; (ii) The Legislature/Parliament; (iii) The Judiciary.
The (a)(ii), which asked candidates to highlight three functions of the District Chief Executive
under the Local government system of Ghana, was answered creditably with few students not
doing well.
Some offered functions of the District Assembly, instead of the functions of the District Chief
Executive.

A few responses expected from Candidates to answer (a)(ii) are as follows:

Functions of the District Chief Executive

(i) Head of the District Security Committee;

(ii) Responsible for the day-to-day administration of the district;
(iii) Liaises with the Chiefs in the district for development;
(iv) Propagates government policies.

The (b) of the question required candidates to outline four reasons for which Ghana enters into
cooperation with other countries. Most candidates answered this section very well, making
some of them score the full marks for the whole question. They stated the points and explained
with illustrations to earn the full marks.
Other candidates however, could not manage this section at all, with some scoring zero for this
section.
The following are a few of the points the Chief Examiner expected from candidates:

Reasons for which Ghana enters into cooperation with other countries

(i) Development of friendly relations;

(ii) Fighting against hunger, diseases and other/relief assistance;
(iii) Embrace cultural solidarity.

Question 4

(a) (i) Differentiate between freedom and obligation.

(ii) State four obligations of a citizen to the state.
(b) Highlight four ways in which law and order is maintained in schools.

The question is in two parts (a)(i,ii) and (b).

The question appeared to be quite popular among candidates. The section (a)(i) and
(a)(ii) appeared quite manageable with few lapses. Some candidates could not
differentiate between freedom and obligation in (a)(i) while others confused rights with
duties of a citizen in (a)(ii).

76
 Expected responses from candidates include:

(ai) Differentiating between Freedom and obligation

Freedoms are benefits that an individual enjoys without hindrance, whereas obligations
are duties and responsibilities of an individual in a state or country.

(aii) Obligations/duties / responsibilities of a citizen of Ghana are:

(i) To defend the constitution of Ghana at all times;

(ii) Must help to defend the state in times of crisis, national disaster and wars;
(iii) Must pay taxes regularly;
(iv) Must assist the police and other law enforcement agencies to maintain law and order.

The (b) section of this question appeared to be difficult for most of the candidates. Instead
of indicating ways of maintaining law and order, some were mentioning obedience, respect
and benefits of law and order.
Expected responses to ways to maintain law and order in schools include:
(i) Organizing orientation sessions in schools for students to know what is expected of them;
(ii) Regular counselling of students by teachers and counsellors;
(iii) Use of sanctions on students who violate rules;
(iv) Reward system for well-behaved students to encourage others;
(v) Making students pay for properties destroyed/holding students accountable for their
actions.

Question 5

(a) (i) What is a settlement?

(ii) Explain four reasons for which bad layouts of settlements are prevented.
(b) Highlight four ways in which the forest vegetation of Ghana can be preserved.

This question was in two parts (a)(i and ii) and (b). This question appeared to be very popular
among the candidates as well. However, the (a)(i) and (a)(ii) sections were poorly answered
according to the Chief Examiner. It appeared from the responses that candidates were confused
or lacked knowledge, facts or ideas to handle the questions conveniently.
In (5)(a)(i), candidates were tasked with “What is a settlement”? Some candidates could not
address it at all; others said it is where people live, and others said it is where people live, for
example, nucleated, dispersed or linear settlement.

77
 Meanwhile, the expected definition was “A settlement is a place where people put up their
houses and live in them, for example, a hut, village, cottage, etc.
The 5 (a)(ii) tasked candidates to explain four reasons which bad layouts of settlements are
prevented. Many candidates answered how layouts are made for settlements, rather than
addressing the question.
Some expected answers for the question include:
(i) Preventing the formation of slums;
(ii) Easy access to social facilities;
(iii) Make good use of available land/land space;
(iv) To beautify the settlements;
(v) To prevent unlawful use of the land;
(vi) To improve ventilation;

(vii)To check and control disaster.

Candidates’ performance on the (b) section was very good. However, some few responses were
not satisfactory enough, for example; confusing the meanings of Afforestation and Reforestation.
They also talked about enacting of laws to check people who destroy the vegetation cover,
without linking it to Enforcement of the Laws, prosecution, applying of sanctions such as fines,
imprisonment, etc.
However, the following are some of the responses expected from the candidates:
(b) Ways in which the forest vegetation of Ghana can be preserved

(i) Creation of forest reserves;

(ii) Enforcement of laws to protect the forest cover;
(iii) Practising agro forestry.
Question 6

(a) (i) State the two classifications of human resource.

(b) Outline four measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of human
resource in Ghana.

The question was in two parts (a) and (b). This question was not tackled by very few
candidates according to the Chief Examiner. The section (a) “state the two classifications of
human resource” posed some problems to some candidates who offered the following for an
answer;
Renewable resource and non-renewable resources. Instead of skilled/trained labour and
unskilled labour/untrained labour.
The section (b) was “Outline four measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of
human resource in Ghana“.

78
This section was handled very well by most candidates. However, a few of the responses were
not satisfactory enough. That is, the use of one word and a single phrase for an answer.
Expected responses for measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of human
resource in Ghana include:
Measures the government can take to ensure efficient use of human resource in Ghana

(i) Improving quality education such as vocational and technical training;

(ii) On-the-job training for efficiency;
(iii) Creating favourable working conditions;
(iv) Provision of adequate tools and equipment to facilitate productivity;
(v) Improved remuneration to motivate labour;
(vi) Effective monitoring and supervision.

79
 RESUME OF MATHEMATICS

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPER

The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous year.

2. CANDIDATES’ PERFORMANCE

The Chief Examiner stated that candidates’ performance declined as compared to that of the
previous year.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates showed strengths in the following areas:

(a) solving problems on sets;

(b) simplifying fractions;
(c) expanding and simplifying algebraic expressions;
(d) solving problems on index numbers;
(e) solving problems on rigid motion.

4. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Candidates’ weaknesses were found in the following areas:

(a) solving problems on distance and time related problems;

(b) translating word problems into mathematical statements;

(c) drawing a pie chart;

(d) factorizing algebraic expression.

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(a) Candidates should be given adequate tuition and exercises in the areas of their
weaknesses.

(b) Candidates should be encouraged to read carefully and understand the demands
of the questions before answering.

80
 MATHEMATICS 2
1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous year.
The Chief Examiner stated that candidates’ performance declined as compared to that of the
previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates showed strengths in the following areas:
(a) solving problems on sets;
(b) simplifying fractions;
(c) expanding and simplifying algebraic expressions;
(d) solving problems on exponents;
(e) solving problems on rigid motion.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Candidates’ weaknesses were found in the following areas:
(a) solving problems on distance and time related problems;
(b) translating word-problems to mathematical statements;
(c) drawing a pie chart;
(d) factorizing algebraic expression.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
(a) Candidates should be given adequate tuition and exercises in the areas listed under
weaknesses.

(b) Candidates should be encouraged to read carefully and understand the demands of the
questions before answering.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1
(a) Given the sets A = {multiples of 3 less than 12}, B = {integers between 4 and 8} and
C = { 4, 5, 7}, find:
(i) A∩ 𝑩;
(ii) (𝑨 ∪ 𝑩) ∩ 𝑪;
(iii) (𝑨 ∩ 𝑩) ∪ 𝑪.
𝟑 𝟓 𝟗 𝟕
(b) Simplify: 𝟏 𝟒 − 𝟐 𝟔 − 𝟏 𝟏𝟎 + 𝟒 𝟖.

81
 Most of the candidates who attempted this question handled the part (a) very well. They
listed the sets A and B correctly and also found the various intersections and unions of the
given sets.

In part (b), most of the candidates were able to convert the mixed numbers to improper
fraction and attempted to simplify but most of them did not apply the BODMAS concept
correctly.

A reasonable number of candidates were able to find the relevant LCM for pairs of
fractions which were grouped according to signs or otherwise. Simplification was then a
major problem for many of the candidates who attempted this part of the question.

Candidates were expected to solve the question as follows:

1(a) A={3,6,9}
B={5,6,7}
C={4,5,7}
(i) 𝐴 ∩ 𝐵={6}
(ii) (𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) = {3, 5, 6, 7, 9}
(𝐴 ∪ 𝐵) ∩ 𝐶={5,7}
𝐴 ∩ 𝐵={6}
(iii) (𝐴 ∩ 𝐵) ∪ 𝐶 = {4, 5, 6, 7}

3 5 9 7
(b) 1 4 − 2 6 − 1 10 + 4 8
7 17 19 39
=4− − 10 +
6 8
7 39 17 19
=4+ − − 10
8 6
14+39 170+114
= −
8 60
53 284
= −
8 60
53 71
= − 15
8
795−568
= 120
227
=
120

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Question 2
(a) Simplify: 𝟏𝟓(𝟒 − 𝟔) × 𝟒𝟗 ÷ 𝟕.
(b) Expand and Simplify: 𝒃(𝟏𝟐𝒂 − 𝟑) − (𝒂 − 𝒃)(𝟑 + 𝒃).
𝟏
(c) Akosua walked for 3 hours at the rate of 𝟏 𝟐 𝐤𝐦 𝐩𝐞𝐫 𝐡𝐨𝐮𝐫 𝐟𝐫𝐨𝐦 her village to
𝟏
Paamu to take a bus to Quamu. If the bus travelling at 𝟏𝟓 𝟐 km per hour takes
2 hours to travel from Paamu to Quamu:
(i) what is the distance from Akosua’s village to Quamu?
(ii) how long would it take a man, riding a bicycle at 5km per hour, to travel
from Akosua’s village to Quamu?
The parts (a) and (b) of the question were well attempted by most of the candidates. They
were able to expand and simplify the expression correctly.
In part (c)(i), candidates were expected to find the distances between Akosua’s village to
Quamu and the distance it would take a man to ride a bicycle from Akosua’s village to
Quamu.
This part of the question was a challenge to most of the candidates and as a result only few
candidates attempted it. Candidates were expected to solve the questions as follows:

(a) 15(4 − 6) × 49 ÷ 7
49
=15(−2) × 7

= −210

(b) 𝑏(12𝑎 − 3) − (𝑎 − 𝑏)(3 + 𝑏)

= 12𝑎𝑏 − 3𝑏 − (3𝑎 + 𝑎𝑏 − 3𝑏 − 𝑏 2 )

= 12𝑎𝑏 − 3𝑏 − 3𝑎 − 𝑎𝑏 + 3𝑏 + 𝑏 2

= 12𝑎𝑏 − 3𝑎 − 3𝑏 + 3𝑏 − 𝑎𝑏 + 𝑏 2

= 11𝑎𝑏 − 3𝑎 + 𝑏 2

(c) (i) Distance from village to Paamu

1
=1 ×3
2

3
= ×3
2

9 1
= 𝑜𝑟 4 𝑘𝑚
2 2
83
Distance between Paamu and Quamu

1
= 15 × 2
2

31
= ×2
2

= 31𝑘𝑚

Distance from Akosua’s village to Quamu

1
= 4 + 31
2

1
= 35 𝑘𝑚
2

(ii) Time taken by bicycle rider to travel from Akosua’s village to Quamu

1
= 35 ÷ 5
2

71 1
= ×
2 5

71 1
= 10 𝑜𝑟 7 10 𝑜𝑟 7.10ℎ𝑟𝑠

Question 3

(a) (i) Express 8×32×4×2 in the form 2m.

(ii) Using your answer in (a)(i), state the value of m.
𝟏
(b) (i) Factorize the expression 𝝅𝒏𝟐 𝒌 − 𝟒 𝝅𝒏𝟐 𝑸.
(ii) Use your answer in (b)(i) to find the value of the expression when
𝟐𝟐
𝝅 = 𝟕 , 𝒏 = 𝟐, 𝒌 = 𝟏𝟗 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝑸 = 𝟐𝟎.
(c) Gifty and Justina shared an amount of GHC418.00. If Gifty had 20% more than
Justina, how much did Justina receive?
The parts (a) and (b) were well attempted by most of the candidates except that, in (b),
1
some of the candidates unnecessarily factorized out 4 which is not common to both
1 1
terms and had 𝜋𝑛2 (4𝐾 − 4 𝑄) instead of 4 𝜋𝑛2 (4𝐾 − 𝑄). The required solution is
1
𝜋𝑛2 (𝐾 − 4 𝑄).
84
 A few candidates substituted given values into the original expression, while those who
22 1
followed instructions got × 22 (19 − 4 × 20) and simplified to get 176 as answer.
7

In part (c), few of the candidates attempted the question.

Candidates were expected to solve the question as follows:
Let Justina’s share = x

20
Then Gifty’s share = x + 100 × 418

20
∴𝑥+𝑥+ × 418 = 418
100

100x + 100x + 8360 = 41800

200x = 41800 – 8360

33440
𝑥= 200

= GH¢167.20

Question 4
(a) If 4m – 2(3+2m) + m (2m + 4) = 0, find the values of m.
(b) At a political rally, there were 240 women, 200 men, 160 boys and 120 girls.
(i) Draw a pie chart to illustrate the information.
(ii) What percentage of the people at the rally were females?

In part (a), candidates were asked to find the values of m in

4m – 2(3+2m) + m (2m + 4) = 0. This question was a challenge to some candidates. Some
candidates expanded, simplified and factorized to get (2m – 2) (m + 3), and arrived at
m = 1 and m = -3.

In part (b), almost all candidates attempted this question but most of them did not show the
simplification of their work. Some also had a challenge with the measurement of the
sectorial angles.

In part (b) (ii), candidates were asked to find the percentage of females at the rally; and
only few were able to do so.

Candidates were expected to solve the question as follows:

(a) 4𝑚 − 2(3 + 2𝑚) + 𝑚(2𝑚 + 4) = 0

4𝑚 − 6 − 4𝑚 + 2𝑚2 + 4𝑚 = 0
2𝑚2 + 4𝑚 − 6 = 0
2𝑚2 + 6𝑚 − 2𝑚 − 6 = 0
2𝑚(𝑚 + 3) − 2(𝑚 + 3) = 0
(2𝑚 − 2)(𝑚 + 3) = 0
𝑚 − 2 = 0 or 𝑚 + 3 = 0
2𝑚 = 2 or 𝑚 = −3
𝑚=1
85
(b) Number of people at the rally = 240 + 200 + 160 + 120 = 720

Group Angle
1 120
360
× 240
2720
1

Women

= 120°
1 100

360
2
1 × 200
720
Men

= 100°
1 80

360
2 1 × 160
720
Boys

= 80°
1 60

360
2 × 120
7201

Girls

= 60°

100° 120°
80°

Girls

86
NOT DRAWN TO SCALE
Number of females
= 240 + 120 = 360 or 60 +120 =180
1
360 50
(ii) Percentage of females =2 720 × 100

= 50%

Question 5
𝟏 𝟐
Madam Esi used and of her x acres of land to cultivate mangoes and oranges
𝟒 𝟑
respectively:
(a) Express, in terms of x, the number of acres of land she used to cultivate:
(i) mangoes;
(ii) oranges.
(b) If Madam Esi used 20 more acres of land to cultivate oranges than mangoes, find the
value of x.
(c) How many acres of land was used to cultivate mangoes?
(d) Calculate, correct to the nearest whole number, the percentage of the land that was not
used.
This question was attempted by few candidates. Almost all of these candidates had the
parts (a), (b) and (c) correct, but the part (d) was a challenge to some of them.

The required solution is as follows:

1
(a) (i) Land used to cultivate mangoes = 4 𝑥
2
(ii) Land used to cultivate oranges = 3 𝑥

(b) If land used for oranges is 20 acres more than that used for mangoes then

2 1
𝑥 − 𝑥 = 20
3 4
4
2𝑥 3 1
12 ( ) − 12 × ( 𝑥) = 20 × 12
3 4
1 1

8𝑥 − 3𝑥 = 240
48
5𝑥 240
=
5 5
1
𝑥 = 48
12
1 1
(c) Land used to cultivate mangoes: 4 𝑥 = 4 × 48
1

= 12 acres
16

87
 2
(d) Land used to cultivate oranges = 3 × 48

= 32 acres

Unused land = 48 − (12 + 32)

= 48 − 44
= 4 acres

1 4
Percentage of land not used = 48 × 100
12
= 8.333%
= 8%

Question 6
(a) Using a scale of 2 cm to 2 units on both axes, draw on a graph sheet two
perpendicular axes, Ox and Oy, for the interval −𝟏𝟎 ≤ 𝒙 ≤ 𝟏𝟎 𝐚𝐧𝐝 − 𝟏𝟎 ≤ 𝒚 ≤ 𝟏𝟎.
(b) On the same graph sheet, draw:
(i) a quadrilateral ABCD with vertices A(2, 4), B(2, 8), C(8, 8) and D(8, 4).
−𝟓
(ii) the image 𝑨𝟏 𝑩𝟏 𝑪𝟏 𝑫𝟏 of ABCD under a translation by vector ( ), where
−𝟐
𝑨 → 𝑨𝟏 , 𝑩 → 𝑩𝟏 , 𝑪 → 𝑪𝟏 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝑫 → 𝑫𝟏 ;
(iii) the image 𝑨𝟐 𝑩𝟐 𝑪𝟐 𝑫𝟐 of ABCD under a reflection in the y-axis, where 𝑨 → 𝑨𝟐
𝑩 → 𝑩𝟐 , 𝑪 → 𝑪𝟐 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝑫 → 𝑫𝟐 ;
(c) (i) What type of quadrilateral is ABCD?
(ii) Find the gradient of ̅̅̅̅̅̅̅
𝑨𝟐 𝑩𝟏 .

In part (a), most of the candidates answered the question correctly, they drew the axes with
correct scale and interval.

In part (b), they drew the quadrilateral ABCD under the translation vector and the reflection
in the y-axis.

However, some of them did not label the vertices of the quadrilateral.
In parts (c) and (d), most of them were able to state the type of quadrilateral as rectangle
and found the gradient correctly. Candidates were expected to answer the question as
follows:

(a), (b)

88
(c) (i) Rectangle
(ii) From the graph, A2 (-2, 4) and B1 (-3, 6)
6−4
Gradient of line A2B1= −3−(−2)
2
= −1

= −2

89
 RESUME OF INTEGRATED SCIENCE

1. STANDARD OF THE PAPER

The standard of the paper compared favourably with that of the previous years. The questions
were unambiguous and at the level of the candidates.

2. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

The performance of the candidates was satisfactory, with a substantial number of candidates
performing above average.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Candidates were able to:

(i) define aerobic respiration in terms of biochemical reactions;
(ii) identification of farm tools;
(iii) provide precise and accurate responses on physical properties of soil;
(iv) identify accurately areas of technology used for the benefit of humans.

4. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

Some candidates had challenges in:

(i) the identification of electronic symbols;
(ii) the explanation of neutralization reaction;
(iii) writing and balancing of chemical equations;
(iv) drawing food webs which were done without indicating directions of energy flow;
(v) expressing a clear understanding of fundamental units and physical quantities.

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance to be
able to:
(i) spell scientific terms accurately as clearly, some candidates had ideas on the
required solutions but were undone by errors in spelling;
(ii) understand basic electronic concept and identify electronic symbols;
(iii) provide appropriate formulae or expression and leave answers in required units
of measurements if any;
(iv) write chemical symbols, equations and balancing of these equations.

90
 INTEGRATED SCIENCE 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper compared favourably with those of previous years.

The performance of candidates also improved fairly with many candidates doing exceptionally
well in Biology and Agriculture related questions while performance in Physics and Chemistry
related questions was not as impressive comparatively.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES STRENGTHS

Candidates were able to:

(i) define aerobic respiration in terms of biochemical reactions;
(ii) identify farm tools correctly;
(iii) provide precise and accurate responses on the physical properties of soil;
(iv) identify accurately areas of technology used for the benefit of humans;
(v) identify the major causes of teenage pregnancy;
(vi) state the importance of mulching on the soil;
(vii) state practices that destroy water bodies;
(viii) provide methods of conservation of water bodies;
(ix) identification of science-related businesses.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES WEAKNESSES

Candidates produced avoidable errors in some aspects of their responses and some are
listed below:

(i) identification of electronic symbols,

(ii) explanation of neutralization reaction,
(iii) writing and balancing chemical equations,
(iv) food web diagrams were drawn without proper indication of energy flow
(v) fundamental units and physical quantities,
(vi) wrongly listing HIV/AIDS as a common infectious disease that affects human
reproductive systems,

(vii) differentiation between aerobic and anaerobic respiration,

(viii) difficulty in explaining the term Milky Way as well as failure to establish the
relationship between stars and galaxies,

91
 (ix) effects of soil erosion on the growth of plants,
(x) failure to infer and interpret laboratory results from written observations.
(xi) wrong spelling of scientific terms,
(xii) identification of parts of the male and female reproductive systems.

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that candidates must be given further assistance to be
able to:

(i) spell scientific terms accurately because it was evident some candidates had
ideas on the required solutions but were full of spelling errors;

(ii) understand basic electronic concepts and identify electronic symbols;

(iii) provide appropriate formulae or expressions and leave answers in required units
of measurements if any;

(iv) write chemical symbols, equations and balancing of these equations;

(v) to understand the details required in defining and explaining scientific

terminologies;

(vi) improve drawing and labelling skills.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1

(a) The diagrams below are illustrations of the male and female reproductive
systems for humans.
Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow.

92
 (i) Name each of the parts labelled I, II, V, VI, VII and VIII.
(ii) State the function of each of the parts labelled III, IV and VII.
(iii) Name the labelled part where each of the following processes take place:
(α) fertilization;
(β) production of sperm;
(γ) ovulation.
(iv) Name two common infectious diseases that affect both the male and female
reproductive system.

(b) The diagrams below are illustrations of different devices used in the farm.
Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow.

(i) Give a common name for the devices illustrated.

(ii) Name each of the devices labelled A, B and C.
(iii) State one use of each of the devices named in (ii).
(iv) State two effects of the use of the device C on the soil.
(v) State two ways of prolonging the usefulness of the device labelled A.

93
(c) (i) Draw the symbols for each of the following electronic components:
(α) Resistor;
(β) (p-n junction) diode;
(γ) Cell;
(δ) Light Emitting Diode / LED.

(ii) Use the symbols drawn in (i) together with a switch to draw a circuit diagram to
demonstrate forward biasing of a (p-n junction) diode and the light emitting
diode.
(iii) State the effect of the resistor on the (p-n junction) diode and the light emitting
diode when the circuit is closed.

(d) The following activities were carried out in the laboratory.

Study them carefully and answer the questions that follow:

I. 10 g of iodated salt was added to 150 ml of water in a beaker. The mixture was
stirred thoroughly.
II. Vegetable oil was added to a quantity of water in a corked flask and shaken
vigorously then allowed to stand for some time.
III. Few grams of grinded charcoal was added to water in a beaker and stirred
vigorously and then allowed to stand.
(i) State what will be observed in each of the activities I, II and III.
(ii) Suggest an aim for the experiment.
(iii) State one difference between what is observed in I and III.
(iv) State a method of separation for the activity carried out in II.

(a) Candidates were to answer questions on diagrams illustrating the male and female
reproductive systems for humans.

This sub-question was fairly well answered by most candidates.

(i) The majority of the candidates were able to name the parts labelled I, II, V, VI,
VII and VIII but the spelling of these parts was difficult for some of them. The
biggest challenge from the responses of candidates here was the use of plural
words e.g. Testes instead of testis, ovaries instead of ovary.

(ii) The function of the part labelled III (womb wall) was poorly answered.
Candidates were expected to indicate that III (womb wall) protects the foetus, and
contracts/relaxes during childbirth. The functions of parts IV (vagina) and part
VII (penis) were well answered.

(iii) The parts where fertilization, production of sperm and ovulation occur were
well answered by most candidates.

94
 (iv) Some candidates were able to name two common infectious diseases that affect
both the male and female reproductive systems correctly; however many
candidates erroneously named diseases like HIV/AIDS, Malaria and Hepatitis
B as one of the expected answers and a good number lost valuable marks due to
wrong spelling of the names.

(b) Candidates were to answer questions on diagrams illustrating different devices

used in the farm. The performance of candidates on this sub-question was
commendable but for a few candidates who had a slight mishap as indicated
below:

(i) majority of candidates were able to give the common name for the devices
correctly as farm/garden tools;

(ii) performance of candidates here was quite impressive as the majority of the
candidates identified the devices labelled A, B and C correctly. Candidates were
expected to indicate as follows: A - mattock, B - peg, and C - hand fork,
surprisingly several candidates wrongly identified a peg as a ranging pole
but generally, the performance of candidates was exceptional;

(iii) quite a considerable number of candidates could not correctly state one use of
each of the devices. Expected responses: A: for stumping, for cutting off exposed
plant roots; B: for making spots on land for correct spacing of plants; C: for
stirring, for removing weeds on garden beds, for mixing fertilizers around plants;

(iv) the effects of the use of C were also poorly answered by most of the candidates.
Candidates are to note the effects of the use of C as follows: improves soil
aeration; improves water entry into soil; improves soil structure;

(v) ways of prolonging the usefulness of A were well answered by most of the
candidates.

(c) The performance of candidates in this sub-question on electronics was very poor.

(i) Candidates were to draw symbols for these electronic components: Resistor; (p-
n junction) diode; Cell; Light Emitting Diode/LED. The performance here was
very poor as the majority of the candidates could not draw the symbols correctly,
especially for the Light Emitting Diode.

(ii) Candidates were to use the symbols drawn in (i) together with a switch to draw a
circuit diagram to demonstrate forward biasing of the (p-n junction) diode and the
light-emitting diode. The majority of the candidates could not draw the circuit
diagram correctly.

(iv) The effect of the resistor on the (p-n junction) diode and the light emitting diode
when the circuit is closed was again very poorly stated. Candidates were expected
to state that the resistor limits current in the circuit and therefore protects the diode
and LED from burning off.

95
(d) Candidates were to answer questions on activities I, II and III that were carried out in
the laboratory. The performance of candidates in this sub-question was not good
enough.

(i) Candidates were expected to state their observations in each of the activities I, II
and III.

For activity I, responses of candidates were impressive as most of the

candidates were able to state correctly that the iodized salt dissolved in the
water. For activity II, the performance was also good as quite a number of
candidates were able to state correctly that the oil is suspended on the surface of
the water.

Performance in activity III was poor as only a few candidates could correctly
state that the charcoal does not dissolve in the water.

(ii) Candidates were expected to suggest an aim for the experiment, this was poorly
answered by the majority of candidates. Suggested aim: To demonstrate the
method of preparation of mixtures/ To determine if the solute will dissolve or
mix with water to form a mixture or solution.

(iii) The question demanded a difference between observations in I and III and many
of the responses provided by candidates were sub-par. Expected response: The
mixture/solution in I is homogeneous whilst the mixture/solution in III is
heterogeneous.

(iv) Candidates could not state that the method of separation for the activity carried
out in II is by the use of a separating funnel.

(v) Though Question 1 was compulsory, only a few candidates attempted 1 (c) and
1 (d).

Question 2

(a) (i) What is the importance of a fuse in an electrical appliance?

(ii) State two household appliances that have fuse.
(b) (i) What is teenage pregnancy?
(ii) State two causes of teenage pregnancy
(c) State three precautions against hazards.
(d) (i) State two practices that destroy water bodies.
(ii) Give two methods of conserving water bodies.

(a) (i) Performance of candidates for this question here was commendable as the
majority of the candidates were able to indicate that the importance of a fuse in
an electrical appliance is to protect the electrical appliance from excessive
current.

(ii) Candidates stated correctly two household appliances that have a fuse.

96
(b) (i) The explanation of teenage pregnancy was well answered.

(ii) Performance here was very good as the majority of the candidates stated
correctly two causes of teenage pregnancy.

(c) This sub-question was poorly answered as quite a number of candidates were not able
to state correctly three precautions against hazards but their responses were mainly
focussed on the aspect of wearing protective clothing which they split into wearing
boots, gloves, goggles etc.

(d) (i) Performance here was satisfactory as the majority of the candidates were able to
state correctly two practices that destroy water bodies.

(ii) It was fairly well answered as quite a number of candidates were able to state
correctly two methods of conserving water bodies.

It is important for candidates to note that the following responses are incorrect:

▪ Avoid dumping of waste into water bodies;

▪ Avoid the use of chemicals for fishing do not score.

Accepted responses are as follows:

▪ Education on dumping of waste into water bodies;

▪ Use of appropriate methods of fishing.

Question 3

(a) (i) What is aerobic respiration?

(ii) State the main difference between aerobic respiration and anaerobic
respiration.
(b) (i) Explain the term potential difference.
(ii) The potential difference across the terminals of a 100 Ω resistor is 250 V.
Calculate the current flowing through the resistor
(c) (i) Which crop is infected by the Swollen Shoot disease?
(ii) State the causative organism of the disease.
(iii) State the method of spread of the disease.
(iv) Give two ways of preventing the spread of the disease.
𝟕 𝟐𝟎
(d) Consider the given elements X and X
𝟑 𝟗
(i) Write the electron configuration for Y;
(ii) State the possible ion that could be formed by X to make it more stable.

97
(a) (i) Performance here was fairly good. It is important for candidates to note that
aerobic respiration is the breakdown/oxidation of organic food
substance/glucose in the presence of oxygen to release large amounts of energy,
water and carbon dioxide as by-products.

(ii) The main difference between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration was
well-answered by the majority of the candidates.

(b) (i) The explanation of potential difference was poorly answered by the majority of
the candidates who attempted the question. Expected response: Potential
difference is the work done in moving a unit of positive charge from one point
to another.

(ii) This part was well answered as many of the candidates were able to calculate
correctly the current flowing through a resistor with given resistance and potential
difference across the terminals.

(c) (i) Performance here was good as a good number of the candidates were able to
state that the crop infected by the swollen shoot disease is cocoa.

(ii) Performance here was poor as few of the candidates were able to state correctly
that the causative organism of swollen shoot disease is a virus.

(iii) This part requested candidates to state the method of spread of the swollen shoot
disease. It was poorly answered. Expected response: The virus is transmitted by
nymphs of mealy bugs from infected plants to healthy plants.

(iv) Candidates were to give two ways of preventing the spread of swollen shoot
disease. It was poorly answered.

Expected responses include the destruction of infected plants; using resistant

varieties; regular inspection of planting materials; and barrier cropping.

(d) Candidates were given two elements X and Y, with their respective mass and atomic
numbers.

(i) Candidates were to write the electron configuration for Y. It was fairly well
answered.

(ii) This part requested candidates to state the possible ion that could be formed by
X to make it more stable. It was poorly answered. Correct response: X+ or Li+

98
Question 4

(a) What is a neutralization reaction?

(b) State three physical properties of a soil.
(c) (i) Define the term power.
(ii) If a machine hauls a packing case of mass 50 kg up a building that is 10 m
high in 30 s, calculate the power of the machine.
[g = 10 m s-2]
(d) State four areas where technology is used for the benefit of humans.

(a) The explanation of neutralization reaction was fairly answered. Candidates were
expected to explain neutralization reaction to score full marks as follows:

Reaction between an acid and a base to form salt and water only or Reaction
between hydrogen ions and hydroxyl ions to form water.

(b) This sub-question was poorly answered. Candidates are to note that the physical
properties of soil include:

texture; structure; porosity; water-holding capacity; capillarity; nutrient content;

colour and temperature.

(c) (i) The definition of power was well answered.

(ii) This part which involved calculation of power of a machine was fairly well
answered

In this sub-question, candidates were to state four areas where technology is used for
the benefit of humans. Responses provided were impressive.

Expected responses include:

• Communication industries;
• medicine/health; energy sector;
• food processing;
• transportation industry;
• electronic industry;
• educational.

99
Question 5

(a) State three ways in which mulching restores soil resources.

(b) (i) Name the two elements that combine to form ammonia gas
(ii) Write a balanced chemical equation for the formation of ammonia from the
elements named in (i).
(c) The following information is on the feeding habits of some organisms:
(i) man feeds on grasscutter;
(ii) toad feeds on grasshopper;
(iii) snake feeds on toad;
(iv) goat feeds on grass,
(v) man feeds on hawk;
(vi) grasshopper feeds on grass;
(vii) hawk feeds on snake;
(viii) grasscutter feeds on grass.
Use all the information given above to construct a food web.

(d) (i) What is a galaxy?

(ii) State the relationship between stars and galaxies.
(ii) Explain briefly the term milky way.

(a) Candidates were to state three ways in which mulching restores soil resources. The
performance here was impressive as many candidates provided accurate responses.
Responses expected from candidates include: adds organic matter to the soil; checks
erosion; conserves soil nutrients; reduces loss of water through evaporation; improves
the activities of soil organisms.

(b) (i) This part was well handled as many of the candidates who attempted it named
hydrogen and ammonia as the two elements that combine to form ammonia
gas.

(ii) Candidates were to write a balanced chemical equation for the formation of
ammonia from hydrogen and nitrogen. It was poorly handled. Expected
response: N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3

(c) Candidates were to use some information on the feeding habits of some organisms to
construct a food web. Performance was very poor. It is important for candidates to note
that in the construction of the individual food chains that make the food web, the arrow
must point towards the organism obtaining the energy.

(d) (i) The explanation of galaxy was fairly handled. To score full marks candidates
were expected to provide responses such as: A collection of billions of stars
that show a common gravitational link; A system of stars, gases, dust held
together in space.

(ii) This part which requested the relationship between stars and galaxies was well
handled as most candidates were able to indicate correctly as follows: stars
make up the galaxies; galaxies are made up of several billions of stars.
100
 (iii) The explanation of Milky Way was fairly handled. Expected responses to score
full marks: The galaxy that contains the solar system and the earth; A hazy band
of light seen in the night sky formed from stars that cannot be individually
distinguished by the naked eye.

Question 5 was not popular with candidates. The performance was not good enough

Question 6

(a) (i) State three effects of soil erosion on the growth of crop plants.
(ii) Mention one method of controlling soil erosion.
(b) (i) Name two science related businesses.
(ii) State the principles underlying the operation of each of the businesses
named in (i).
(c) (i) Explain how the female Anopheles mosquito transmits malaria to
humans.
(ii) State one chemical method of controlling mosquitoes.
(d) (i) Name two fundamental units of measurement.
(ii) State the physical quantity that one of the units named in (i) measures.

(a) (i) Candidates were to state three effects of soil erosion on the growth of
crop plants. It was poorly handled. Expected responses include: poor
yield; death of crop; poor growth; lodging of crop plants.

(ii) This part requested candidates to mention one method of controlling

soil erosion. The majority of the candidates were at home with this
question.

(b) (i) Performance here was very good as the majority of the candidates
were able to name gari processing; soap making; salt production;
kenkey production and blacksmithing as science-related businesses.

(ii) The principles underlying the operation of the businesses stated were
well handled as most candidates were able to state correctly the
corresponding principles such as fermentation in kenkey production;
evaporation in salt making and saponification in soap making.

101
(c) (i) An explanation of how the female anopheles mosquito transmits malaria was
poorly answered. Expected responses: The mosquito bites an infected person,
and takes in blood infected with the malaria parasite; the parasite grows and
matures in the mosquito’s gut, then travels to the salivary glands; when the
mosquito bites another person, it releases the parasites into the victim’s body.

(ii) Chemical control of mosquitoes was fairly well answered by candidates

(d) (i) Candidates were to name two fundamental units of measurement. Performance
here was not good. Expected responses: metre; second; kilogram; degree
Celsius/Kelvin; mole; candela; ampere.

(ii) Candidates were to state the physical quantity that one of the units named in (i)
measures. It was poorly answered. Expected responses: length; time; mass;
temperature; amount of substance; luminous intensity; electric current.

RESUME FOR INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATIONS TECHNOLOGY 2

(ICT)

102
1. STANDARD OF THE PAPER

The Chief Examiner stated that the standard of the paper is comparable to those of the
previous years.

2. PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES

The Chief Examiner testified that there was a greater improvement in candidates’
performance compared to those of the previous years.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATE’S STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths and praised them for their
ability to:

(1) show appreciable knowledge of the print dialogue box and functions of some of the
commands on the dialogue box for question 1;

(2) give a satisfactory response to question 5 which was on Microsoft Excel data types;
(3) demonstrate a deeper understanding of the content of the questions;
(4) use ICT terms appropriately in their responses;
(5) follow both the general and specific instructions outlined in the paper.

4. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES' WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:

(1) could not differentiate between current page and selection as demanded in
question 1;

(2) wrote most of the ICT terms wrongly even though some of such terms were
provided in the preamble to the question;

(3) flouted the instructions of answering four (4) questions in all but rather answered
and all the five (5) questions set;

(4) had a very weak command over the English Language which shows clearly in their
responses;

(5) had poor handwriting especially letters such as e, r, and u; making their responses
difficult to read and score appropriately.

5. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

103
The Chief Examiner suggested the following to help address the weaknesses identified:

(1) there must be adequate lessons on the practical aspect of the subject for a better
understanding of both the practical and theoretical aspects;

(2) ICT teachers must develop spelling drills to cater for the poor spelling of ICT
terminologies;

(3) effort be made to help candidates acquire adequate command of the English language;

(4) candidates must be taught how to write clearly to make their responses readable.

INFORMATION AND COMMUNICATIONS TECHNOLOGY 2

(ICT)

104
1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The Chief Examiner stated that the standard of the paper is comparable to those of the
previous years.

The Chief Examiner testified that there was a greater improvement in candidates’
performance compared to those of the previous years.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths and praised them for their
ability to:
(1) show appreciable knowledge of the print dialogue box and functions of some of the
commands on the dialogue box for question 1;

(2) give a satisfactory response to question 5 which was on Spreadsheet (Microsoft

Excel) data types;

(3) demonstrate a deeper understanding of the content of the questions;

(4) use ICT terms appropriately in their responses;
(5) follow both the general and specific instructions outlined in the paper.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:

(1) could not differentiate between current page and selection as demanded in question
1;

(2) wrote most of the ICT terms wrongly even though some of the terms were
provided in the preamble to the question;

(3) flouted the instructions of answering four (4) questions in all but rather answered
all the five (5) questions set;

(4) had a very weak command over the English Language which shows clearly in
their responses;

(5) had poor handwriting especially letters such as e, r, and u; making their responses
difficult to read and score appropriately.

4. DETAILED COMMENTS
Question 1

105
1. Study Figure 1 carefully and use it to answer questions 1(a) to (f).

(a) Write the name of the image shown in Figure 1. …………………….

(b) State the function of each of the following commands on the part labelled A.
(i) All: ………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Current page: ……………………………………………………………...
(iii) Selection:
…………………………………………………………………...
(iv) Pages: ………………………………………………………………………
(c) Write the keyboard key combination that could be used to display the image
shown.
………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Outline the steps involved to display the image shown using the appropriate
menu command
………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………

(e) List two applications that can use the image shown
(i) …………………………….………………………………………………...
(ii) ………………………………………………………………………………
(f) State the function of each of the commands shown on the part labelled B
(i) Ok:
………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) Close:
……………………………………………………………………….

106
This was a compulsory question. A greater number of the candidates provided satisfactory
responses to this question due to their familiarity with the image displayed.

(a) Most of the candidates gave the appropriate response to this part of the question.
However, few of the candidates had it wrong either due to wrong spellings or lack of
knowledge of the image shown. Some of the wrong responses given by some of the
candidates are point, piint, prnt, dialougue, print preview, print preview dialogue box
printer document, print menu, print message, printer page, and spreadsheet.

The expected response should have been:

Print dialogue box/Printer dialogue box/Print message /Printer message /Print window/Printer
window.

(b) The majority of the candidates wrote appropriate responses to (i) All and (ii) Current
Page parts of this sub-question. However, some of the candidates had some
difficulties and provided the wrong response to the function of the All command as it
is used to print all selected pages. For the Current page, most of the candidates wrote
incorrect responses as it shows all the computer user as worked on selecting a
document.

Again, some of the candidates had difficulty in stating the function of (iii) Selection
and (iv) Pages. For Pages, some of the candidates wrote incorrect responses as; the
number of working pages you want to work on.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Selection:
It allows for printing only the selected portion/part of the entire/whole
document/file.

(ii) Pages:
It allows for printing only specific pages of the entire/whole document/file.

(c) The majority of the candidates were able to provide correct responses to the sub-
question. Candidates are very familiar with questions on keyboard shortcuts; hence
they had no difficulty responding to them but only a few of them were unable to score
due to spelling mistakes. Some wrote control plus P, cltr + P, ctlr + C.

The expected response should have been:

Ctrl+P or Control + P
(d) Even though, the majority of the candidates found it very challenging to outline the
steps to display the image using the appropriate menu commands, a good number of
the candidates were able to outline the appropriate steps required by the question by

107
 stating the need to click on the File/Office button from the menu command and then
click on print but some also begun their response from the start button, which was
unacceptable considering the demand of the question.

Surprisingly, some of the candidates were outlining the steps involved in launching an
application.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Click on the File/Office button from the menu command.

(ii) Click on Print from the drop-down menu/ from the menu command.

(e) The majority of the candidates had this sub-question correctly answered while a few of
them had it wrong due to spelling mistakes. Some of their wrong responses are
spreadsheet, Microsoft Office etc.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Word processing applications;

(ii) Spreadsheet applications;
(iii) Paint applications;
(iv) Multimedia applications etc.
(f) This sub-question was again another challenge to most of the candidates under the
compulsory question. With few candidates being able to provide a satisfactory
response, a greater number of them were unable to provide the required response. For
example, some wrote the function of the OK as it is used to confirm a process and that
of the Close as it is used to exist a program.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Ok:

It allows the user to initiate/execute/issue the print command/task.

(ii) Close:

It allows the user to exit/terminate/end/stop the print command/task

Generally, the candidates’ performance on this question was satisfactory.

Question 2

108
(a) What is text formatting? ……..………………………………………………………..
(b) List three ways by which a character could be formatted
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) A user typed forem instead of form. Write the steps to be followed to delete the
letter (e) using the keyboard only
………………………………………………………………………………………….
………………………………………………………………………………………….
……………………………………..……………………………………………………

As an optional question; the majority of the candidates attempted the question but did not
perform too well.

(a) Most of the candidates who answered this question provided an appropriate response,
however, a lot of them ended up writing the definition of text editing instead.

The expected response should have been:

Text formatting refers to the act/process of changing the appearance of a text.

(b) Again, most of the candidates wrote excellent responses to this question. However, on
some occasions, some of the candidates provided incorrect responses as features of
text editing while some made lots of spelling mistakes.

Some of their wrong spellings are: fornt, for front and, blod, for blood, etc.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Changing the typeface

(ii) Changing the font size
(iii)Changing the font colour
(iv) Applying underline styles
(v) Applying Italics
(vi) Bolding the character etc.
(c) Considering the practical nature of this question, it posed a great challenge to the
majority of the candidates.

Not only did most of the candidates have challenges in wrong spellings, but they were
also using the term click; an indication showing deviation by applying the mouse to
accomplish the task rather than the keyboard as required by the question.

109
 Some of their deviated response were press on the space bar instead of press on the
backspace and click on the key instead of press on the key.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Put/place/position the cursor/insertion point between the characters (r) and (e)

(ii) Press/hit the delete key on the keyboard to delete the character (e)

OR

(i) Put/place/position the cursor/insertion point between the characters (e) and (m)

(ii) Press/hit the delete key on the keyboard to delete the character (e)

OR

(i) Use the keyboard to select the character (e)

(ii) Press either the delete/backspace key.

Generally, the candidate’s performance in this question was average.

Question 3
Use the image shown in Figure 2 to answer questions 3(a) to (c)

(a) Write the name of the image shown. ………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………………………..
(b) List three ICT tools that make use of the image shown.
(i) ………………………………………………………………………………….
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(c) State two actions a user could take when the image shown is pressed and the device
did not respond
a. …………………………………………………………………………………..
b. ……………………………………………………………………………..........
(d) What is launching as used in computing environment? …………………………….
…………………………………………………………………………………………..
Generally, candidates always attempt questions on ICT tools and perform satisfactorily well.
As an optional question, most of the candidates tackled it and performed well.

110
 (a) Almost all the candidates were able to identify the image but the challenge was the
wrong spelling of the name. some wrote buttom, bottom pawer, buton etc. whereas few
of them deviated by writing restart button, standby button etc.

The expected response should have been:

Power button/Power On or Off button/ On or Off button/Switch button/Switch/

shutdown button etc.

(b) The majority of the candidates gave correct ICT tools that use the image shown and the
responses were satisfactory. Again, the difficulty here was spelling mistakes where
some of their response were Televion, Televission, Televition, Monter, and Moniter.

Expected responses should have been:

▪ Monitor ▪ Projector
▪ System Unit ▪ Printer
▪ Laptop ▪ CD/DVD deck/player
▪ Radio ▪ Digital camera etc.
▪ Television

(c) As seen in most of their responses, the majority of the candidates were just providing
imaginative answers. This demonstrates their lack of understanding of the question and
practical experience in the use of ICT tools.

While some of the candidates were writing wrong responses as check the electricity
connection, others were writing the user should repair it.

Expected responses should have been:

(i) Ensure the button is properly pressed/switched on

(ii) Ensure the power source connection is properly connected and switched on
(iii) Ensure the power cable is properly connected to the device
(iv) Ensure the charger/battery of the device is properly fixed if the device uses
charger/battery etc.

(d) The majority of the candidates were able to demonstrate an appreciable knowledge of
the question and provided a satisfactory response

Generally, candidates performed satisfactorily well on this question.

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Question 4
(a) Write three desktop features of a computer
(i) ...…..……………………………………………………………………………
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) ………………………………………………………………………………….
(b) State three rules and regulations for the responsible use of the Internet in the
school’s computer laboratory.
(i) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(ii) …………………………………………………………………………………..
(iii) …………………………………………………………………………………..

As an optional question, not all the candidates attempted the question. Those who answered
this question also gave satisfactory answers.

(a) The majority of the candidates answered this question correctly but some of them also
had it very challenging by giving wrong responses such as status bar, menu bar, start
menu, wall pepper, control box etc.

The expected response should have been:

(i) Icons
(ii) Desktop Background
(iii) Themes
(iv) Colours
(v) Wallpaper
(vi) Font
(vii) Taskbar etc.

(b) While the majority of the candidates handled this question satisfactorily well, some of
them were stating rules and regulations for the use of the computer laboratory without
paying attention to what the question was demanding from them.

Some were writing “Do not bring water into the lab, do not eat in the lab etc.”

Expected responses should have been:

(i) Beware of copyright laws

(ii) Explore only appropriate and safe sites for learning
(iii) Give credit for any information used
(iv) Help prevent cyberbullying
(v) Self-respect is important

The candidates performed averagely on this question.

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Question 5
(a) Table 1 contains items. Complete the table by indicating against each item whether
it is a formula, function, text or value in the appropriate data column.
ITEM DATA TYPE
Days of the week
=Sum(A2:G2)
4020201010
Days of the month
BECE candidates
=A2+G2+M2*P17
233244042761
We are writing ICT exams now
201020112012
=Product(A1:Z100)
=B4*C4*H25
202120222023

This was an optional question that attracted the attention of the majority of the candidates. Most
of the candidates did very well in responding to this question but a lot of them interchanged
the responses and surprisingly, were making spelling mistakes even though the data types were
written for them in the question just to identify the appropriate one and copy.

Most of them interchanged formula with function and vice versa. Again, some introduced
label and numbers for text and value respectively.

The expected response should have been:

ITEM DATA TYPE

Days of the week Text
=Sum(A2 : G2) Function
4020201010 Value
Days of the month Text
BECE candidates Text
=A2+G2+M2*P17 Formula
233244042761 Value
We are writing ICT exams now Text
201020112012 Value
=Product(A1 : Z100) Function
=B4*C4*H25 Formula
202120222023 Value

The candidates' performance was excellent in this question.

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RESUME OF BASIC DESIGN AND TECHNOLOGY (PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS,
HOME ECONOMICS AND VISUAL ARTS)

PERFORMANCE OF CANDIDATES
The Chief Examiners for Pre-Technical Skills and Visual Arts reported that there was
improvement in candidates’ performance compared with the previous years.

However, the Chief Examiner for Home Economics indicated that the candidates’
performance was not satisfactory.

PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS
1. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiner reported that:

(a) majority of the candidates showed a good grasp of pictorial drawings and how to
convert them into orthographic perspectives;

(b) most of the candidates correctly stated the symptoms of scurvy;

(c) majority of the candidates provided neat sketches.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner indicated that:

(a) most of the candidates lacked in-depth knowledge on seams and its
characteristics;

(b) majority of the candidates failed to formulate analysis questions based on

ergonomics;

(c) majority of the candidates could not provide standard dimensions;

(d) most of the candidates failed to state the specific use of the rip saw.

3. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner suggested that:

(a) Candidates should be given more exercises involving description of workshop

processes;

(b) Teachers should pay adequate attention to the Core Skills aspect of the syllabus;

(c) Candidates should be exposed to theory and practical training to improve the
understanding of the subject.

114
HOME ECONOMICS
1. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS
The Chief Examiner reported that:

(a) Candidates performed well in questions that demanded short answers

and recall of facts.

(c) Candidates were able to answer questions on exhibition.

(c) Candidates did well in the following areas:

(i) functions of nutrients;

(ii) balanced diet;
(iii) cooking methods.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that:

(a) The majority of the candidates demonstrated lack of knowledge in

Clothing questions.

(b) Candidates failed to use the correct terminologies to answer questions

and this affected them.

3. SUGGESTED REMEDIES
The Chief Examiner recommended that:
(a) Candidates should read the recommended text books in order to be
familiar with Clothing terminologies.

(b) The Summary of the Chief Examiner’s Report should be made

available to candidates. This will help them to be familiar with
common errors.
(c) Teachers are expected to teach both the clothing as well as the foods
aspect of the subject so that candidates can cultivate a balanced interest
in both subjects.

115
VISUAL ARTS

1. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths as follows:

(a) The majority of the candidates were able to state the primary colours in
art;

(b) Most candidates showed in-depth knowledge in packaging;

(c) The majority of the candidates provided adequate responses to the

questions on fabric and leather decorations;

(d) A few candidates provided sufficient responses to terms such as

pairing, splitting, scraping, intertwining and coiling;

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:
(a) had difficulty in stating the differences between: signboard
and billboard, signpost and poster, and collage and mosaic;

(b) had a challenge in identifying the sources of weaving materials

such as straw, coir, rachis and raffia;

(c) could not describe how singeing is done on woven articles;

(d) had difficulty in matching question.

3. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that:

(a) teachers must endeavour to explain to the candidates, differences

between the following terms: signboard and billboard, signpost and
poster, collage and mosaic;

(b) the candidates should be encouraged to read their textbooks, notes and
make good use of the internet;

(c) teachers should make teaching and learning more practical than
theoretical;

(d) teachers are encouraged to adapt the use of audio-visuals, in teaching

functions of tools and processes.

116
 BDT (PRE-TECHNICAL SKILLS)

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was good and compares favourably with that of the previous
year.

The performance of candidates was above average.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

(1) The majority of the candidates showed a good grasp of pictorial drawings and
how to convert them into orthographic perspectives.

(2) Most of the candidates correctly stated the symptoms of scurvy.

(3) The majority of the candidates provided neat sketches.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

(1) Most of the candidates lacked in-depth knowledge on seam stitches and its
characteristics.

(2) The majority of the candidates failed to formulate analysis questions based on
ergonomics.

(3) The majority of the candidates could not provide standard dimensions of a brick.

(4) Most of the candidates failed to state the specific use of the rip saw.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(1) Candidates should be given more exercises involving description of workshop

processes.

(2) Candidates should take the Core Skills aspect of the syllabus seriously.

(3) Candidates should be exposed to appropriate theory and practical skills training
to improve their understanding of the subject.

Question 1
(a) The head of a school is organising a graduation party for the JHS graduates. State
two factors that would determine the type of meal service.
(b) (i) State two symptoms of scurvy.
(ii) State two characteristics of a seam.

117
 (c) (i) List two methods of drawing objects in pictorial view.
(ii) State two analysis questions based on ergonomics.
(iii) State one instrument for drawing circles.
(d) (i) Define Packaging.
(ii) State three benefits of packaging.
(iii) List two important information on a good package.

(a) The majority of the candidates were able to provide appropriate responses to what
determines the type of meal service.

The expected response is as follows:

(i) Type of meal/Menu/Number of courses;

(ii) Number of people to be served/ the number of people to be catered for;
(iii) Space available for the service;
(iv) Amount of time available;
(v) Equipment needs for serving/Serving equipment.

(b) (i) This was a well answered question. Some correct responses provided by the
candidates are:
▪ Slow healing of wound; ▪ Bruise;
▪ Bleeding gums; ▪ Rashes;
▪ Loss of appetite; ▪ Irritability;
▪ Body weakness; ▪ Pain in the muscles and
▪ Sore on the skin; joints;
▪ Fatigue, ▪ Weight loss.

(ii) Candidates struggled to provide appropriate responses to this question.

Expected response:

(i) The Seam must be well stitched and pressed / Must be strong / Must be
durable;

(ii) The thread used must match colour of the fabric;

(iii) It must have the same width of seam throughout;
(iv) The Seam must be flat and neat on both sides;
(v) The Seam must be comfortable on the wearer, e.g. Underwears;
(vi) The Seam must be suitable for the type of the article being made.

118
(c) (i) This was a very well answered question. The correct answers provided by the
candidates include:

▪ Oblique;
▪ Isometric;
▪ Perspective.

(ii) The majority of the candidates provided accurate responses to this question.
Expected response:
▪ Who will use the artefact?
▪ What is the age of the user?
▪ Where will the artefact be used?
▪ How will the artefact be used?
▪ What is the weight of the user?
▪ Height of the user?
▪ What is the size of the user?

(iii) This question was well answered, However, a few of the candidates stated
compass instead of a pair of compasses.

(d) The majority of the candidates answered this question satisfactorily.

Expected response:

(i) Defining Packaging:

It is the act of enclosing or protecting a product using a container to aid its

distribution, identification, storage, promotion etc.

(ii) Stating three benefits of packaging:

(i) For protection of product from contamination;

(ii) For preservation;
(iii) For promotion;
(iv) For branding;
(v) For easy handling;
(vi) For storage;
(vii) For adding value.

119
 (iii) Listing two important information on a good package:

(i) Content / Ingredients;

(ii) Manufacture / Expiry Dates;
(iii) Dosage;
(iv) Country of origin;
(v) Bar code.

SECTION B

Question 2

(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of a brick.

(ii) Show the standard dimension of the brick on the sketch in a(i).
(b) List three materials suitable for making rivets.
(c) Copy and complete the table below.

TYPE OF TIMBER ONE PROPERTY ONE USE

(i) Wawa
(ii) Odum
(iii) Mahogany

(d) Figure 1 shows the sketch of a planed timber to be smoothened and polish. Use it
to answer Questions (d) (i) and (d) (ii).

Figure 1

(i) Name the suitable abrasive material to be used to smoothen the timber
surface.
(ii) State one purpose of polishing the smoothened surface of the timber.

(a) The majority of the candidates produced good sketches of the brick but they failed to
give the standard dimension on the sketch.

120
 Expected response:

Length – 215 mm
OR Breadth – 102.5 mm

Height – 65 mm

(b) The majority of the candidates were able to correctly list materials for making rivets.
Expected response:

• Mild steel/Low carbon steel;

• Copper;
• Aluminium;
• Stainless steel;
• Brass.

(c) The majority of the candidates provided appropriate responses to the question enabling
them to score the full marks allotted to it.
Expected response:

TYPE OF TIMBER ONE PROPERTY ONE USE

(i) Wawa • Light in weight; • Kitchen stool;
• Soft; • Kitchen cabinet;
• Less durable; • Temporal structure eg. Formwork,
• Low strength; plywood core.
• White to pale yellow.

121
 (ii) Odum • Strong; • Door;
• Hard; • Door frames;
• Tough; • Window frames;
• Termite resistant; • Furniture;
• Heavy; • Roof construction;
• Resistant to fire; • Laboratory benches;
• Durable; • Flooring;
• Resistance to wear • Staircase;
yellow-pale brown. • Panel window;
• Louvre blades.
(iii) Mahogany • Resistant to wear; • Furniture;
• Well figured surface • Counters;
appearance; • Flooring;
• Reddish brown with • Shop fittings;
dark streaks; • Panelling;
• Durable; • Interior fittings in ships and
• Hard; railway coaches;
• Strong; • Plywood;
• Tough. • Veneers.

(d) (i) The majority of the candidates correctly provided suitable abrasive material
for smoothening the timber surface. Most of the candidates stated glass paper
or sand paper.

(ii) This is a well answered question. Some of the answers provided by candidates
are as follows:

• To prevent staining the surface of the wood;

• To produce a smooth surface;

• To make the surface attractive;

• To protect the wood;

• To preserve the wood;

• For easy cleaning of the surface;

• To make it last longer.

122
Question 3
(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of a rip saw and Label any two parts on
the sketch.
(ii) State one use of the rip saw.
(b) Copy and complete the table below:

OPERATION TWO TOOLS REQUIRED

FOR EACH OPERATION
(i) Cutting tenon joint (i)
(ii)
(ii) Soldering sheet metals (i)
(ii)

(c) Figure 2 shows a sketch of a wooden block.

Draw to full size:
(i) The front view in the direction of arrow Z;
(ii) The plan.

Figure 2

(a) (i) Only few candidates drew the freehand pictorial sketch of a rip saw correctly.
However, they were able to label the parts correctly.

Expected sketch:

(ii) The majority of the candidates were unable to state one use of a rip saw.

123
 Expected response:

• For cutting along the grain of timber;

• For ripping of wood.

(b) A well answered question. Expected response is as follows:

OPERATION TWO TOOLS REQUIRED FOR

EACH OPERATION
(i) Cutting Tenon joint • Pencil;
• Marking knife;
• Bench hook;
• Bench vice;
• Tenon saw;
• Rule;
• Try square;
• Marking gauge;
• Mortise gauge.
(ii) Soldering sheet metals • Soldering iron;
• Stove;
• Folding;
• File.

(c) This was a popular question. Responses to this question were impressive.

Expected response:

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Question 4

(a) (i) Make a freehand pictorial sketch of a steel rule.

(ii) State one use of the steel rule.
(iii) State two methods of maintaining the steel rule.
(b) State one use of the following tools:
(i) G-clamp
(ii) Soldering iron
(iii) Mould box.
(c) Figure 3 shows the front elevation of a wall.

(a) (i) The majority of the candidates sketched the steel rule with the appropriate
calibrations on it.

Expected response:

(ii) The majority of the candidates were able to state the use of the steel rule:

• For taking measurement;

• Testing for flatness.

(iii) The methods of maintaining the steel rule are:

• Cleaning it after use;

• Oiling it regularly;
• Using it for the right job.

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(b) The majority of the candidates were able to state the uses of G-clamp and Mould box.
However, they encountered difficulty stating the use of the soldering iron.
Expected response:

TOOL ONE USE EACH

i. G-clamp: For holding pieces together when planing/gluing/sawing/
drilling/soldering and welding.

ii. Soldering iron: For joining metals together/For supplying source of heat
for melting the solder.

iii. Mould box: Prepare block; Mould/produce blocks.

(c) (i) Most of the candidates correctly stated the number of courses of the wall as
four courses.

(ii) The future continuation method shown on the wall is racking back. A few of the
candidates failed to state it.

(iii) The majority of the candidates were able to identify the tool labelled D.

Expected response:

• Straight edge;

• Spirit level.

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 BDT HOME ECONOMICS 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS

The standard of the paper was comparable to those of the previous years. The
questions were within the scope of the syllabus.

The performance of the candidates, however, were below average as compared to that
of the previous year.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

Some of the commendable features noted in candidates’ answers which should be

encouraged include:
(a) Rubrics were fairly followed.

(b) Candidates attempted the number of questions required of them.

(c) Most candidates’ demonstrated understanding of the following topic:

‘methods of cooking and functions of nutrients.’

(d) Most candidates performed better in the Foods questions compared to that of
Clothing questions.

(e) Some candidates showed improvement in the understanding of some questions,

such as question 1 (a) and (b), question 3 (a), (b) and (c), question 4 (d), (f), (g)
and (h).

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The following were some of candidates’ weakness:

(a) Clothing questions were poorly answered.

(b) Some candidates deviated in answering some of the questions, a clear indication
that they could not read the question to understand.
(c) There were so much cancellations.

(d) Sentence construction was poor.

(e) Subject matter was grossly inadequate.

(f) Most of the candidates did not follow the rubrics.

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4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

(a) The subject matters of a particular topic should be well taught.

(b) Teachers should write new words on the board and pronounce them to the hearing
of students.

(c) Writing skills should be taught.

(d) Candidates should practise sentence construction

(e) Spellings should be checked during marking of exercises.

(f) There should be regular dictation or word drill either orally or writing to enforce
correct spelling of words.

(g) Teachers should pay more attention to clothing topics in the syllabus.

5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1

(a) The Head of school is organizing a graduation party for the JHS Graduates.
State two factors that would determine the type of meal service.

(b) (i) State two symptoms of scurvy.

(ii) State two characteristics of a seam.

(c) (i) List two methods of drawing objects in pictorial view.

(ii) State two analysis questions based on ergonomics.

(iii)State one instrument used for drawing circles.
(d) (i) Define packaging.

(ii) State three benefits of packaging.

(iii)List two important information on a good package.

(a) There was evidence that candidates knew the answers; they however could not
use the technical terms or words to state the answers rightly.

Some of the candidates’ poor/wrong answers included:

• The kind of food

• Population
• Availability of resources
• The kind of people, etc.

128
 Candidates were expected to give the following answers:
• Type of meal/menu/number of courses;
• Number of people to be served/to be catered for;
• Space available for the service;
• Amount of time available;
• Amount of money available;
• Availability of serving equipment.
Candidates were able to write amount of money available, amount of time
available and number of people to be catered for.

The majority of the candidates gave factors to consider when planning meals
rather, e.g. age, nutritional needs and foods in season.

(b) (i) This question was quite well answered. Most of the correct answers
given were:

• Bleeding gums;
• Loss of appetite;
• Fatigue;
• Pain in the muscles and joints, etc.
However, spellings were poor. Gum was spelt ‘gun’, ‘iron pains’,
instead of joint pains, etc.

Some also gave wrong answers such as:

Anaemic, sores at the corners of the mouth

Swollen gum, holes in the gum, etc.

Expected answers include:

• Slow healing of wounds;

• Bleeding gums;
• Loss of appetite;
• Body weakness, etc.
(ii) This question was poorly answered by almost all candidates. They
fumbled a lot to provide the answers to this question.

They wrote wrong answers such as:

• It holds two or more fabrics together

• It must look attractive
• The seam must be done at the wrong side of the garment
• It should be invisible, etc.

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 Required/expected answers include:

• Seam must be well stitched and pressed/strong/durable;

• The thread used must match colour of the article;
• Seams must have same width throughout the article;
• Seam must be flat and neat on both sides of the article, etc.
This section was poorly done. Some candidates gave unrelated
answers such as:

• It has perfect joint;

• No fabric damage during sewing.

(c) (i) This was a popular question. The majority of candidates had full
marks for answering this question.

Expected answers include:

• Oblique drawing;
• Isometric drawing;
• Perspective drawing.

(ii) With this question, candidates exhibited lack of knowledge of the

subject-matter. They gave wrong answers such as:

‘do employers have the opportunity to work standing?

Are chairs adequately adequate?
Expected answers include:
• Who will use the artefact?;
• What is the age of the user?;
• Where will the artefact be used?;
• how will the artefact be used.
(iii) Almost all the candidates had the correct answer to this question.
However, a few candidates wrote wrong answers such as pencil,
divider, protractor.

Expected answer is:

A pair of compasses.

(d) (i) The majority of candidates had full marks for this question.

Packaging is the act of enclosing or protecting a product using a

container to aid its distribution, identification, storage, promotion, etc.

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 The majority of candidates were able to state the part dealing with the
making of the container. Most of the candidates gave horrible
definitions.

(ii) This question was very popular with most candidates. The majority of
them had full marks for answering this question.

Expected answers include:

• For protection of products from contamination;

• For preservation;
• For branding, promotion;
• For easy handling;
• For storage;
• For adding value, etc.

On the whole, this question was quite well done.

(iii) This question was very popular. The majority of the candidates
provided the correct answers.

Expected answers include:

• Content or ingredients
• Manufacturing and expiry date
• Dosage
• Name of product
• Country of origin, etc.

The pieces of information that candidates wrote were:

• Content/ingredients;
• Manufacturing date/expiry dates;
• Country of origin.

Question 2

(a) Give three reasons for mounting an exhibition.

(b) Outline four ways to prolong the lifespan of a sewing machine.
(c) State three factors to consider in selecting openings and fastenings.
(d) A student who offered BDT (Home Economics) has crocheting tools and
materials. Mention three fashion accessories that can be made for sale.

131
(e) The diagram above is a shirt. Identify three features on it.

(f) State four ways for caring for a rayon headgear.

(g) Mr. Johnson’s clothes suffered wear and tear as a result of frequent use.
State any two ways of mending them.

(a) A few candidates managed to get average marks for answering this
question.

The following reasons were expected:

• For advertising clothe and accessories/product;
• For selling products/wares;
• For exhibitors to be able to display their products;
• For the public to access the quality of products;
• To promote local craftsmanship;
• To increase sales;
• To make profit/for economic gains;
• To educate consumers on a new product.

(b) The majority of candidates wrote wrong answers such as:

• Always use a cover cloth to cover the machine;

• Cleaning it when dirty;
• Oiling continuously.

Expected answers include:

• Dust the machine before and after use;
• Remove bits of threads after use;
• Oil the machine frequently;
• Cover the feed plate with a piece of cloth;
• Service the machine at least once a year;
• Tighten loose screws;
• Cover the machine when not in use.

132
(c) This question was poorly answered by the few candidates who attempted
it. They had average marks

Expected answers include:

• Consider the position of the opening;
• The purpose of the opening and fastening;
• Texture of the fabric;
• The colour of fabric;
• The age of the wearer;
• The type of garment;
• The effect of finish required;
• The taste of the wearer/preference.

The majority of candidates just wrote one-word answers such as ‘age’, ‘style’,
material, instead of fabric, they therefore lost a lot marks.

(d) Out of the lot, candidates mentioned mostly bags, hats, mittens which were
correct. Other items mentioned were bedsheets, dresses, table cloths
which were wrong.

Some other candidates wrote hook, yarns used in crocheting. It appears

that candidates did not understand the word ‘accessories’.

(e) Candidates were expected to lists features to be found on a shirt.

The features include:

• Collar;
• Sleeve;
• Yoke;
• Opening;
• Fastening;
• Pocket.
This was quite well answered except that the spellings of some of the features
were outrageous,

• e.g. ’packet’ instead of ‘pocket,

• ‘battims’ instead of ‘bottons, etc.
• ‘hand’ as sleeves
• ‘colour’ as collar

(f) The few who attempted this sub-question mentioned darning and patching,
but even that darning was spelt ‘darming’. Spellings were very poor, they
therefore scored very low marks.

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 Expected answers were:
• Do not soak, boil or bleach because they are weak;
• Wash by kneading and squeezing in warm soapy water;
• Rinse and roll in a towel to remove excess water;
• Iron with moderately hot iron when partly dry;
• Air, fold and store.

(g) This sub-question was poorly answered. In fact, candidates could not
answer it at all.

Expected answers may include:

• Direct stitching of tears;
• Fixing fastenings;
• Patching garments by hand;
• Darning articles;
• Patching garments by machine.
Question 3

(a) State the three main functions of nutrients to the body.

(b) Explain any two of the following terms used in nutrition.

(i) overnutrition;
(ii) under nutrition;
(iii) balanced diet.
(c) (i) Outline three deficiency symptoms of thiamine.

(ii) Explain the term unavailable carbohydrate.

(iii) State two functions of unavailable carbohydrates.
(d) List five food items suitable for grilling.

(e) State three moist methods of cooking food.

(a) This was a very popular question. The majority of candidates had half of the
marks for this question for lack of knowledge and understanding of a few
concepts.

A few candidates understood this question and satisfied the demands

accordingly, however wrong answers given by some candidates include:

• Energy giving foods

• Protection
• Body building food, etc.

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 Expected answers for functions of nutrients to the body include:

• For body building;

• Energy-giving;
• For protection.

(b) This question was answered by all candidates, however, their performance
was not encouraging.

Some of candidates’ wrong answers included:

• Overnutrition is when you have more nutrients in your body;

• Undernutrition is when you have less nutrition in the body that are
consumed;

• Balance diet is the food that has all the six food groups in the correct
proportion.

(i) Expected answers include:

• Overnutrition is a condition/state/situation which occurs when

excess amount of some nutrients are taken over a period of
time.

• Under nutrition is a condition/state/situation in which the body

receive less or insufficient total amount of nutrients over a
period of time.

Candidates omitted the condition or state or situation and over a period of

time at the beginning and end of the statements.

• Balanced diet refers to a diet that provides adequate amount of

nutrients for the need of an individual.

(c) (i) The majority of candidates mistook the demands of this question for
that of symptoms of scurvy and wrote answers as such.

Some of the wrong answers given include:

Poor memory, lack of appetite, short growth.

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 Expected answers for Deficiency symptoms of thiamine include:

• Irritability/poor concentration;
• Growth retardation in children/checked growth stunted growth;
• Swollen limps;
• Weak and painful nerves;
• Loss of weight;
• Dizziness.

Candidates were able to mention loss of weight and poor concentration. A

few also mentioned retarded growth in children.

However, some wrote just loss instead of weight loss and ‘retarded’ was
written as ‘retarted’.

(ii) Candidates answers to this question indicated that candidates had no

idea about “unavailable carbohydrates.

Some of candidates’ wrong answers include:

Unavoidable carbohydrates are foods that have heavy food like fufu, banku
with okro soup and lack of protein’

Unavailable carbohydrates refers to food without carbohydrates.

Expected answers for unavailable carbohydrates include:

This is fibre or cellulose or roughage content of plants that cannot be digested

and so it is not a nutrient.

Candidates were only able to state the fact that it cannot be digested.

(iii) Expected answers were:

• Increase the bulk of food;

• Stimulates the movement of some of the digestive organs/it aids

digestion;

• Helps in eliminating of waste/prevents constipation.

(d) This question was very well answered, except that some candidates wrote oil,
salt, ginger, cheese, vegetables (without specifying) as foods to be grilled.
Others wrote dishes such as khebab and pizza. Other foods such as milk, egg
and banana were listed.

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 Expected answers include:

▪ Tender cuts of meat

▪ Steaks
▪ Poultry breast
▪ Fish

(e) The majority of candidates answered this question very well. However, some
candidates provided wrong answers such as frying, steaming.

Expected answers for moist cooking of food include:

• Boiling;
• Stewing;
• Steaming;
• Poaching;
• Pressure cooking.

This was well done but spellings were poor, e.g.’ steaming’ was ‘steming’,
boiling was spelt as ‘bolling’.

Question 4

The diagrams above are parts of a garment. Study them carefully and answer
questions 4 (a) and 4 (b).
(a) Name the diagrams labelled I, II, III, IV and V.
(b) State two different garments which can be made with all the parts shown in
the diagrams.

137
(c) State one use each of the following sewing tools:
(i) seam ripper;
(ii) pin cushion;
(iii) thimble.
(d) State the three types of frying.
(e) State four points to consider when planning meals for an adolescent.
(f) (i) List the two types of steaming.
(ii) Give an example each of a dish prepared using the types of steaming
listed in 4 (f) (i) above.
(g) State four points to consider when steaming food.

(a) Most candidates were able to identify the diagram but used wrong words to
name them.

Such wrong words included:

• Hand for sleeve;
• Parchet for pocket;
• Colour for collar;
• Front dress for front bodice;
• Back dress for back bodice.

Expected answers include:

• Sleeve;
• Pocket;
• Collar;
• Front bodice;
• Back bodice.

(b) All candidates who attempted this sub-question had a full mark

Expected answers include:

• Shirt;
• Blouse;
• Jacket;
• Frock dress.

(c) Even though there was evidence that candidates knew the answers, they
however could not express themselves.

Some of their wrong answers included:

• Seam ripper is used to remove seams;
• Pin cushion is used to cushion the pins and needles;
• Thimble is used to protect the hand.

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 Expected answers included:

(i) Seam ripper - to unpick stitches;

(ii) Pin cushion - for holding pins and needles;

(iii) Thimble - for protecting the middle finger while hand

sewing.

(d) Almost all candidates had this sub-question right.

Expected answers:
• Deep frying/wet/French frying;

• Shallow frying;

• Dry/air frying.

Some candidates wrote triple frying for dry frying. Some wrote shallow with
mistakes in the spelling.

(e) This sub-question was not well answered because salient points were left out
in the statements.

Expected answers include:

• Money available;
• Nutritional needs of the family/health conditions;
• Occupation;
• Cooking facilities available;
• Religious and cultural beliefs;
• Preference/likes and dislikes;
• Time available;
• Foods in season;
• Skills of the cook;
• Weather conditions.

The most popular points written were time available and money available
while a few wrote nutritional needs.

(f) (i) This was a very popular question and quite a number of candidates
provided correct answers.

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 The two types of steaming are:
• Direct steaming;

• Indirect steaming.

This was well done by the majority of the candidates.

(ii) Expected answers were:

Direct steaming

• Aboloo
• Yakeyake
• Kenkey
• Kpokpoi
• Kpoglo
• Akankye
• Akyeke
• Tubani

Indirect steaming
• Steamed fish
• Steamed egg custard
• Caramel custard
• Pudding

Apart from kenkey and kpokpoi, candidates were unable to give examples of steamed
foods.

(g) This question was poorly answered by a small number of candidates who attempted it.

Expected answers include:

• The water for steaming is kept boiling before food is put into it to avoid
uncooked food;

• Steamed foods must be of equal and reasonable sizes;

• Re-fill the pot with boiling water when necessary/use enough boiling water to
last through out the cooking;

• The saucepan or the steamer should have tight fitting lid in order to keep
steam in;

• The food has to be covered to prevent it from becoming sodden.

Candidates were unable to answer this section at all. They have the idea that
steaming uses hot water but were unable to express themselves.
140
 VISUAL ARTS 2

1. GENERAL COMMENTS
The standard of the 2023 BECE examination compares favourably with those
of the previous years. The questions were evenly distributed across the topics
in the syllabus.
Generally, the performance of candidates was average.

2. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ STRENGTHS

The Chief Examiner listed some of the candidates’ strengths as follows:

(a) The majority of the candidates were able to state the primary colours
in art;

(b) Most candidates showed in-depth knowledge in packaging;

(c) The majority of the candidates provided adequate responses to the

questions on fabric and leather decorations;

(d) A few candidates provided sufficient responses to terms such as

pairing, splitting, scraping, intertwining and coiling.

3. SUMMARY OF CANDIDATES’ WEAKNESSES

The Chief Examiner observed that some of the candidates:
(a) had difficulty in stating the differences between: signboard
and billboard, signpost and poster, and collage and mosaic;

(b) had a challenge in identifying the sources of weaving materials

such as straw, coir, rachis and raffia;

(c) could not describe how singeing is done on woven articles;

(d) had difficulty in matching question.

4. SUGGESTED REMEDIES

The Chief Examiner suggested that:

(a) teachers must endeavour to explain to the candidates, differences

between the following terms: signboard and billboard, signpost and
poster, collage and mosaic;

(b) the candidates should be encouraged to read their textbooks, notes

and make good use of the internet;

(c) teachers should make teaching and learning more practical than
theoretical;

(d) teachers are encouraged to adapt the use of audio-visuals, in teaching

functions of tools and processes.
141
5. DETAILED COMMENTS

Question 1

(a) State two factors that will determine the type of meal serve.
Most candidates scored the full marks allocated for the question. This may be due to
the fact that candidates were familiar with the topic. Hence, they supplied adequate
responses to the question.

The candidates’ correct responses were similar to the expected answers below:

• Type of meal/menu/number of courses.

• Number of people to be served / to be catered for.
• Space available for the service.
• Amount of time available
• Amount of money available.
• Equipment needed for serving/serving equipment.

(b) (i) State two symptoms of scurvy.

Most candidates scored the full marks allotted to the question. They supplied adequate
responses to the question. It should be noted that a few of the candidates had
challenges with spellings and that changed the meaning of the answers they provided.

The correct answers of the candidates were: slow healing of wounds, bleeding gums,
loss of appetite, body weakness, pain in the muscles and joints, etc.
(ii) State two characteristics of seam.

The candidates were able to supply sufficient answers to question 1(b) (ii). It was
observed that their answers were similar to the expected answers in the marking
scheme.

Below are some of the expected answers for the question:

• Seam must be well stitched and pressed/seam must be strong/durable.

• The thread used must match colour of the fabric.
• Have the same width of seam throughout.
• Seam must be flat and neat on both sides.
• Seam must be comfortable on the wearer e.g. under wears.
• Seams must be suitable for the type of fabric being used.

142
 On the other hand, some of the candidates provided incorrect answers. For instance
“seams can be visible or invisible” and “seam has no fabric damage”.
(c) (i) List two methods of drawing objects in pictorial view.
Majority of the candidates adequately provided the methods of drawing objects in
pictorial view. Their responses include: oblique, isometric and perspective. Virtually,
all the candidates scored the full marks allotted to question 1 (c) (ii).
A few had a challenge in spelling oblique and isometric.

(ii) State two analysis questions based on ergonomics.

The candidates supplied sufficient responses to the question. The correct answers that
run through their scripts were: who will use the artefact?, what is the age of the user?,
where will the artefact be used?, how will the artefact be used?, what is the weight of
the user?, what is the height of the user?, what is the size of the user?
Some of the wrong answers of the candidates were: “design and artefact, what
material will be needed for the artefact? Also few misconstrued ergonomics to be
economics.

(iii) Name one instrument used for drawing circles

Almost all the candidates were able to answer this question correctly. The very few
who couldn’t answer copied hence got the spellings wrong because they could not see
the handwriting of those they copied from.
Also, a few wrote divider, pencil, tool, etc instead of “a pair of compass”.

(d) (i) Define packaging

It was observed that the candidates answered this question well with the key word
“container” mostly used by all of them. Those who could not use the exact words as
captured in the expected answer, paraphrased with the import clearly spelt out.
It was further observed that in some of the candidates’ responses, they dwelt only on a
particular package like wrapper or box.
The expected answer was:
Packaging is the act of enclosing or protecting a product, using a container to aid its
distribution, identification, storage, promotion etc.
(ii) Benefits of packaging
The candidates’ responses were precise and correct; therefore they scored the full
marks allocated for the question. Some of the common responses were; preservation,
promotion, storage, branding, adding value.
Only few candidates gave answers which were ambiguous. For instance “to carry it”.
Exactly what was to be carried was not stated by the candidates. Also, a few did not
meet the demand of the question. They misconstrued benefits of packaging with
information on a package. Some candidates deviated, hence scored zero for question
1 (d) (ii).
143
 (iii) Important information on a good package
A lot of the candidates scored the full marks allocated to this question. The most
commonly answers provided were expiring and manufacturing dates. It should be
noted that most of their responses were similar to the expected answers, and it
include: content/ingredients, dosage, country of origin, bar code/batch number,
helpline, name of product, etc.

Question 2
(a) State the difference between each of the following pairs of products
(i) Signboard and billboard;
(ii) Signpost and poster;
(iii) Collage and mosaic.

Question 2 posed a challenged to the candidates. About 40% of the candidates failed
to meet the demand of the question. They were unable to state clearly the differences
in the paired products.

Even those who approached the questions using descriptions had a challenge. The
word advertisement kept running through their responses.

The expected answers include:

(i) Signboard and billboard

A signboard is small and captures information on a small scale, but a billboard
is large and reaches a wider range of people.
(ii) Signpost and poster
A sign post is used to show direction, while a poster gives information.
(iii) Collage and mosaic
A collage uses a wide variety of materials cut into any shape and size, but
mosaic uses limited materials cut into regular shapes.

(b) (i) Explain a sketch

(ii) Reasons for using a sketch when producing an item
(iii) Primary colours in art
Question 2 (bi – biii) were adequately answered by the candidates. Hence
most of them scored the full marks allotted to the questions. However, a few
had a challenge with question 2 (b) (ii). They did not understand the question,
therefore they deviated.

(c) (i) Reasons for studying Visual Communication under each of the following
headings
• Economic
• Social
• Cultural

144
 (ii) Major formats used in layout design
Question 2 (c) was poorly answered by some of the candidates, especially
question (i) bullet 1.

The expected answers were:

• Economic
Earn a living/income
Produce for sale/export
• Social
Information
Self-expression
Skill acquisition
• Cultural
Transmission of culture
Learn cultural values
Cultural heritage/identity
Question (c) (ii) was adequately answered by most of the candidates. A few had the
answers wrong. Instead of portrait and landscape, some of the candidates wrote
vertical layout/horizontal layout, right alignment/ left alignment.

(d) Techniques used in making pictures

This question was well tackled by the majority of the candidates; therefore they
scored the full marks allocated to the question. The correct responses include:
drawing, painting, collage, mosaic and photomontage.

However, a few of the candidates provided these wrong responses: shading and
stippling.

Question 3
(a) (i) Explanation of knotting;
(ii) Materials that are used for knotting.
(b) Methods for finishing each of the following articles.
(c) Sources of each of the following materials.
(d) Explanation of terms as used in weaving and stitching:
(i) Pairing
(ii) Splitting
(iii) Scraping
(iv) Intertwining
(v) Fabric/cloth
(vi) Coiling.

145
 Questions 3 (a – d) were based on weaving and stitching. Only few candidates
answered the questions. They provided sufficient responses to questions 3 (a) and (b).
The questions (c) and (d) posed a challenge to the candidates, hence their responses
were unsatisfactory. The marks scored for question 3 was below average.
The expected answers for questions (c) and (d) were as follows:

(c) Sources of each of the following materials

(i) Straw: stalks of cereals/grains, plants.
(ii) Coir: coconut
(iii) Rachis: palm tree
(iv) Raffia: palm tree, bamboo shoot
(v) Cane: reed, rattan
(d) Explanation of terms as used in weaving and stitching
(i) Pairing – Weaving with two matched weavers that twist over and
under the stakes.
(ii) Splitting – To divide into parts or portions for stakes and weavers of
the basket.
(iii) Scraping – Pulling split canes through a smooth device (scraper).
(iv) Intertwining – Crossing vertical threads with two separate yarns at
right angles to form a fabric/cloth.
(vi) Coiling – A forming technique which involves, rolling out into a long
rope that is used to form an object.
Question 4
(a) Articles that are made from each of the materials listed below:
(b) How singeing is done on woven articles.
(c) Matching each of the tools with its appropriate process: striking, holding,
piercing, cutting, bending.

(i) Shears………………………………………………….striking
(ii) Pliers…………………………………………………..holding
(iii) Mallet………………………………………………….piercing
(iv) Bodkin…………………………………………………cutting
(v) Bench vice……………………………………………..bending
(d) (i) Explanation of term, finishing
(ii) Importance of good finishing

Question 4 (a-d) was also based on weaving and stitching. Only few candidates
answered the questions and the turnout was very encouraging. With the exception of
question 4 (b), the rest were adequately tackled by the candidates. In most cases, the
candidates scored above the average marks allocated to the questions.

146
 It was observed from the candidates’ responses for question 4 (b) that they were not
familiar with the term singeing.
Below is the expected answer on how singeing is done on a woven fabric:

- Light a candle or make the flame ready.

- Pass the woven article or split cane over the flame to burn
off the tiny fibre/hairs on the article to make it smooth.

Question 5
(a) (i) Explanation of additive sculpture;
(ii) Materials used for additive sculpture.
(b) Methods for finishing each of the following articles.
(c) Sources of each of the following materials:
(i) Wax
(ii) Calabash
(iii) Plaster of Paris
(iv) Wood
(v) Leather
(d) Explanation of the following terms as used in modelling, casting and carving
(i) Drying
(ii) Firing
(iii) Burnishing
(iv) Sanding
(v) Piercing

This question is under modelling, casting and carving. It is the least attempted
question but then most of the candidates supplied ample responses to the questions.
About 60% of the candidates scored above the maximum marks allotted to the
questions.

The following were observed:

• Some of the candidates had difficulty in identifying the sources of materials such
as wax, calabash and Plaster of Paris.

The following are the expected answers for question 5 (c):

o Wax: Bees, candle, petroleum.

o Calabash: Ground tree/plant
o Plaster of Paris: Gypsum, calcium sulphate
o Wood: Tree
o Leather: Animal hide/skin

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 A few of the candidates could not provide sufficient responses to Question 5.

(d) Some of the wrong or partly correct answers were:

“Drying refers to the process of allowing materials like clay”

“Firing is a term commonly associated with ceramics and sculpture”
“Piercing is a technique used to moddle a carving to create a hole with
materials.”

The suggested answers include:

(i) Drying: Leaving an item/artefact in the shade to lose moisture or

harden gradually.

(ii) Firing: Applying heat (baking) to a green ware to make it more

permanent/stronger.

(iii) Burnishing: Rubbing the surface of a clay item to make it smooth and
shiny. It is a finishing process that makes a clay item smooth.

(iv) Sanding: A method of using a sand paper/abrasive to smoothen a

rough surface.

(v) Piercing: A method of using a pointed metal tool e.g. awl, to make a
hole in a material.

Question 6
(a) Articles that are made from each of the materials listed below:
(i) Wood,
(ii) Clay .
(b) How scooping is done in modelling clay objects.
(c) Match each of the following tools with its appropriate process:
(i) Shears … … striking
(ii) Pliers … … holding
(iii) Mallet … … piercing
(iv) Bodkin … … cutting
(v) Bench vice … … bending
(d) (i) Explanation of the term Finishing
(ii) Importance of good finishing

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 Question 6 (a-d) is under modelling, casting and carving. It attracted most of the
candidates and those who tackled it provided adequate responses to the question.
About 80% of the candidates scored above the full marks allotted to the question.

Unfortunately a few of the candidates had difficulty in answering question 6 (b).

Instead of describing how scooping is done in modelling clay objects, they just
defined it.

Below is the expected answer:

▪ Model a form, e.g. cocoa using plastic clay;
▪ When leatherhard cut form in two along the length;
▪ Remove all unwanted clay using scrapper to get defined walls.

Question 7
(a) (i) Explanation of the term bonding in construction and assemblage
(ii) Materials that are used to make bonds:
(b) Methods for finishing each of the following articles
(i) Mobile
(ii) Pencil case
(iii) Jewellery box
(c) Sources of each of the following materials
(i) Wood
(ii) Calabash
(iii) Shells
(iv) Leather
(v) Fabric

(d) Explanation of the following terms as used in construction and assemblage

(i) Drilling
(ii) Trimming
(iii) Stitching
(iv) Soldering
(iv) Mobile

This question is under construction and assemblage. It is the second least attempted
question and candidates’ responses were just unsatisfactory. It was realised from their
responses that candidates do not have mastery over construction and assemblage.
They scored below the marks allocated to Question 7.

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 The following were observed:

• Just a few of those who tackled the question were able to explain bonding. The
candidates were required to explain bonding as joining two materials by using
pressure, adhesive such as formica glue, starch, polyvinyl Acetate, or heat.
• Only few candidates answered question 7 (b), most of them were unable to
identify the finishing methods demanded by the question.

The suggested answers were:

(i) Mobile: Painting, spraying, polishing, lacquering,

(ii) Pencil case: Painting, spraying, marbling, etc.
(iii) Jewellery box: Painting, spraying, marbling.
• Question 7 (c) was well answered by the majority of the candidates. A few could not
identify the source of shells.

The required answers for sources of the materials demanded by the question include:

(i) Wood - trees/plants

(ii) Calabash - gourd tree/plant
(iii) Shells - shell fish, snails, oyster, eggs
(vi) Leather - hides/skins of animals
(v) Fabric - Animal, vegetable and synthetic yarns.

• In the (d) part of the question, the majority of the candidates who tackled were unable
to explain the terms demanded by the questions.

The expected answers are as follows:

(i) Drilling: A process of cutting holes in a solid material using a rotating cutting
tool (drill bit).
(ii) Trimming: Making something neater or more even by cutting a small amount
off.
(iii) Stitching:
• A process of continuously passing threaded needle through and out of a
piece of fabric for the purpose of sewing.
• The process of joining/attaching/assembling materials by using a threaded
needle.

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 (v) Soldering: A process of joining two metal surfaces together using a filler
metal called solder.

(vi) Mobile: A decorative structure that is suspended so as to turn freely in the air.

Question 8
(a) Articles that are made from each of the materials listed below
(i) Calabash
(ii) Empty cans
(b) How filing of the edge of a metal is done

(c) Match each of the following tools with its appropriate process
(i) Shears - striking
(ii) Pliers - holding
(iii) Mallet - piercing
(iv) Bodkin - cutting
(v) Bench vice - bending
(d) (i) Explanation of the term Finishing
(ii) Importance of good finishing
Question 8 (a-d) is under construction and assemblage. It attracted most of the
candidates and their responses were satisfactory. All sub-questions under question 8
were well answered except parts (b) and (c).

The following were observed as challenges with the two sub-questions:

With the (b) part, candidates had difficulty in describing how the edge of a metal can
be filled. A partial answer of a candidate was “ filing of edge of a metal is a technique
use to smooth and shape edges by selecting the filing direction to ensure stability and
safety”

The expected answers were:

o Select the right file;

o Mark the area to be filed;
o Move the file appropriately to remove unwanted metal.
In the (c) part, some of the candidate failed to match the tools and processes
appropriately. The required answers were:

(i) Sheers - -- --- cutting

(ii) Pliers - -- --- bending
(iii) Mallet - -- --- striking
(iv) Bodkin - -- --- piercing
(v) Bench vice -- --- holding

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Question 9
(a) (i) Explanation of Resist Dyeing;
(ii) Names of resist agents.
(b) Methods of finishing each of the following articles:
(i) Leather purse;
(ii) Leather belt;
(iii) Chair back.
(c) Sources of each of the following materials:
(i) Wax;
(ii) Leather;
(iii) Rocailes;
(iv) Fabric;
(v) Raffia.
(d) Explanation of the following terms as used in Fabric and Leather Decoration:
(i) Thonging;
(ii) Singeing;
(iii) Dyeing;
(iv) Embossing;
(v) Stamping.

Question 9 (a-d) is centered on fabric and leather decoration. It attracted most of the
candidates and their responses were impressive. All sub-questions under question 9 were
well answered except part (c) and (d).

The following were observed as challenges with the two sub-questions:

With part (c), some of the candidates were unable to identify the sources of raffia and
rocailes.

Below were the required answers for question 9 (c):

(i) Wax: bees, candle, petroleum, etc.

(ii) Leather: hides and skins of animals, etc.
(iii) Rocailes: glass, synthetic solutions, plastics, etc.
(iv) Fabric: natural (e.g. cotton, wool, etc.), synthetic (e.g. nylon, polyester), etc.
(v) Raffia: palm tree, bamboo, shoot, etc.

In part (d), some of the candidates had difficulty explaining terms such as thonging and
singeing.

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 The expected responses include:

(i) Thonging: It is a process of using a narrow strip of leather for lacing or stitching
in leatherwork.

(ii) Singeing: Using flame to burn off the tiny fibres/hairs on the surface of a woven
fabric.

(iii) Dyeing: It is the application of pigment (dye) on leather or textile material,

e.g. fabric, yarns, fibres

(iv) Embossing: It is the process of creating raised images/design on leather and

other materials.

(v) Stamping: It is the process of transferring a design from a design surface onto a
fabric or other surfaces.

Question 10
(a) Articles that are made from each of the materials listed below:
(i) Leather;
(ii) Fabric.
(b) Describe how thonging is done on natural leather.
(c) Match each of the following tools with its appropriate process:
(i) Shears - striking
(ii) Pliers - holding
(iii) Mallet - piercing
(iv) Bodkin - cutting
(v) Bench vice - bending
(d) (i) Explanation of the term Finishing
(ii) Importance of good finishing

Question 10 (a-d) is based on fabric and leather decoration. Most candidates

answered this question and their responses were encouraging. The majority of them
scored above the full marks allocated to the question.

It is only part (b) which touched on how thonging is done using natural leather that
posed a challenge to some of the candidates. Instead of describing how thonging is
done as demanded, they rather explained the process.

The expected answer to part (b) is as follows:

- Get a piece of leather.

- Draw guidelines on it.
- Cut a long thong.
- Make slit/round holes on the article.
- Use a bodkin to pass the thong through the slits according to the design.

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