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172 views396 pages

ME Reviewer 2k21

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MATERIALS

ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER

PREPARED BY:

ENGR. GEROME A. DEBLOIS, ME 2

ENGR. EMMANUEL JOHN L. JAYAGAN, ME 1
ENGR. LEO VINCENT L. CARUNGAY, ME 1

1
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)

Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the

DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)

2
PART C - EARTHWORKS

ITEM 100 – CLEARING AND GRUBBING

* This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation
and debris as designated in the contract.
Tests: None

ITEM 101 – REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS

* This item shall consist of the removal wholly or in part, and satisfactory disposal of all
buildings, fences, structures, old pavements abandoned pipelines, and any other
obstruction which are not designated or permitted to remain.
Tests: None

ITEM 102 – EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of
materials.
Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable

ITEM 103 – STRUCTURE EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of the necessary excavation for foundation of bridges, culverts,
under-drains, and other structures not otherwise provided in the specifications.
If the excavated materials are washed, the volume involved shall be reported so
that quality control requirements may be adjusted accordingly (submit Project
Engineer Certificate of Waste).
If the excavated materials are incorporated into the work:
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For every 150 mm in uncompacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density

ITEM 104 – EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of the construction of embankment.
Tests:
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof: At least
one group of three in – situ density test. The layer shall be placed
not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on the result
of compacted trials.

3
ITEM 105 – SUBGRADE PREPARATION
* This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying
structural layers.
Tests: Same as for Item 104

ITEM 106 – COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS

* This item shall be used in determining the density requirements of selected
embankments, sub-grade, bases and bituminous concrete.
Tests: Same as for Items104, 105, 200, 201, 202, 203, 204, 205, 206 and
300

ITEM 107 – OVERHAUL

* This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance.
Tests: None

PART D – SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE

ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base
course on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of
compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

4
For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of
compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compacting crushed gravel, crushed
stone or crush rock on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
Same as for Item 201
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – F, Fractured face

ITEM 203 – LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime and water in proper proportions.
Amount of lime to be added:
3 – 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
B. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 – CBR, California bearing Ratio Test
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness determination fro every 150 m or fraction
thereof
D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test

ITEM 204 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

5
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. CEMENT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
C. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
D. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 205 – ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate
and asphaltic material in proper proportions.
Amount of asphalt to be added:
4 – 7 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. EMULSIFIED ASPHALT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T of 200 drums or fraction
thereof
C. MIX
Same as for Item 203
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
Same as for Item 203

ITEM 206 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE

6
C. MIX
Same as for Item 204
D. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 207 – AGGREGATE STOCKPILE

* This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations.
Tests:
Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification

PART E – SURFACE COURSES

ITEM 300 – AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed
aggregate and other binder material.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result of
compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof
For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – F, Fractured face

ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 302 – BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete with bituminous material.

7
Quantity:
0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT

* This item shall consist of an application of bituminous material with or w/o an
application of aggregate on an existing bituminous surface course.
A. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
0.2 to 1.5 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
B. COVER AGGREGATES
Quantity:
5 to 14 kg/m2
Test:
For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test

ITEM 304 – BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT

* This item shall consist of either a single application of bituminous materials followed
by a single spreading of aggregate (single surface treatment) or two applications
bituminous material each followed.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
13.6 to 38 kg/m2 if using cut – back asphalt or asphalt cement
13.6 to 19.04 kg/m2 if using emulsified asphalt
Tests:
For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – F, Fractured Face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using cut – back asphalt or asphalt cement
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using emulsified asphalt

ITEM 305 – BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT

8
Quantity:
Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt
Course (crushed) 80 kg/m2
Key (crushed) 24 kg/m2
Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m2
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
7.2 to 11 L/m2
Test:
Same as for Item 301

ITEM 306 – BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous road mix surface course on a
prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 304
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt – 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
Same as for Item 301
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – Ext, Stability Test
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
E. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken

ITEM 307 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – GENERAL

9
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping
and Bulk specific gravity)
1 – F, Fractured face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof:
1 – G. Grading Test
1 – Ext, Stability Test
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken

ITEM 308 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – COLD LAID

10
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 309 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE

MIXTURE)
* This item shall consist of a bituminous stockpile maintenance mixture composed of
aggregate, mineral filler, hydrated lime and bituminous material mixed in a central
plant.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
4 to 10 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 310 – BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE – HOT LAID

* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous concrete surface course composed
of aggregate, mineral filler and bituminous material mixed in a central plant, constructed
and laid hot on prepared base.

A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:

11
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 311 – PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT

12
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test

D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. JOINT FILLER
1. Poured joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each
shipment
2. Pre – molded joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment
G. STEEL BARS
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
H. CONCRETE
Test:
Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples:
1 – Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2 of
pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day
Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3
I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT
Test:
Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis
Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when
two (2) lanes are poured concurrently

PART F – BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

13
ITEM 400 - PILING
* This item shall consist of piling, furnished, driven or placed, cut and spliced.
A. TIMBER PILES
Test:
1 – Inspection Report for each size and shipment of timber
B. CONCRETE PILES
a.) Concrete
Test: Same as for Item 405
b.) Reinforcing Steel
Test: Same as for Item 404
C. STRUCTURAL PILES
Tests:
1 – IR, inspection Report
1 – Q, Quality Test or Mill Test Certificate

ITEM 401 – RAILINGS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, fabricating or placing, for bridges and other
structures of the material of combination of materials.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class C
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404

ITEM 402 – TIMBER STRUCTURES

* This item shall consist of construction of timber structures to the dimensions, lines and
grades as shown on the plans.
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test or Manufacturer’s Certificate for each type of
material used
1 – IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of timber

ITEM 403 – METAL STRUCTURES

* This work shall consist of steel structures portions of composite structures, constructed
in reasonably close conformity with the lines, grades and dimension.
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test or Manufacturer’s Certificate for each type of
material used
1 – IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of metal

ITEM 404 – REINFORCING STEEL

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel
reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required.
A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE
Test:

14
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test

ITEM 405 – STRUCTURAL CONCRETE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all
structures except pavements.
A. CEMENT
Quantity: (40 kg/bag)
Class A 9 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 8 bags/m3 of concrete – 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa
Class C 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class D 11 bags/m3 of concrete – 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class Seal 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 –Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.50 0.54 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.45 0.52 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.53 0.59 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.44 0.47 m2/m3 of concrete

Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete

15
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FRO EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of
concrete or fraction thereof

ITEM 406 – PRE – STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES

* This item shall consist of pre-stressed concrete structures and the pre-stressed concrete
portions of composite structures.
A. CONCRETE
Tests:
Same as for Item 405, Class P
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. WIRE STRAND
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 20T or fraction thereof

ITEM 407 – CONCRETE STRUCTURES

16
Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411
Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality

ITEM 408 – STEEL BRIDGES

* This item shall consist of construction of steel structure conforming to the lines, grades,
dimension and designs.
Tests:
Same as for Item 403 and 411
Painting:
1 – Q, One 20 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
1 – Q, One 4 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof

ITEM 409 – WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL

* This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type.
Test:
Same as for 403 and Inspection Report

ITEM 410 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

* This item shall consist of structural timber of the specie size called on the plans either
treated or untreated as called for in the proposal.
Test:
1 – IR, Inspection report
1 – Q, Quality Test for preservatives

ITEM 411 – PAINT

* This item shall consist of furnishing and applying all paint materials including vehicles,
pigments, pastes, dryers, thinners, and mixed paints for steel and wooden structures.
Test:
1 – Q, One 20 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
1 – Q, One 4 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof

ITEM 412 – ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS

*This item shall consist of the requirement for elastomeric bearing pads whose main
function is to transfer loads or accommodate relative movement between a bridge
superstructure and its supporting structures

ITEM 413 – PRE – MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction.

PART G – DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES

17
ITEM 500 – PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS
* This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm
drains.
A. PIPES
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength,
Absorption and Dimension)
Alternative Requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER
Cement, fine aggregates and water:
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 501 – UNDERDRAINS

* This item shall consist of constructing under drains, using pipe and granular filter
materials, under drain pipe outlets, and blind drain using granular materials.
A. CONCRETE PIPE (NON – REINFORCED)
Test:
Quality Test for 0.5% of the number of pipes for each size but not
less than two (2) for Strength, Absorption and Dimension
Alternative requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. CLAY PIPE
Test:
Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 200 pieces of each size,
with a minimum number of two (2) specimens for Strength,
Absorption and Dimension

ITEM 502 – MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS

* This item shall consist of the construction, reconstruction or adjustment of manholes,
inlets, and catch basins.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. LIDS, CAST IRON FRAMES AND GRATING
Test:
Inspection Report

18
ITEM 503 – DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME
* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal
sizes of industry standard sized pits.

ITEM 504 – CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE

STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant
structures.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 505 – RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP

* This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the
case maybe, with or without filter backing.
Test:
Same as for Item 505
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:3)

ITEM 506 – STONE MASONRY

* This item shall consist of stone masonry of minor structures, in headwalls for culverts,
in retaining walls at the toes of slopes.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
2 bags/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:2)
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.17 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. STONE
Test:
Inspection Report
D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
ITEM 507 – RUBBLE CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete.

19
ITEM 508 – HAND – LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT
* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 509 – SHEET PILES

* This item shall consist of furnishing, driving cutting off of sheet pile.
A. TIMBER SHEET PILES
Test:
Inspection Report
B. CONCRETE SHEET PILES
Test:
Same as for Item 400
C. STEEL SHEET PILES
Test:
Same as for Item 403

ITEM 510 – CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION

* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing of concrete slope protection including
all necessary excavation, a bed course and reinforced concrete to the required thickness
and extent to protect slope against erosion.
A. BED COURSE
Test:
Same as for Item 200
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 511 – GABIONS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

PART H – MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES

ITEM 600 – CURB AND GUTTER

* This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of
concrete.
A. CONCRETE

20
Quantity:
0.078 m3/m (curb only)
0.092 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type A)
0.145 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type B)
0.074 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type C)
Test:
Same as for Item 405
B. JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 601 – SIDEWALK

* This item shall consist of construction of asphalt of Portland cement concrete sidewalk.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. PRE – MOLDED EXPANSION JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 602 – MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS

* This item shall consist of right-of-way monuments, maintenance marker posts,
kilometer posts and/ or guideposts.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
C. TIMBER
Test:
Same as for Item 410
D. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 603 – GUARDRAIL

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails.
A. STEEL POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 403
B. TIMBER POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 410
C. CONCRETE
Test:

21
Same as for Item 405
D. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
E. RAIL
Test:
Inspection Report
F. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 604 – FENCING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing of post and barb wire or chain
link fences.
A. BARB WIRE, CHAIN LINK FABRIC
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test
B. CONCRETE POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 405
C. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
Same as for Item 404

ITEM 605 – ROAD SIGN

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 606 – PAVEMENT MARKINGS

* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 607 – REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the
surface of the pavement.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 608 – TOPSOIL

* This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from
designated areas, haul and spread.
Test:
Inspection Report

22
ITEM 609 – SPRIGGING
* This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 610 – SODDING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and laying of live sod on the shoulders, slopes,
ditches, or other locations as designated, construction of sod ditch checks or similar
appurtenances.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 611 – TREE PLANTING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees
evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 612 – REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING

* This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means
with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.

PART I – MATERIALS DETAILS

ITEM 700 – HYDRATED CEMENT

Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 701 – CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED)

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof

ITEM 702 – BITUMINOUS MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310

ITEM 703 – AGGREGATES

Test:
Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities

ITEM 703A – MINERAL FILLER

* This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug
dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter.

23
Test:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 704 – MASONRY UNITS

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof

ITEM 705 – JOINT MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 311 and 500

ITEM 706 – CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES

A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 500
B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES
Test:
Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs

ITEM 707 – METAL PIPE

Test:
Same as for Item 400

ITEM 708 – CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE

* This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of
concrete admixtures.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

ITEM 709 – PAINTS

Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 710 – REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE

A. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
B.WIRE ROPE
Test:
Same as for Item 406

ITEM 711 – FENCE AND GUARDRAIL

A. FENCE
Test:
Same as for Item 604
B. GUARDRAIL

24
Test:
Same as for Item 603

ITEM 712 – STRUCTURAL METAL

Test:
Same as for Items 403 and 406

ITEM 713 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

Test:
Same as for Item 410

ITEM 714 – WATER

Test:
Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test, if source
is questionable

ITEM 715 – GEOTEXTILES

* This item covers geotextiles fabric for use in subsurface drainage, hydraulic filter,
erosion control, sediment control, pavement superstructures as a water proofing and
stress relieving membrane, and as permeable separator to prevent mixing of dissimilar
materials.

25
TABLES

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES

MATERIALS MNIMUM TESTING MINIMUM

26
REQUIREMENTS QUANTITY/VOLUME OF
MATERIALS FOR EACH
SAMPLE SUBMITTED
1. Cement 1 sample per 2000 bags 10 kg
1 sample per 40T or 200
2. Asphaltic material 5L
drums
3. Asphalt mix 1 sample per 130T 20 kg
4. Aggregates
a. coarse aggregate 1 sample per 1,500 m3 70 kg
b. fine aggregate 50 kg
5. Soil aggregates
a. Classification 20 kg
1 sample per 1,500 m3
b. Routinary tests 50 kg
c. MDR test and CBR 50 kg
6. Non – Reinforced Concrete 2 pipes min./0.5% of no.
2 pipes
Pipes of pipes
1 sample per 50 pipes or
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes 1 pipe (1 m length)
2% of # of pipes
2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken
8.Steel pipe (galvanized) 1 sample per 500 lengths
from both ends w/ thread
9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB)
3 units
a. strength 1 sample per 10,000 units
3 units
b. moisture content
10. Steel bar 1 sample per 10T 1m
11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 1 sample per 100 sheets 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm
12. Wire strand 1 sample per 20T 2m
13. Gabion 1m x 2m
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint – filler (pre – molded) 1 – 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m3 1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1
1 set (3 cylinders)
day pouring
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
500 ml
a. Chemical analysis
500 ml
b. Sediment load analysis
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T

COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE

27
Class of Minimum Maximum Consistency Designated Minimum
concrete cement water – range in size of compressive
content per cement slump coarse strength of
cu. m ratio aggregate 150mm x
300mm
square concrete
kg (bags) mm (inch) opening – cylinder @
kg/kg std. mm 28 days
MN/m2 (psi)
50 -100 (2 – 37. 5 – 4.75
A 360 (9) 0.53 20.7 (3000)
4) (1 ½ - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 50.0 – 4.75
B 320 (8.5) 0.58 16.5 (2400)
4) (2 - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 12. 5 – 4.75
C 380 (9.5) 0.55 20.7 (3000)
4) (½ - No. 4)
100 max ( 4 19.0 – 4.75
P 440 (11) 0.49 37. 7 (5000)
max) (3/4 - No. 4)
100 – 200 (4 25.0 – 4.75
Seal 380 (9.5) 0.58 20.7 (3000)
– 8) (1 - No. 4)

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

STRENGTH

Deficiency in strength of concrete Percent (%) of

pavement contract price
Percent (%) allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

THICKNESS

Deficiency in the Percent (%) of

28
average thickness contract price
per lot(mm) per lot
0–5 100
6 – 10 95
11 – 15 85
16 – 20 70
21 – 25 50
more than 25 removed and replaced (no payment)

COMMON LABORATORY TESTS

Test duration per sample

Kind of material Type of test
(min. # of days)
Cement Physical and chemical 8
Coarse aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Abrasion 1
Unit weight 1

Fine aggregate Grading 3

Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1

Soil aggregates mixture

(subbase, base and surfaces Grading 3
courses
Liquid limit 3
Plastic limit 3
Compaction 3
CBR 7
Abrasion 1

Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4

Concrete cylinder Compressive 1

Concrete beam Flexural 1

29
Concrete core Cutting of sample 1

LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS

ITEM ITEM ITEM 1TEM ITEM ITEM ITEM

104 105 200 201 202 203 300
Abrasion loss 50% 50% 45% 45%
max max max max
Plastic index 6% 12% 6% 4% to 4% to
6% max
max max max 10% 9%
Liquid limit 30% 35% 25% 25% 35%
max max max max max
Permitted
variation from
+15mm,
design ±20mm ±10mm
-5mm
THICKNESS
OF LAYER
Permitted
variation from +20mm, +10mm, -5mm, - +15mm,
design LEVEL -30mm -20mm 10mm -5mm
OF SURFACE
Permitted
surface
irregularity 30mm 20mm 5mm 5mm
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
±0.5% ±0.3% ±0.2% +0.2%
design cross
fall or camber
Permitted
variation from
design
±0.1% ±0.1% ±0.1% +0.1%
longitudinal
grade over
25m length
California 25% 80% 80% 80%
100%
Bearing Ratio min min min min
DIMENSION OF PILES

Ø (1m from the butt) Minimum

Length of pile
Minimum Maximum tip Ø
less than 12m 300mm 450mm 200mm

30
12m to 18m 320mm 450mm 180mm
more than 18m 350mm 500mm 150mm

REMOVAL OF FORMS

Minimum % of design
Scope of work Minimum time
strength
Centering under girders,
14 days 80%
beams, frames or arches
Floors slabs 14 days 70%
Walls 1 day 70%
Columns 2 days 70%
Sides of beams and all other
1 day 70%
vertical surfaces

SIEVE SIZES

NO. 200 0.075mm NO. 20 0.840mm

NO. 100 0.150mm NO. 16 1.180mm
NO. 60 0.300mm NO. 12 1.700mm
NO.50 0.250mm NO. 10 2.000mm
NO. 40 0.425mm NO. 8 2.360mm
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm

DETAILS OF WELDS

Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part

5mm 13mm
6mm 19mm
8mm 32mm
10mm 51mm
13mm 152mm
16mm 152mm and above
MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING

GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø

31
MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 30 100
NO. 50 95 – 100
NO. 200 70 - 100

HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 20 100
NO. 200 85 - 100

MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURE CONTENT

Sieve No. (passing) Weight

NO. 40 25 grams
NO. 10 50 grams
NO. 4 200 grams
½” 300 grams
1” 500 grams
2” 1000 grams

32
REVIEW
QUESTIONS

1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural

concrete?
Answer: concrete cylinder sample

2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?

Answer: Slump test

33
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment

4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample

5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts

6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?

Answer: Reflectorized paint

7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to
black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt

8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours

9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?

Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m

10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?

Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade

11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?

Answer: concrete beam sample

12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD

13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping
(Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests

14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the
materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials?
Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?
Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively

16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

Answer: 80% maximum

17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?

34
Answer: Blown Asphalt

18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?

Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?

Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Answer: by Field Density Test

21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?

Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit

22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?

Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis

23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3,
with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960
kg/m3?
Answer: 101.86%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane

25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams
and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Answer: 17.58%

26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey

27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the
oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight

28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C

29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight

30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural
moisture content?

35
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content
of an air – dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the
moisture content of the original sample from the field.

31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents?
Answer: 2000 bags

32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample

33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily
reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete
mix, what admixture should it be?
Answer: Superplasticizer

34. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Answer: as joint filler and water proofing

35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement

36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in
water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C

37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?

Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition

38. Paint is composed of _____

Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial
curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C

41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to
85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to
test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing
of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F
± 3°F

36
Answer: Twenty – four (24)

43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?

Answer: high degree of compressibility

44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what
sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)

45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density
Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop

46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how

many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer

47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g,
what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

Answer: Cut – back asphalt

49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the
surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2

50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47,
what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%

51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree

of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction

52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for
concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?

Answer: Contractor

54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing
aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified

37
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is
the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi

56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal
capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer,
except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity
may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength, segregation, and
uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete
takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from
pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each
direction from the affected location

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)

59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports

60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?

Answer: consistency

61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s
operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: four (4)

64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is
defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect

38
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of
the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters

67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.

Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture

68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel
paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails

69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a
15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and
for sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous
Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of
8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests

72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?

Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test

73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm
Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a
program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on
the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program

76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the
alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have
attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior
to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days
after the concrete was placed.

39
Answer: Fourteen (14)

78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample
has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in
other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on
the balance and on file quality test of the construction materials being used in the
project?
Answer: Status of Test

79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without
breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit

80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.

Answer: Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base
and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what
is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm

82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing
the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm

83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement =
40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15
liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse
aggregates; 130 liters water

84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear
computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH
specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum

85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?

Answer: week

86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction
materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose
measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement

40
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption

89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the
quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who
submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common
name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card

90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers
should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)

91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days
of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested
just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a
quality test of a cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month

92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many
days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)

93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that
its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test

94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are
you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result

95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt
mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test

96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool

97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?

Answer: glass plate

98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?

Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval

99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control
measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.

41
Answer: Berm

100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation
condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required
for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation,
compaction, relative density

101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be
laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B

103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A

104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C

105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D

106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.

Answer: 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

Answer: 1 inch

108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.

Answer: 35%

109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.

Answer: 4% to 9%

110. Range of sand size.

Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio

112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids

42
Answer: moisture content

113. Significance of grading test are, except

Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity,
measures the potential cohesion of soil

114. Significance of plasticity index are, except

Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a
binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil

115. Properties of concrete are, except

Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking

116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the
economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base

117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.

Answer: Liquidity Index

118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except

Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index

119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders,
beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)

120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all
other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to
ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap

125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.

Answer: 150 mm

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126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal

127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced

substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams,
girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls,
and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A

128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding
and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B

129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles,
cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C

130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

Answer: 1.50 m

132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings

Answer: Item 612

133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm

134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %

135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____

Answer: plain bars

136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a
flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa

137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate
sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers

138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%

44
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm

140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40

141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3

142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete

specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%

143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption
of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint

144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge
between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm

145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final
rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the
rate of application?
Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2

146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)

147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except

Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density

148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except

Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion
of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits

149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4

150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material

Answer: Group Index

45
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width
per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required.
Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets

152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 30%

153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 6%

154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit
exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively

155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is

Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 90

157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 89

158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer

Answer: 95%

159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment

Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long

160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of
each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)

161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200

Answer: 12%

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200

Answer: 35%

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200

Answer: 2”

164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in
accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96

46
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Answer: 50%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200

Answer: 25%

167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base

course
Answer: 100%

169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be

made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191

170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non –
available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) blended
with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)

171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch

172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202

Answer: 45%

173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of
Item 202
Answer: 50%

174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202

Answer: 80%

175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A

Answer: 1 ½ inch

176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A

Answer: 2”

177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B

Answer: 1 inch

47
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared
subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

179. The required plasticity index for Item 203

Answer: 4% to 10%

180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%

181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”

182. Item number for water?

Answer: Item 714

183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the
soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%

184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203

Answer: 100%

185. Required percent compaction for Item 203

Answer: 100%

186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling

Answer: Pneumatic tire roller

187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and
passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point

189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from

the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness
Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of
existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

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191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: MC – 3000

192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the
casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting

193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints

of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in
the design of an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing
pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer

194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other
metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator

195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete
and asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as soon
as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge

196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material
which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road
construction and in the measurement of moisture content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle

wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate
the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening
measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger

198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials
such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive portable
instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses
includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – cast),also
to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester

199. Soil stabilizing agent

Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – fro sandy soil

200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT

49
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT

202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together
are called _____
Answer: tie bars

204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight

edge. The concrete in the area represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted
exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.

205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____

Answer: Once a year

206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?

Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”

208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the
Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs

209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load
resistance that a specimen will develop at _____
Answer: 60°

210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a
heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows

211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100

212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of
pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested
by the midpoint method.

50
Answer: 4.50 MPa

214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____

Answer: Steel forms of an approved section

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours

216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement

Answer: 24 hours

217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches

218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract

price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more

219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured
concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m

221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?

Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm

222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from
each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set

223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength

224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)

225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.

Answer: 4 to 6 rpm

226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?

Answer: 10 to 20 cm

227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course
preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.

51
Answer: Prime Coat

228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?

Answer: Item 304

229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for
Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%

230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the
application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat

231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C

232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø

233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C

234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.

Answer: 5 kph

235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.

Answer: faulting

236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of
at least ______
Answer: 100 mm

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %

238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones
for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)

239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or
cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the
construction of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat

240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2

52
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2

242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from
the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the
surface?
Answer: 6 mm

243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?

Answer: 1.40 MPa

244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by
AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum

245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7

246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: ±4

247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: ±2

248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability

249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water,
temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability

250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage
of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance

251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to
gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility

252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.

Answer: 92% to 95%

253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the
cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test

53
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used
grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100

255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is

performed.
Answer: stability

256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease

257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer

258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:

Answer: highly organic soils

259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course
construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment
used and the construction method.

260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content

261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:

Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit

262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____

Answer: determine the trend of its strength development

263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge
bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack

264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous
without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)

265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is
already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use

266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a
particular purpose.

54
Answer: Stabilization

267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test
is taken. What will be this test?
Answer: referee test

268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it

allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is
the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days

269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky

270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____

Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel

271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____

Answer: weak subgrade

272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____

Answer: very stable

273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal

274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?

Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil

275. What is the significance of field density test?

Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test
in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.

276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the
result. True or false?
Answer: true

277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?

Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun

278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what
alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C

279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4

55
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch

280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180
uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.

281. What is particle size analysis?

Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve,
hydrometer or a combined analysis

282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with
chemicals?
Answer: distilled water

283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the
base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm

284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps

285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)

286. What is specific gravity?

Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or
defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated
temperature)

287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?

Answer: 335 sq. m

288. What Item of work is embankment?

Answer: Item 104

289. What kind of material for Item 200?

Answer: Aggregate sub – base course

290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item
104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more
than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%

56
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density
relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content
(OMC)

293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and
retained No. 200 sieve

294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?

Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)

295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?

Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans,
calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or
digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name)

296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption
be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours

297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the
molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has
reached a surface dry condition

298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit
weight: Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit
weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request

299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion
test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455
grams

300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate,
grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams

301. What is significance of abrasion test?

Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an
indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also

57
determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or
rolling.

302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)

303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days

304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third
point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2

305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center
point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2

306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are
required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)

308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum

309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum

310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?

Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its
elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.

311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?

Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB

312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?

Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)

58
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt

314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours

315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?

Answer: cut – back asphalt

316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many
pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces

317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?

Answer: thickness and density of pavement

318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities,
weather, etc. are recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook

319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer

320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is
called _____
Answer: segregation

321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m
on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses
with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm,
the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried
out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m

322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of
loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher

323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples

324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade
preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most

59
effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil
prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles

325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21”
beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer

326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce

excessive _______ or _______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture

327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC

328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets

329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall
be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its
workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how many
minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not
exceeded.

331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous
mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude
oil.

332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?

Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt

333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?

Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:

60
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and
in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have
positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron.

335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?

Answer: asphalt cement

336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?

Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt

337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?

Answer: climatic condition

338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit
the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks

339. Who will approve the job – mix formula?

Answer: DPWH PE and ME

340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:

Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC

342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable

343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain
the required density?
Answer: trial section

344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great
significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature

345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?

Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel
towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.

61
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
Answer: degree of compaction

347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density

348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?

Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature

349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?

Answer: by the use of core drill or saw

350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm

351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?

Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm

352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds

353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added
to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks
and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators

354. How is concrete consolidated?

Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is
used?
Answer: longitudinal construction joint

356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding
problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars

357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm

358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____

Answer: not less than 6 mm

359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of
sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted

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360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
Answer: asphalt or other materials

361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position
parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel

362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be
coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen

363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____

Answer: brooming

364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the
pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm

365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for
a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:

Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the
surface

367. When is the right time to seal the joints?

Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine
sand

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____

Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit,
accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME

63
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction
materials for use in the project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.

Answer: asphaltene

373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200

374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____

Answer: pothole patching

375. VMA means

Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen

Answer: 124ºC

377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 163ºC

378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC

379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from

Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC

380. The maximum absorption content of CHB

Answer: 240 kg/m3

381. The maximum moisture content of CHB

Answer: 45%

382. SPT means

Answer: Standard Penetration Test

383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample

Answer: Shelby tube

384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

Answer: wax

385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample

Answer: split spoon sampler

64
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can
be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test

387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring

Answer: diamond bit

388. CQCA means

Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)

389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from

Answer: 1.01 – 1.04

390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?

Answer: cationic

391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted
volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of
200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is

Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet
steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent

Answer: clay content

396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air – dried condition

397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place

Answer: Sand cone method

398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing

Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200

65
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
Answer:
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials

400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel
spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients
including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and
finishing when this method is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until
the asphaltic material has set.
Answer: 40 kph

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation

Answer: 90 minutes

405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be
followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed
concrete.

406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your
firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring

407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or
doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt

408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)

66
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve

410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____

Answer: abrasion loss

411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix
that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters

412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____

Answer: 2.75

413. The standard packaging weight of cement

Answer: 40 kg/bag

414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial

setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound

415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces
which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess
improved visibility at night.
Answer: reflectorized paint

416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads

417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.

Answer: Latex

418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test

419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test

420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made
with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel

421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average

conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a
material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a
group index of zero indicates

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Answer: good subgrade material

422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the
work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips

423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina
position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø

424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 2.15

425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 102.5ºC

426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 10 minutes

427. The rate of application of traffic paint.

Answer: 0.33 lit/m2

428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.

Answer: 15 – 30 minutes

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.

Answer: 10 kg

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous
paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper

431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of
compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using
saturated surface dry specimens.

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.

Answer: gasoline

433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on

Answer: mass of dry aggregates

434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from
bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates

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435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.

Answer: Softening point

438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%

439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.

Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F

440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

Answer: yellowish brown

441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)

442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)

443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at

Answer: approximately quarter points

444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes

Answer: bleeding

445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?

Answer: not greater than 4

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate

particle.
Answer: raveling

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an

alligator’s skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking

448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the
kind and number of test of each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements

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449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %

450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %

451. Additives used in concrete mixing.

Answer: admixtures

452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by

saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test

453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on

Answer: Absolute Design Method

454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes

455. The final setting time of Portland cement

Answer: 10 hours

456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand

457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air
permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

458. A mixture of cement and water is

Answer: cement paste

459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement
in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle

460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is

Answer: 19.3 MPa

461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the
autoclave?
Answer: crumbled

462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete

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Answer: first seven (7) days

463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every
precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the materials
which they represent.
Answer: sampling

464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing
aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples

465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory

tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling

467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited
laboratory.
Answer: government

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any
drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes
that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as
practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples

469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder

470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength
of concrete.
Answer: accelerator

471. The best enemy of construction.

Answer: water

472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:

Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials
such as grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the
engineer

71
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate
base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%

474. The rate of application of special curing agent

Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m

475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding

476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be
performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test

477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm

478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of
timber.
Answer: 10 days

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm

480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity
hammer.
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)

481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and
gradation.
Answer: Compaction

482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering
materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines

483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the
expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3” to 5”

484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is
____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”

72
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 –
hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have
previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi

487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form
moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering the setting or the
rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: air entraining admixtures

488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed
task to make – up for the past or future loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control

489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.

` Answer: potholes

490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the
pavement.
Answer: corrugation

491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.

Answer: shoving

492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.

Answer: rutting

492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?

Answer: base or subbase course

493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by
pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and
subgrade.
Answer: base course

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.

Answer: 40 times bar Ø

496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except
pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.

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Answer: Structural concrete

497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.

Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Answer: transom

499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler
and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m

500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?

Answer: 50mm

501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.

Answer: 1.50m length

502. The initial diameter of bore hole.

Answer: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter?

Answer: 67mm

504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD
traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)

505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300
VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)

506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy
or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)

507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project

Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks)

508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width

509. For ports and harbors projects:

74
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers
& wharves)

510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):

Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior
(9m below lowest foundation)

511. For buildings less than 930 m2

Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners

512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x
140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector

513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

Answer: shrinkage cracking

514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?

Answer: consistency

515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.

Answer: ± 4mm

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite
infestation.
Answer: Cordoning

517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.

Answer: Drenching

518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 22%

519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 14%

520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.

Answer: 244 kg/m2

521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

Answer: 1,033.50 KPa

522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each
stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m

75
523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground
line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters

524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other
bodies of water.
Answer: dredging

525. The slope of batter piles

Answer: 1:6

526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____

Answer: 0.12%

527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design

Answer: 20%

528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been
established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation

529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.

Answer: footing

530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test

531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the
ground.
Answer: 700mm

532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.

Answer: 100mm

533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a

column.
Answer: Spread footing

534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured
state.
Answer: ± 3%

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade
indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs
additional compaction

76
536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor

538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are
different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you do?
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification

539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix

540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be

Answer: volume

541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff
statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum
density at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at
OMC
d. none of the above

542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of
10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and
compact

543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm

544. Geosynthetics may be used for

Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control

545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?

Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can

77
d. extruder

546. Steel bars are considered undersize if

Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the
manufactured size

547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending

548. Concrete curing refers to

Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic

550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of
water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in
compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3

553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and
which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand

554. What is ASTM?

Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials

555. What is AASHTO?

Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest methods
as prescribed under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO

557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have
laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large

78
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness

559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?

Answer: colloids

560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the
specimen
Answer: 25mm

561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or

sand and containing silt – clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates

562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average

dimension between 75mm – 305mm
Answer: boulders

563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them
denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning

564. The road near or abutting a bridge.

Answer: Approach

565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done

Answer: before the construction work

566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity

Answer: sand and gravel

567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum

interval of
Answer: 20 meters

568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method

569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a
lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity

570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves

79
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than
225mm depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of the
embankment

571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately
after final placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks

572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?

Answer: Liquid membrane forming

573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?

Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date

574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?

Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the
specified strength

575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit
or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade

576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than
300 mm in depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and
extending to the full width of the embankment

577. What is Rock Embankment Method?

Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of
the fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill ≥ 1.2 m
in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be
deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly
compacted

579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration
move also be considered)

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?

Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment
corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full
width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the
embankment has reached stability or the required settlement

80
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to
accelerate consideration

582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface
sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?

Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.

584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like
reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding

585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion
of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling

586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water

589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil

590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?

Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi

591. What is quality?

Answer: It the degree of excellence

592. What is control?

Answer: Is to regulate

593. What is quality control?

Answer: It is conformance to requirements

81
594. What is assurance?
Answer: it the degree of certainty

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?

Answer: Inspection and Testing

596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet

597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to
produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization

598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of
soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction process by
slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil
Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt

599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?

Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular
material becomes unstable if it has dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt
cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from
convenience in road – mixing or priming

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to

Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement
mortar

602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content

603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?

Answer: Type I

604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II

605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

Answer: Type III

606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?

Answer: Type IV

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607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S

609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?

Answer: Type 1P

610. Type I is for general use such as

Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water
pipes

611. Type III cement is used for

Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength

612. Type IV is used for

Answer: massive structures such as dams

613. Type V cement is used for

Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was

Answer: Joseph Aspdin

615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing

Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica

616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is

Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch
of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker

617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called

Answer: volcanic earth

618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of

Answer: C3S and C2S

619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by

Answer: C3A and C4AF

620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed

Answer: hydration

621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____
is added to Portland cement

83
Answer: water

622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means

Answer: the setting time is larger

623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care
of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity

624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from

Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel

625. The water required for concrete mix should be

Answer: fresh water

626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because
it contains
Answer: chloride

627. The entrapped air in concrete is

Answer: accidental and unwanted

628. The entrained air in concrete is

Answer: deliberate and desirable

629. We use aggregate in concrete as

Answer: filler materials in concrete

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:

Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy

631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate

632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but
making it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength

633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the
average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the specified
strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c

84
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic
impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test

635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:

Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes
from a discarded or used bag

636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates

Answer: fineness modulus

637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates

Answer: free water

638. What do you mean by SSD?

Answer: Saturated Surface Dry

639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency

640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is

Answer: objectionable

641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as

Answer: Water – reducing admixture

642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Answer: five (5)

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to
failure
Answer: bearing capacity

644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay

Answer: 2”

645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance
should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g

646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed
from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator

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647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay
constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours

648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has
been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour

649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe
temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A
25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about
Answer: 2 hours

650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above

Answer: Boring Test

651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil

Answer: calcium tri – chloride

652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is

Answer: low

653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement

Answer: hot – mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

Answer: 1.5 m

655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete

Answer: 0.50 – 0.60

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect

Answer: Portland cement

657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working

load so that tension under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing

658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel
materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate

659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause
brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous

86
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)

662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?

Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)

663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?

Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)

664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced

665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other
values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength

666. What is the mixing time of concrete?

Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds

667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be
disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours

668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before
batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for
draining

669. When will truck mixing start?

Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present

670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1

hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size
of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less

87
88
MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES

MATERIALS MINIMUM QUANTITY/VOL.

1. Cement……………………………………………………………............. 10 kg
2. Asphaltic Materials……………………………………………............ 5 L
3. Asphalt Mix………………………………………………………............. 20 kg
4. Aggregates
a. Coarse Aggregates……………………………………………….... 70 kg
b. Fine Aggregates……………………………………………………... 50 kg
5. Soil Aggregates
a. Classification…………………………………………….……………..20 kg
b. Routinary tests……………………………………………………….. 50 kg
c. Moisture Density Relation and CBR……………………….. 50 kg
6. Non-Reinforced Concrete Pipe…………………………. ………… 2 pipes
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipe…………………………………. …………. 1 pipe
8. Steel Pipe (Galvanized)…………………………………………………. 2 pcs -100mm long
9. Concrete Hollow Blocks
a. Complete test…………………………………………….. …………. 6 units
b. Stength………………………………………………………..………… 3 units
c. Moisture Contents…..……………………………………………. 3 units
10. Steel Bar……………………………………………………………………….. 1 meter
11. Steel Sheet (Galvanized)…………………………………… …………. 1 sheet
12. Wire Strand (Strap)……………………………………………..……….. 2 meters
13. Gabions………………………………………………………………………… 1m x 2m
14. Paints……………………………………………………………………………. 1 (4L can)
1 (20L can)
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

Ans:
concrete cylinder sample

2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?

Ans:
Slump test

3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?

Ans:
1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment

4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?

Ans:
1 set consist of 3-pcs sample

5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Ans:
3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets

6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?

Ans:
Reflectorized Paint

7. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?

Ans:
24 hours

8. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?

Ans:
0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m

9. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?

Ans:
0 to 30 penetration grade

10. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?

Ans:
Concrete beam sample

11. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?

Ans:
CBR, abrasion, GPCD

12. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?

Ans:
3 grading tests

13. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be
used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials?

Ans:
blend Item 200 with coarser materials

14. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?

Ans:

maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively

15. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

Ans:
80% maximum

16. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black
cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?

Ans:
asphalt

17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?

Ans:
Blown Asphalt

18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?

Ans:
Portland cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?

Ans:
Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?

Ans:
by Field Density Test

21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?

Ans:
Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit

22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?

Ans:
Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis

23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an
actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960 kg/m3?

Ans:
101.23%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?

Ans:
5 holes/km/lane

25. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?

Ans:
the soil is clayey

26. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?

Ans:
2000 bags

27. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?

Ans:
2 pcs – 1 m sample
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?

Ans:
110 ± 5oC

29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?

Ans:
because it can affect its weight

30. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Ans:
as joint filler and water proofing

31. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture
content?

Ans:
hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample
while natural moisture content is the moisture content of the original sample from the
field.

32. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is
already oven – dried?

Ans:
if the sample reaches its constant weight

33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced
concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete mix, what admixture
should it be?

Ans:
Superplasticizer

34. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an
oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?

Ans:
17.58%

35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Ans:
Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?

Ans:
4 days @ 50 oC

37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?

Ans:
Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition

38. Paint is composed of _____

Ans:
35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?

Ans:
16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?

Ans:
23o C ± 1.7o C

41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are
permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior to test if free moisture
is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times.

Ans:
three (3)

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____
hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F

Ans:
Twenty-four (24)

43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?

Ans:
high degree of compressibility

44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?
Ans:
No. 40 (0.425 mm)

45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation
Test (MDR) is T – 180?

Ans:
4.54 kg with 457 mm drop

46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many
blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?

Ans:
60 blows/layer

47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the
% asphalt by weight of mix?

Ans:
5.10%

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

Ans:
Cut-back asphalt

49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the
rate of approximately _____?

Ans:
0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2

50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the
acceptable range of asphalt content?

Ans:
4.7% to 5.5%

51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of

compaction for this kind of soil?

Ans:
95% degree of compaction

52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/ cu.m, how about for concrete
Class “B”?
Ans:
8 bags/ cu.m

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?

Ans:
Contractor

54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?

Ans:
Once the source is identified

55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the
minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?

Ans:
3000 psi

56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in
cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer, except that an overload
up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided
concrete test data for strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and
provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.

Ans:
Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement
is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?

Ans:
at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from
the affected location

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?

Ans:
hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)

59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?

Ans:
Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?

Ans:
consistency

61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?

Ans:
consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?

Ans:
at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?

Ans:
four (4)

64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?

Ans:
nine (9)

65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?

Ans:
may be the sampling is incorrect

66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the
following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?

Ans:
20 liters

67. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to
be used in the project?

Ans:
four (4) pails

68. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.

Ans:
overheating during the process of manufacture
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm
compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for sieve
analysis?

Ans:
2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat
is to be used in the project?

Ans:
Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250
cu.m?

Ans:
Six (6) compaction tests

72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?

Ans:
Summary of field tests and status of test

73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?

Ans:
1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?

Ans:
1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on
how many samples for each item of work should be tested based on the minimum testing
requirements. What program or report is this?

Ans:
Quality Control Program

76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative
way of reducing sample for testing size?

Ans:
apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample

77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained
the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not conducted prior to the specified
age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was
placed.

Ans:
Fourteen (14)

78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been
submitted and tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in other words the ME
must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality
test of the construction materials being used in the project?

Ans:
Status of Test

79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or
crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).

Ans:
Plastic Limit

80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.

Ans:
Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and
tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. what is the slump
of the concrete?

Ans:
127 mm

82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass
percent of wear?

Ans:
30 – 33 rpm

83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs,
fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your
actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Ans:
360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130
liters water

84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is
equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH specs?

Ans:
Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum

85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?

Ans:
week

86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be
tested:

Ans:
before it is incorporated into work

87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose
measurement?

Ans:
200 mm loose measurement

88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?

Ans:
3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption

89. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and
also to improve the stability of the slope.

Answer:
Berm

90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a
40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?

Ans:
Three (3)

91. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?

Answer:
not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval

92. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity
represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who submitted it, the date
sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as
Materials Engineer?

Ans:
Sample Card

93. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a
quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials can be tested just for a day
or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement
sample?

Ans:
One (1) month

94. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before
testing?

Ans:
Four (4)

95. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result
be used in field density test?

Ans:
Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test

96. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going
to pursue your schedule? Why?

Ans:
No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result

97. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be
done by what test?

Ans:
Extraction Test

98. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a
soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required for soil was taken,
except
Ans:
specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation,
compaction, relative density

99. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least
_____ above the top of the conduit.

Ans:
1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

100. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50%
of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.

Ans:
Class B
MATERILAS REVIEWER NOTES

1. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement 9. The contractor shall submit in writing a job-mix
shall be accurate within ____ % throughout the formula for the mixture supported by laboratory test
range of use. Scales shall be inspected and sealed as data along with samples of resources of components
often as the Engineer may deem necessary to assure and viscosity – temperature relationships to the
their continued accuracy. Engineer for testing and approval at least ____.
a) 1.0 % c) 0.5 % a) two weeks c) one week
b) 1.5 % d) 2.0 % b) three weeks d) four weeks

2. When cement is placed in contact with the 10. The concrete samples should be stored in a moist
aggregate, batches may be rejected unless mixed conditioned temperature within the range of ____ until
within _____ hours of such contact. the time of test.
a) 1.5 hours c) 0.5 hours a)18* C to 24* C c) 14* C to 24* C
b) 2.0 hours d) 2.5 hours b) 15* C to 18* C d) 18* C to 28* C

3.When mixed at the site or in a central mixing plant,

the mixing time shall not be less than ______ nor more 11. This is used in soil stabilized road surface due to
than ____ unless mixer performance test prove its high ____ property, that is, it absorb and retain
adequate mixing of concrete in a shorter time period. water.
a) 30 seconds nor more than 90 seconds a) Potassium Chloride c) Magnesium Chloride
b) 50 seconds nor more than 90 seconds b) Calcium Chloride d) Sodium Chloride
c) 60 seconds nor more than 120 seconds
d) 90 seconds nor more than 120 seconds 12. The mass % wear of soil aggregate used in
cement/lime proportions should not be more than ____
4. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water .1 -
should be in the drum by the end of the first ____ a) 40 % c) 45 %
seconds of the mixing period. b) 50 % d) 55 %
a) 45 seconds c) 15 seconds
b) 30 seconds d) 20 seconds 13. The uniform rate at which the movable head of the
CBR machine travel is _____ .
5. Concrete not place within ____ minutes from the a) 0.05 in/ min c) 0.08 in /min
time the ingredients were charged into the mixing b) 0.10 in /min d) 0.09 in /min
drum shall be used.
a) 120 minutes c) 60 minutes 14. Cast in place concrete shall not be post –
b) 150 minutes d) 90 minutes tensioned until at least ____ and until the compressive
strength has reached the strength specified.
6.When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, a) 7 days c) 14 days
additional water may beaded to the batch and b) 10 days d) 20 days
additional mixing performed to increase the slump to
meet the specified requirement if permitted by the 15. The penetration test is an indication of the ____ of
Engineer, provided all these operation are performed asphalt.
within ____ after the initial mixing operation and the a) Consistency c) Hardness
water and cement ratio is not exceeded. b) Softness d) Flash Point
a) 30 minutes c) 45 minutes
b) 15 minutes d) 60 minutes 16. Specification requires one (1) Quality test for
every ____ of asphalt
7.A sample from a bituminous mix weighs 1000 grams. a) 20 tons c) 50 tons
At extraction, it was found out that the dry aggregate b) 200 tons d) 40 tons
weighed 950grams. What is the % of asphalt by weight
of mix? 17. The ____ is the most commonly used method in
a) 5.2 % c) 5.4 % the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete
b) 5.0 % d) 4.8% mixes.
a) Job mix formula c) Marshall Stability
8. The minimum penetration of the preservative with b) Design mix d) Extraction
the surface of the timber piles shall be ____
a) 150 mm c) 250 mm
b)20 mm d) 100 mm
18. Vibration shall operate a frequency of 8,300 to 27.In which DPWH item is emulsified asphalt not
9,600 impulses per minute under load at a maximum suitable?
spacing of ____ cm. a) Item 301 c) Item 304
a) 30 cm c) 60 cm b) Item302 d) Item 308
b) 50 cm d) 40 cm
28.Unconfined compressive strength test is usually
19. The specific gravity of Sodium Sulfate used in performed on______.
soundness test for aggregate should be within the a) Sandy soils c)Organic soils
range of ____. b) Silty soils d) Clayey soils
a)1.151 to 1.174 c) 1.051 to 1.154
b) 1.250 to 1.178 d) 1.058 to 1.184 29. Consolidation test is usually performed on ____
samples
20. The specific gravity magnesium sulfate solution a) Disturbed c) Consolidated
used in soundness test for aggregate should be within b) Undisturbed d) both a & b
the range of ____ .
a) 1.280 to 1.408 c) 1.295 to 1.308 30. A concrete core sample having a maximum height
b) 1.180 to 1.308 d) 1.195 to 1.318 of less than_____ of its diameter before capping or
height less than its diameter after capping shall not be
21. Aggregate accounts for 92 – 95 % of the weight of tested.
the bituminous mixture asphalt accounts for 5 – 8 % of a) 93 % c) 95 %
the weight of the mix. The exact percentage to be b) 94 % d) 96 %
used is determined by the _____
a) Trial mix c) Job mix 31. The cohesion and internal friction of soil is tested
b) Design mix d) Job order by
a) Tri axial shear test c) Bearing test
22. _____ is an indication that the asphalt mix is b) Direct shear test d) All of the above
overheated.
a) Blue smoke c) Rising steam 32. In concrete acceptance, core will be considered
b) Stiff appearance d) Mix slumps in truck adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal
to what?
23. In checking the temperature of the mix, a) 80% of specified strength & if no single core is less
the thermometer should be inserted into the mix at than 75% of specified strength
least ____. b) 90% of specified strength & if no single core is lesst
a) 2 inches c) 4 inches b) 6 inches d) 6.0 mm han 80% of specified strength
c) 85% of specified strength& if no single core
24. _____ is applied on existing bit, or cement is less than 75% of specified strength
concrete surface with bituminous materials.
a) Bituminous Prime Coat c) Bituminous Seal Coat 33. Before the cement is to be used, sampling must be
b) Bituminous Tack Coat d) Bituminous Surface done at least _____ before use.
Treatment a) one week c) two weeks
b) 14 days d) 12 days
25. The solution used in the soundness test of
aggregate shall be cooled to a temperature of 21 +or – 34. Asphalt cement shall not be used while it is
1* C and maintain at that foaming nor shall be heated at ____ at anytime after
temperature for at least _____. delivery.
a) 24 hours c) 48 hours a) 107* c) 120*
b) 36 hours d)18 hours b) 159*

26.Proper compaction of the fill materials is very 35. Moisture content of aggregate in bit mix shall not
important, as it will ______. exceed ____ of the time it is introduce into the mixing
a) Increase the shear strength unit.
b) Decrease permeability a) 1.5 mass % c) 1 mass %
c) Minimize compressibility b) 2.0 mass %
d) All of the above
36. Batching tolerance for Sand and Aggregate is 45. Minimum thickness of bedding materials
____. beneath the pipe is _____.
a) 1 % c) 3 % a) 100 mm c) 200 mm
b) 2 % b) 150 mm

37. Between stage of curing, concrete shall not be 46.Diameter Tolerance of gabion dimension is
exposed for more than how many hours? _________________.
a) 24 hours c)½ hour a) +/- .1mm c) +/-.3mm
b) 3 hours d) 72 hours b) +/- .2mm d) +/- .4mm

38. As a Materials Engineer, what will you do with 47. Minimum thickness of galvanized wire mesh is
major honeycombed area that is considered as ____________.
defective work? a) 2.0 mm c) 2.7 mm
a) Plaster b)2.2 mm d) 3.4 mm
b) Payment of the concrete will be made an
adjustment 48. Minimum density of gabions is ___________.
c) Removed and replaced at the expensed of the a) 1,000 kg/cu. m c)1,400 kg/cu. m
contractor b) 1,200 kg/cu. m d) 1,500 kg/cu. m

39.If the strength of control specimen does not meet 49. Soundness loss of rocks used for field gabions is
the requirement and not feasible to obtain cores due to __________________.
structural consideration, as a Materials Engineer a) 9 % after 5 cycles c) 11 % after 5 cycles
what will be your decision? b) 10 % after 5 cycles d) 12 % after 5 cycles
a) Removed and replaced
b) Area will not be paid 50. The heating temperature of reflectorized
c) Payment will be made at an adjusted if thermoplastic material during application is _____
applicable a) 130 +/- 7* C c) 200 +/- 7* C
b) 150 +/- 7* C d) 211 +/- 7* C

40. After concrete has been placed, it is advisable to 51. The minimum quantity of sample for asphalt
maintain fully welted and in position for how many cement is -------.
hours? a) 5 kg c) 20 kg
a) 14 hours c)72 hours b) 10 kg d) 100 kg
b) 24 hours d) 15 – 18 hours
52. For how many years does the small Contractor
41. Rock shall be excavated to a depth ____ below given to procure necessary testing equipment?
sub grade within the limit of the roadbed a) 2 years c) 5 years
a) 100mm c) 200 mm b) 4 years d) 6 years
b) 150 mm
53. The depth of the weakened joints must not be less
42. Minimum penetration of all piles shall be ____. than ____ and a width of___.
a) 3 meter c) 7 meter a) 40 mm & 6 mm c) 40 mm & 5 mm
b) 6 meter d) 4.5 meter b) 50 mm & 5 mm d) 50 mm & 6 mm
54. Used of bituminous cold mix for potholes patching
during rainy/wet period is acceptable
43. Piles shall not be driven within 7 meters of a) False b) true
concrete less than _____ old.
a) 7 days c) 28 days 55. In soil, all boring shall be carried to a depth of at
b) 14 day least ____ below the proposed grade line.
a) 0.50m c) 1.5 m
44. Paint contains _____ of pigment and _____ b) 1.0 m d) 1.8 m
vehicle.
a) 20 % & 80 % c) 79 % & 21 % 56. The test that determines pile bearing capacity
b) 21 % & 79 % d) 80 % & 20 % by loading one or more pile and measuring settlement
under load is _____.
a) Vane shear test b) Pile load test
b) Plate bearing test
67. What is the rate of loading for concrete beam
57. The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger tested for flexural stress?
or split spoon shall beat least ____. a) 110 – 150 psi/sec c)125 – 175 psi/min
a) 1 kg c) 10 kg b) 115 – 150 psi/sec d) 130 - 175 psi/sec
b) 20 kg d) 100 kg
68.In concrete sampling paste shall be of normal
58. Submission of sample for testing for cement is consistency of _____ when the rod settles to a point
_____. below the original surface in 30 secs.
a) 10 kg c) 15 kg a) 10 +/- 1 mm c) 15 +/- 1mm
b) 20 kg d) 40 kg b) 11 +/- 1 mm d) 20 +/- 1 mm

59. The length of Shelby Tube of an undisturbed 69.What the temperature of a concrete sample?a) 10 –
sample is _____. 15 * C c) 15 – 18* C
a) 10” long c) 20” long b)18 – 24 * C
b) 18” long
70.What is the wash loss of fine aggregates in the no.
60. For small project where quantity of steel bars is 200 sieve?
10,000 kg or less, what is the basis for acceptance of a) 1 % c) 3 %
material If is not in critical structure? b) 2 % d) 4 %
a) No testing c) Mill certificate
b) P.E, certificate d) Simplified test 71. Retarder can delay the setting time of concrete up
to how many hours?
61.______ determines the best combination of the a) 1 hour c) 4 hours
material that will produce a potentially stable & durable b) 2 hours d) 8 hours
mixture.
a) Job mix formula c) Design of bituminous mix 72. Super plasticizer can increase the strength of
b) Marshall formula concrete up to how many percent?
a) 40 –60 % c) 50 – 70 %
62. _______ is the rate of loading for concrete cylinder b) 50 – 60 % d) 60 – 70 %
sample subject to compression test
a) 20 - 40 psi/sec c) 15 – 40psi/sec 73.___________ is the moisture in an air – dried soil
B)20 - 50psi/sec d) 15 – 40 psi/sec a) Moisture Content
b) Natural Moisture Content
63.I n a soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is c) Hygroscopic Moisture Content
questionable, the minimum depth of boring into the d) Hydrometer Moisture Content
bedrock should be _______.
a) 1.5 m c) 2.5 m 74._________ is the tolerance of mix in bituminous.
b) 2.0 m d)3.0 m a) 10* C c) 15* C
b) 12* C d) 18* C

64. Determine soil bearing capacity by loading a steel 75._________ Number of measurement taken in a
plate usually30” diameter. core sample for thickness determination of the finish
a) Vane shear test c) Pile load test asphalt pavement
b) Plate bearing test d) None of the above a) 3 c) 5
b) 4 d) 8
65. How many hours do aggregate stockpile or binned
for draining before being batch? 76. In the absence of beam mold in site, cylinder mold
a) 1 hour c)12 hours is allowed by specification. What is the required
b) 6 hours d) 24 hours strength?based on blue book 2004,not anymore 2013.
a) 2,500 psi c) 3500psi
66. What is the relative strength of mortar at 7 & 28 b) 3,000 psi d) 4,000 psi
days of fine aggregates, when tested for the effect of
organic impurities, which is higher than the standard?
a) not less than 90 % c) not less than 95 %
b) not less than 80 % d) not less than 98 %
77. Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least b) Granular materials d) clayey materials
_____
a) 6 hours c) 24 hours 88.________ a classification of soil which 35% or
b) 12 hours more of the particles passthrough no. 200 sieve
a) Course Sand Soil c) Silty-Clay Materials
78. The first phase of rolling the spread bituminous mix b) Granular Materials d) Clayey Materials
is called breakdown rolling which is carried out by
pneumatic roller, temperature requirement must 89.It evaluate the quality of soil as highway subgrade
be _____. material.
a) 200 – 225* F c) 160 – 180* F a) Atterberg Limit c) Group Index
b) 190 – 199* F d)150 – 185* F b) Plasticity Index d) Liquid Limit

79. How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix 90.When soil has plasticity index value of 10, what is
bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? the criteria of the material?
a) 5 c) 7 a)Coarse grain c) Clayey
b) 6 d) 8 b) Sandy d) Silty

80. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler? 91. When plasticity index is equal to 0
a)not greater than 4 c) not greater than 8 a) Coarse grain c) Clayey
b) not greater than 6 d) zero b) Sandy d) Silty

81. If no core had been taken at the end of each day of

operation and the project has already been completed, 92. _______ is an empirical number used in evaluation
a core shall be taken ________. for G.I.
a)for every 75 l.m,/lane c) for every 100 l.m/lane a) 0 – 15 c)0 – 20
b) for every 150 l.m/lane d) for every 1,000 l.m/lane b) 5 – 20 d) 0 – 25

82. ________ is the slump of workable concrete if 93.It indicates good subbase materials when G.I. is
vibrated. equal to _____.
a) 10 – 20 mm c) 40 – 50 mm a) 0 c) 10
b) 10 – 40 mm d) 40 – 75 mm b) 5 d) 20

83.________ Burnt product which is used by Gypsum 94.It indicates very poor subbase materials when G.I.
and pulverized to form Portland cement. is equal to _____.
a) Hydraulic cement c) Fly Ash a) 0 c) 10
b) Clinker d) Volcanic Ash b) 5 d)20

84.When group index = 0, what is the grade of soil? 95. ______ indicates the composition of soil.
a) weak soil c) good soil a)Atterberg Limit c) Group Classification
b) poor soil b) Plasticity Index

85.______ is a process of breaking down of rocks into 96.The higher the value of PI of the soil, the weaker
small pieces of various sizes that can range from large will be the soilperformance as a _____.
boulders to very small clay particles. a) True c) Depend
a) Consolidation c) Weathering b) False d) None of the above
b) Unconsolidation
97. _______ the Plasticity Index of group of silty,gravel
86.________ is the limit were further loss of water due and sandy soil
to evaporation which will not result in reduction of a) 0 c)10
volume. b) 6 d) 11
a) Plastic limit c) Shrinkage limit
b) Liquid limit 98. _______ is the minimum percent of A-6 group
classification of soil.
87.________ a classification of soil which 35% or less a) 0 % c) 35 %
the particles passthrough no. 200 sieve. b) 25 % d) 36 %
a) Grain size soil c) Silty clay materials
99. _______ is the maximum of G.I. of Silty Clay 110. Mass percent loose for fine aggregates
Materials when tested in Clay lumps is _____.
a) 0 c)20 a) 0.10 c) 0.80
b) 25 d) 35 b) 0.25 d) 1.0

100.When the value of G.I. is negative, what will be 111._________ is a type of cement which shall be
the soil performance? transferred to an elevated, air tight and weather proof
a) Poor Subgrade c) Good subgrade bins storage.
b) Very good subgrade d) None of the above a) Portland Cement c) Bulk Cement
b) Pozzolan Cemenr d) None of the above
101.The weight of Sandy
soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______. 112.Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall
a) 10 grams c) 50 grams be accurate within _____.
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams a) 0.1% c) 0.5%
b) 0.25% d) 1.9%
102.The weight of Clayey or Silty soil for Hydrometer
Analysis is ______ 113.The minimum thickness of conventional concrete
.a) 10 grams c) 50 grams as the surface course in monolithic pavement is
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams _____.
a) 50 mm c) 100 mm
103. A 25 grams fine grained soil can be dried in about b) 75 mm d) 150 mm
______.
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours 114._____________ determines the resistance of the
b) 2 hours d) 4 hours emulsion to break when mixed with mineral aggregate.
a) Viscosity Test c) Spot test
104.A 25 grams sandy soil can be dried in about b) Distillation Test d) Cement Mixing
______.
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours 115._____________ is an instrument used for rapid in
b) 2 hours d) 4 hours – site measurement of the structural properties of
existing road pavement.
105.________ is a type of soil in which most of the soil a) Pundit Ultra Sonic Concrete Tester
grains are of the samesize. b) Dynamic Core Penetrometer
a) Poorly graded c) Gap graded c) Falling Weight Deflectometer
b) Well graded d) Non of the above d) Core Test

106.The soil grained are force apart by the 116. How many days does the emulsified asphalt
water added, thus the grain is reduced, what is the must be tested after delivery at temperature
method used? 40*F(4.5*C).
a) Lubrication c) Swelling a) 10 days c) 14 days
b) Welting d) Saturation b) 12 days d) 16 days

107.Percent passing loose for coarse aggregates 117.In bituminous mixture asphalt content is 5 – 8%
when tested for clay lump is _____. and 92 - 95%aggregates, what will be the amount of
a) 0.1 masspercent c) 0.8 mass percent additives?
b) 0.25 mass percent d) 1.0 mass percent a) not more than 2% c) more than 2%
b) not more than 3% d) more than 4%
108.The mass percent passing loose for coarse
aggregates when tested insoft fragment is ____. 118.___________ determines the effect of water on
a) 0.10 c) 3.5 the cohesion of the mixture
b) 0.25 d) 1.00 a) Stability Test c) Distillation
b) Solubility d) Immersion-Compression Test
109.If slag is used, the density of coarse aggregate is
______.
a) 30 – 100 kg/cu. m c)1,120 kg/cu. m 119. The distance of the sample by grooving before
b) 150 kg /cu. m d) 1,400 kg/cu. M rotating the brass cup is _____.
a) ¼” c) ¾”
b)½” d) 1” percentage to be used is determined by the _Trial
Mix_.
120. the most common method of assessing strength
and stiffness of both subgrade and pavement is 130._Blue smoke_ is an indication that the
_______. asphalt is over heated
a) FDT c) SPT
b) CBR d)Non of the above 131. The penetrator test is an indication of the
_Consistency_ of the asphalt
121. How many days do the specimen for CBR
soaked? 132._Marshall Stability Test_ is the most common
a) 1 day c) 3 days used method in the design and evaluation of
b) 2 days d) 4 days bituminous concrete mixes

122.When mixed at the site or a

in central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be 133._Extraction Test_ determines the asphalt content
less than _50__ seconds nor more than _90_ seconds in the bituminous mixes.
unless mixer performance test prove adequate mixing
of the concrete in a shorter time period. 134. Cast in place concrete shall not be post-
tensioned until at least _10_ days and until the
123. The batches shall be so charged into the drum compressive strength has reached the strength
that a portion of the mixing water shall enter in specified
advance of the cement and aggregate. The flow of
water shall be uniform and all water should be in the 135.This is the characteristic generally used for
drum by the end of the _15_ seconds of the mixing calculation of the volume occupied by the aggregate in
period various mixture containing aggregates including
Portland Cement concrete, bituminous concrete, and
124.The time elapsed from the time water is other mixtures that are proportioned or analyzed on an
added to the mix until the concrete is deposited at the absolute volume basis.Answere: Bulk Specific
site shall not exceed _90_ minutes when concrete is Gravity
hauled in the truck.
136._Apparent Specific Gravity_ pertains to
125.When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, the relative density of the soil material making up the
additional water maybe added to the batch and constituents particle not including the pore space
additional mixing performed to increase the slump to within the particles that is accessible to water.
meet the specified requirement if permitted by the
Engineer, provided all these operation are performed 137.Weight of sandy soil needed for Hydrometer test
within _45_ minutes after the initial mixing operation is _100 grams_
and the water and cement ratio is not exceeded
138.Weight of silty or clayey soil needed for
126.Concrete not placed within _90_ minutes from the Hydrometer test is _50 grams_
time the ingredients were charge into the mixing drum
should not be use. 139. These are widely used to control the
characteristics of soil which are to be incorporated in
127. The completed pavement shall be accepted on a roadway. Ans. Liquid and Plastic Limits
lot basis. A lot shall be considered as
_500_ linear meter double lane 140.This is defined as the highest moisture content of
which the mass attainsits minimum volume but
128. Each lot shall be divided into _5_ equal segment continues to lose weight /mass. Ans. ShrinkageLimit
and one core will be obtained from each segment in
accordance with AASHTO T24. 141._Le Chattelier Flask___ is an apparatus used in
determination of specific gravity of Hydraulic Cement.
129. Aggregate account for 92 –
142._Autoclave Machine_ is an equipment used
95% of the weight of the bituminous mix while
in determination of soundness of Portland Cement
asphalts for 5 – 8% of the weight of the mix. The exact
143.Asphalt shall be homogeneous, free from 157. ______ is the viscosity used to grade asphalt ce
water, and shall not foam when heated to _175* ment .
C(347* F)_ Ans.149F ( 60*C)

144._Cement Mixing Test of Asphalt_ 158.The coarse aggregate used in asphalt mix is ____
indicate the rate at which the asphalt emulsion will .
break when mix with aggregate . Ans. Retained by2.36mm (no 8 sieve)

145.The lost in weight of rock used in gabions when 159.The application temperature of emulsified asphalt
tested to sodium sulfate, soundness loss shall not range from ____.
exceeds__9%__ Ans.10-71*C

146.Gabions dimensions are subject to 160. When the tar is used for seal coats, it shall be
a tolerance limit of _+/- 3%_ heated to free flowing but not to exceed ___________.
Ans. 149*C
147. The pour point of concrete joint sealer shall be at
least 161._______ is used to determine the soil strength
11*C(20*F) lower than the safe heating temperature, parameter.
which is the maximum temperature to which the Ans.Unconfined and Tri-Axial Compression Test
material may be heated without exceeding the
permitted flow. 162. ________ is used
to determine the settlement characteristic of soil.
148. The penetration of concrete Ans.Consolidation
joint sealer, Hot Poured Elastic Type shall not
exceed_90_ 163.The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger
or split spoon shall beat least__________
149.The CBR is generally selected at _2.54 mm (0.10 Ans. 1.0 kg
in)_ penetration.
164.The undisturbed samples from Shellby Tube shall
150. If the ratio at 5.08 mm (0.21 in ) penetration is be atleast______.
greater,it should be _Rerun_ Ans.. 18” long

151. If the check test gives a similar result, the ratio at 165._______ determines the pile bearing capacity
5.08 mm penetration shall be__adopted or used__ by loading one or more piles and measuring
settlement under load.
152. The penetration piston of CBR machine Ans. Pile Load Test
should have a uniform penetration at a rate of __1.30
mm/min__ 166.________ determines the in-site shear strength of
soft to medium clay.
153. During soaking maintain the water level in the Ans. Vane Shear Test
mold and the soaking tank is approximately __25.40
mm ( 1.0 in )__ above the top of the specimen 167._______ determines the soil bearing capacity
by loading a steel plate usually 30 inches in diameter.
154. Soak the specimen for _96 hours (4days) __ Ans. Plate Bearing Test

155. The diameter of penetration piston is ____ . Ans. 168. Laboratory which measures, examines, calibrate
49.63 +/- 0.23mm (1935 cu m) or otherwise determine the characteristic or
performance materials or products.
Ans... Testing Laboratory

156.The temperature of the asphalt cement delivered 169. Standard technical procedure to determine one or
to the mixer shall beas required to achieve a kinetic more specified characteristic of material product
viscosity in the range of ______. is called___.
Ans. 150 to 300 cu m/s or 150 to 300 centistokes Ans. Test Method
170. A document which pertains to the 180.This is an arbitrary measurement of consistency
test results and other information relevant to test is and is the basis of classification of all solid and semi-
called _____ solid asphalt.
Ans... Test Report Ans.. Penetration Test of Asphalt

181. This is a process to measure the consistency

of liquid asphaltic materials to determine their fluidity
or resistance to flow.
171.__________ is a document signed by the Ans... Viscosity Test
Director of BRS issued to Testing laboratory
authorizing them to perform the required test inbehalf 182._________ was developed in order to differentiate
of DPWH. bituminous materials with respect to hardening
Ans. Certificate of Accreditation characteristic.
Ans... Thin Film Oven Test
172. This test have been developed to measure the
loss of cohesion as a result of water action on the 183. Plant-mixed bituminous mixtures should be
compacted bituminous mixture. sampled in accordance with the Standard Method of
Ans. Film Stripping & Immersion – Sampling Bituminous Mixture. A sample not less than
Compression Test ______ kg is taken and place in sample bag that
would insure against contamination. This is taken
173. This mean porosity or perviousness of the every 75 cu m or 130 tons of mix.
mixture, a dense grade mix prevent water from Ans... 10 kgs
entering the base through the surface.
Ans.. Permeability 184. The bearing blocks of the compression machine
should be at least _____ greater than the diameter of
174. This is used in classifying liquid asphalt into the specimen.
grades. It is useful as a measure to control of Ans... 3.0 %
consistency, particularly when run at the
temperature of intended application
Ans…Viscosity Test 185. The bottom bearing block shall be at least
_____ thick
175. This test determines the total bitumen content of When new
asphaltic materials, which is the actual cementing Ans. 1.0” (22.50 mm )
constituent of the asphalt.
Ans.. Solubility Test 186. The bottom bearing block shall be at least
_______ thick after anyresurfacing operations..
176.This is an accelerated test to show the loss of Ans. 0.9” (22.50 mm )
volatiles when the sample is heated at 163*C for five
hours and the loss due to volatilization is determined. 187. The curing temperature of a
Ans… Loss on Heating specimen before testing is ______.
Ans. 18*C to 24*C
177.This test classifies the different asphalt into types
and the different types into grade. 188. The apparatus used to determine the flash point
Ans.. Consistency Test of asphalticmaterial is called ____
Ans. Cleveland Open Cup
178.For liquid asphaltic materials, this test is run on
the residue after distillation.. 189. The asphalt samples for ductility and penetration
Ans.. Quality Test test should be subjected to water bath at a
temperature of 25*C for ____.
Ans... 11/2 hours
179.This is one of the most important engineering
properties of soil. It is defined as its ability to resist 190.The concrete shall not be left exposed for more
sliding along internal surface within the mass.. than ____ hour between stages of curing or during the
Ans.. Shearing Strength of Soil curing period.
Ans... ½ hour
191.The rate of application of bituminous prime coat a) 20-14 c) 0 – 6
is ____. b) 0 – 12
a) 1-2L/sq. m. c) 0.2-1.5L/sq. m.
b) 0.2-0.7L/sq. m. d) 0.5-2L/sq. m. 202.The number of specimen samples in testing
concrete hollow block is _____.
192.Another name for asphalt joint filler is_______. a) 6pcs./20,000 units (3 for absorption test and 3 for
a) asphalt cement c) blown asphalt strength test )
b) rock asphalt d) cutback asphalt b) 4 pcs./20,000 units
c) 8 pcs./20,000 units
193.In asphalting work, there are _______ phase
of rolling 203.Is it really necessary to cure concrete specimen?
a) 2 c)1 a) Yes c) No
b) 3 d) 4 b) None of the two

194.The _____ test determines the asphalt content 204.The kind of test that determines the consistency of
in the bituminous mix. concrete is _____.
a) Grading c)Extraction a) Slump test c)Abrasion test
b)Bulk Specific Gravity d) Absorption b) Specific Gravity

205.What is the dimension of concrete cylindrical

sample?
195.In a bituminous mix, there are 3 kinds of a) 6” dia. And 12” high c) 8” dia. And 14 high
aggregate. What kind of passes the no. 200 sieve? b) 4” dia and 8” high

a) Coarse c) Mineral Filler 206.In the absence of concrete beam mold at the
b) Fine d) Admixture project site, are concrete cylindrical molds allowed by
the specification to be used in sampler for item 311 –
PCCP?
196.Liquid asphalt is also called ___________. a) Yes
a) Cutback asphalt c) Blown asphalt b) may be
b) Emulsion d) Asphalt cement c) No

197.The different test for soil classification are: 207.The minimumpercent compaction for embankment
a) compaction and FDT is _______.
b) Hydrometer test and moisture content a) 92% b) 95%c) 97%
c) Grading, LL and PL test
208.The minimum percent compaction for base
198.The apparatus/equipment used in the liquid limit of the road is ______
and plastic limit test iscalled___ . a) 100% b)110%c) 105%
a) Sieves and chisel c) mortar andpestle
b) Atterberg Device and glass plate 209. The CBR value of aggregate
base course is not less than ____.
199._________ is a method of laboratory sampling. a) 80% b) 90%c) 85%
a) Mixing c) Proportioning
b) Using mechanical splitter/quartering 210.The CBR value of aggregate
subbase course is not less than ____.
200.In laboratory compaction test/moisture density a) 25% b)35%c) 30%
relation test, what is the specification of rammer?
a) 5.5 lb. (2.5 kg) with 12 in drop 211.The minimum compressive strength for class A
b) 8 lb. (3.6 kg) in weight with 16 in drop concrete is ________.
c) 10 lb. (4.5 kg) in weight with 18 in drop a) 3,000 psi. ( 20.7 MN/sq.m )
b)2,400 psi. ( 16.7 MN/sq. m. )
c) 5,000 psi. ( 37.7 MN/sq. m. )
201. What is the specification of mass present passing
in sieve 0.075 mm (No.200 ) grading “A” for aggregate 212.What is the significance of determination of
base course. the tensile properties of reinforcing steel bars?
a) This method is intended to determine the yield and
tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation, 222.The drying temperature of sample is ________
and is used to classify the bars into grade a) 110 +/- 5*C
b) This method is intended to evaluate the ductile b) 100 +/- 5*C
properties of the reinforcing bars c)100*C
c) None of the above
223._______ is a solid asphalt which is a basic
213.A tie bar should be ______ constituent of all other asphalt called as hot asphalt or
a) deformed bar b) round bar c) flat bar penetration grade asphalt.
a) Asphalt Cement
214.A dowel bar should be ____________. b) Emulsified Asphalt
a) deformed bar b) round bar c) flat bar c) Cutback Asphalt

215. The mortar for masonry shall consist of ________ 224.________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is
.a) one part Portland cement and 2 parts of sand a mixture of asphalt cement and kerosene.
b) one part Portland Cement and 3 parts of sand a) Medium Curing Cutback
c) one part Portland Cement and 4 parts of sand b) Asphalt Cement
c) Rapid Curing Cutback
216. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or
height of compacted bituminous paving mixture. 225.________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a
a) Ruler b) Vernier Califer c) Steel Tape mixture of asphalt cement and oil.
a) Slow Curing Cutback
217. It is used in calculating the unit weight of b) Emulsified Asphalt
the mixture and the degree of compaction of the c) Blown Asphalt
asphalt pavement.
a) Bulk Specific Gravity of compacted bituminous
mixtures using saturated surface dry specimen. 226.________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a
b) Dry unit weight of compacted bituminous mixtures mixture of asphalt cement and gasoline
c) Mass of specimen in water a) rapid Curing Cutback
b) Blown Asphalt
218. The test which covers the quantitative c) Joint Filler
determination of bitumen in hot-mixed paving mixtures
and pavement samples for 227.Asphalt is defined as _________.
specification acceptance,service evaluation, control an a) A petroleum product
d research. b) A dark brown to black cementitious materials whose
a) Extraction consistency range sfrom solid to semi-solid and whose
b) Spot Test main constituent is called bitumen which is either
c) Flash Point found in nature or as a residue in petroleum refining.
c) None of the above
219.The solvent used in extraction of bitumen is
_____. 228. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture
a) Diesel oil of asphalt cement and water with emulsified with
b) Gasoline pungent odor.
c) Water a) Emulsified Asphalt
b) Asphalt Cement
220.The percent of bitumen content is computed c) Rapid Curing Asphalt
based on ______.
a) mass of raw sample 229. Joint filler in concrete pavement is a __________.
b) mass of dry aggregate a) Blown Asphalt
c)mass of asphalt b) Hot asphalt
c) Liquid asphalt
221.The method used to determine the grading of
aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture is ____. 230. A device used to measure the relative hardness
a) Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregate of asphalt is __________.
b) Stability Test a) Penetrometer
c) Viscosity b) Spectometer
c) Vicat Apparatus 240.____________ is a property of bituminous mixes
in pavement to resist deformation or displacement due
231. A property of asphalt cement to stretch without to impose load or repeated loading.
breaking iscalled________. a) Stability
a) Ductility b)Flexibility
b)Durability c)Tensile
c)Tensile
241.____________ is a property of bituminous mixes
232.It is a point where the volatile components of in pavement to resist disintegration or deterioration
asphalt will evaporate. due to the action of water, traffic and changing climate
a) Fire Point a) Durability
b) Flash Point b) Flexibility
c) Center Point c)Ductility

233.It determines whether asphalt is over heated or 273. The minimum flexural strength requirement
not during the process of manufacture. of beam sample when tested by third point
a) Spot Test loading method is ____________.
b) Boil Test a) 3.5 Mpa
c) Extraction Test b) 3.8 Mpa
c) 4.0 Mpa
234.An apparatus used to determine the
specific gravity of asphalt is called ______. 274.The minimum flexural strength requirement
a) Metal Pycnometer of beam sample when tested by midpoint method is
b)Glass Pycnometer ____________.
c) any bottle a) 4.5 Mpa
b) 3.5 Mpa
235.Consistency test for asphalt is c) 5.0 Mpa
called___________.
a) Viscosity 275.____________ are additives used in mixing
b) Slump test concrete.
c)Loss in ting a) sodium chloride
b) Admixtures
236.A process of c) curing agent
volatilization test which measures the relative
proportion of asphalt to oil. 276.____________ determines the consistency of
a) Distillation concrete.
b) Extraction a) Slump Test
c) Float Test b) Consolidation test
c) Viscosity
237. It is a period wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
a) Softening Point 277. Equipment used in the consolidation of fresh
b) Boiling Point concrete.
c) Fire Point a) Jack hammer
b) Vibrator
238.The sampling requirement of asphalt is _____ . c) Drilling machine
a) 1 sample for every 200 drums or 40 metric tons
b) 1 sample for every 100 drums 278. The prescribed forms to be used in concrete
c) 1 sample for every shipment paving is called ____________
a) steel forms
239.The component of bituminous mixes which b) Wooden
range from 92 to 96%is called __________. c) Combination of steel and wood
a) Bituminous Blended Aggregate
b) Concrete Aggregate 279. The initial setting time of
c) Sand Portland cement is not less
than _________________.
a) 30min.
b) 45min. a) first seven days
c) 90 min. b) first 10 days
c) 28 days
280.The final setting time of Portland cement Type I
is _____________. 289.The standard dimension of concrete cylindrical
a) 6.25hrs. sample is ___________.
b) 24 hrs. a) 6” dia. and 12” tall
c) 36 hrs. b)6” dia. and 6” tall
c) 6” dia. and 8” tall
281.The standard sand used in testing the mortar
strength of Portlandcement is called __________. 290.There are two layers in performing sampling of
a) Ottawa Sand beam samples. How many numbers of blows are
b) Beach Sand required per layer?
c) River Sand a) 63 blows
b) 75 blows
282.The apparatus used in determining the fineness of c) 50 blows
Portland cement by air permeability is __________ .
a) Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus 291.There are three layers in performing sampling of
b) Sieve No. 200 concrete cylinder. How many blows are required per
c) Gillmore layer?
a) 25 blows
283.A mixture of cement and water is called b) 30 blows
____________. c ) 35 blows
a) cement paste
b) mortar paste 292.The formula which determines the proportion of
c)concrete paste the mix which can meet the desired strength
requirement of concrete is called____________.
284.The apparatus used to determine the a) design of concrete mix
initial and final setting of cement in the laboratory b) Boyle’s Formula
is _________. c) Bernouli’s Formula
a) Gillmore needles
b) Bailey needle 293.The minimum testing requirement for
c) Vicat apparatus every project is indicated in a duly
approved________.
285.The compressive strength of cement mortar a) Quality Control Program
sample in sevendays is not less than _________. b) Program of Work
a) 19.3 MN/sq. m c) Work Schedule
b) 20 MN/sq. m
c) 24 MN/sq. m 294.It is prescribed in each project based on estimated
quantities and specifies the kind and number of test for
286.What each item of work.
is the appearance of the molded cement paste which f a) Minimum number of work
ails to meet the autoclave b) Minimum Testing Requirements
expansion.______________. c) Work Schedule
a) Crumble
b) Shiny 295. Embankment materials delivered at the job site
c) Changes color was about 12,000 cu. m. The minimum test
requirement calls for 1 – G, P, C for every 1,500 cu. m.
287.The dimension of beam sample for paving a) 10 – G, P, C
concrete is ___________. b) 8 – G, P, C
a) 6” x 6” x 21” c) 6 – G, P, C
b) 6” x 6” x 24”
c) 4” x 4”x218” 296. There is 1 – Q cement required for every
_________________.
288.The critical number of days of curing concrete a) 4,000 bags or fraction thereof
is ____________. b) 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
c) 10,000 bags 305. The minimum test requirement for
paint is ______________.
297.There is – Q of rein.steel required for a) 1 – sample for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
every ____________________. b) 1 – sample for every 50 cans or fraction thereof
a) 20,000 kg or fraction thereof c) Mill Certificate
b) 10,000 kg or fraction thereof
c)115,000 kg or fraction thereof 306. The minimum test requirement for water used in
concrete for a questionable source is ______.
298.How many set of beam samples taken for every a)P.E. Certificate
75 cu. m. of concretepoured per day? b) 1 – Quality Test
a)one ( 1 ) set c) Inspection Report
b) two ( 2 ) sets
c)three ( 3 ) sets 307. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by
laboratory test, the degree of compaction required for
299.In a completed pavement, what is the aggregate subbase should be at
minimum core samples required before payment is least _______________________.
effected? (Assuming that the thickness is23 cm. ) a) 95%
a) Fiveholes per km per lane b) One hole per 500m c) 100%
c) P.E. b) 98%
Certificate d) None of the above

300.In a Barangay road, what is the minimum 308.Per our present Specification for
requirement for thickness determination of its Highways and Bridges including amendments, it is
completed pavement? mandatory to open PCCP to traffic not later
a) Five holes per km per lane than ___________.
b) P.E. Certificate c)One hole a) 7days after pouring
b) 21 days after pouring
301.A quality test is one of the minimum c) 14 days after pouring
requirement for item 200 –aggregate subbase course. d) 28 days after pouring
a) True
b)False 309. In casting reinforced
c)optional concrete railings, the concrete used
is _____________.
302.There is no CBR test for item 300 – aggregate a) ClassA1 c) Class C1
surface course. b) Class A2 d) any of the preceding classes
a) True
b) False 310.For efficient compaction, the embankment
c) optional materials should at the timeof rolling be ______.
a)dry c) at optimum moisture content
303.In item 311 and b) wet d) at maximum moisture content
405, grading is perform _______________.
a) for every 75 cu. m.
b) for every 300 cu. m. 311.For a road base course the most preferable
c) none material is one with CBR of ____________.
a) 60 c) 50
304.For pipe culverts and storm drains, the minimum b) 30 d) 80
test is 1 – Pipe for every 50 pipes. What is the
alternative requirement? 312.Peat and muck are ______________.
a) 1 – set consisting of 3 concrete cylinder a) fair subgrade spoil c) unsuitable soil
samples for not more than25 pipes cast in the field b) stable soil d) good subgrade soil
and 1 – inspection report for each size for not
more than 25 pipes cast in the field. 313The slump test on concrete is a measure _______
b) Inspection report is enough _______
c) Mill Certificate a) strength c) consistency
b) unit weight d) durability
314.The fineness modulus is highest of ____________ 324.In casting of reinforced concrete pile, the concrete
_____. used is ____________.
a) fine sand c) very coarse sand a) A1 c) C1
b) very fine sand d) coarse sand b) D d) C2

315.If concrete is continuously moist cured, it will gain 325.The natural water content of highly organic soil is
strength beyond 180 days. __________.
a) True c) it depends on curing temperature a) less than 20 c) between 50 and 100
b) False b) between 20 and 50 d) more than 100%

316.The quality of paving concrete is usually 326. Which of the following dead load is equivalent for
measured by its _____________. loose sand, earth and gravel fill?
a) compressive c) flexural a) 2,403tons/cu. m. c) 1,603 tons/cu. m.
b) tensile d) bond strength b) 1,922 tons/cu. m. d) 2,150 tons/cu. m.

317.Generally speaking, batching of 327.Rate of application for curing compound

concrete aggregates by volume is preferable than is _______________.
weight. a) 0.30 li/sq. m. c) 0.15 li/sq. m.
a) True c) False b) 0.20 li/sq. m. d) 0.10 li/sq. m.
b) they are the same
328.During coring of completed pavement, how
318.If angular coarse aggregate is used in a concrete many cores /km/lane is required as per specification?
mix, it will require more ________________ a) 4 c) 6
a) water c) water and fine aggregates b) 5 d) 7
b) fine aggregates d) neither a and b
329.What is the correct proportion for concrete
319.The most favorable period for curing concrete is masonry work?
______________. a) 1: 2 c) 1: 4
a) during the first few days or week b) 1: 3 d) 1 : 5
b) after 3 days
c) after one week 330.The opening of No. 4 sieve is bigger than the
d) before 28 days opening of a ¼sieve.
a) true
320.Lower water content ratio in concrete mixes b)false
improves ________________. c) they are the same
a) strength c) water tightness
b) durability d) all of the preceding 331.The standard compaction test on predominantly
fine grained soils is performed on soil fraction
passing sieve no. ___________
a) 200 c) 16
321.When concrete must be placed in a sloping b) 40 d) 4
surface, placing should startat the __________.
a) bottom c) can be top or bottom 332.Which plasticity index would you prefer for the bas
b) top e course of PCCP?
a) less than 6 c) 10 to 12
322.The maximum percent abrasion loss allowed for b)6 to 9 d) more than 12.
concrete coarse
aggregate is __________. 333.A soil which is classified A-7 by the highway
a) 30% c) 45% research board method will have a subgrade rating
b) 40% d) 50% of __________.
a) excellent c) fair
323. The plasticity index of aggregate base course b) good d) poor
should be not greater than ___________.
a) 6 c)10 334.The empirical number used in design is
b) 8 d) 12 ____________.
a) Plasticity index
b) Group index 345.Soil is fully saturated if the water content is
c) Both of the preceding ______________.
a) at optimum amount c) more than 100&%
335. Soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture b) 100% d) none of the peceeding
content.
a) True 346.The density to which a soil can be compacted
b) False is related to ____________.
c) It depends on void ratio a) compactive effort c) both a and b
b)water content d) neither a or b
336. Water content of soil is generally
base on ____________. 347.Specification require 1 quality test
a) total weight of soil c) weight of solids every ___________ of asphaltmix.
b) total volume of soil d) unit weight test a) 40 ton c) 50 tons
b) 130 tons d) 150 tons
337. Optimum water content of soil is determined
by ______________. 348.All asphalt are _______,
a) field density test c) compaction test they became harder as temperature decreases
b) liquid limit test d) unit weight test and softer as their temperature increases.
a) Thermoplastic c) brittle
338.The particle size distribution of soil is determined b) Hydrophobic d) none of the above
by __________________.
a) liquid limit granular c) sieve analysis test 349.The viscosity of the asphalt during mixing and lay
b) plastic limit test d) any of the preceding test down is ____________.
a) Viscosity at 135*C c) viscosity at 60*C
339. Which of the following are most suitable for b) Viscosity at 125*C d) viscosity at 163*C
construction of highway embankments?
a) granular c) plastic 350.The trial section for compaction for each type of fill
b) fine- grained d) clayey materials andtype of equipment to be used in the work
should have an areaof__________.
340.The particle size distribution of sandy gravel is a)500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m. b) 335 sq. m.
determined by ________. d) 400 sq. m.
a) hydrometer test c) dilantacy test
b) sieve test d) any of the preceding test 351.Control slip shall have an area of approximately
____________.
341.The best soil for a road subgrade would behave a) 500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m.
a group index of ___________ b) 335 sq. m. d) 400 sq. m.
a) less than3 c) 11 to 15
b) 5 to 10 d) 16 to 20 352.Fine aggregate used in
asphalt mix is the one ________________.
342.The highest moisture content in the plastic state of a) passing the no. 8 sieve
fine grained soil isthe ___________. b) passing the no. 30 sieve
a) liquid limit b) plastic limit c) passing the no. 200 sieve
d) returned the no. 8 sieve
343.Which of the following is characterizes unsuitable
materials? 353.The corrugation produce
a) soil with liquid limit exceeding 80 by brooming is _____________.
b) plasticity index exceeding 55 a) 1.5 mm. c) 2.5 mm.
c) soil with natural water content exceeding 100% b) 2.0 mm. d) 1.0 mm.
d) all of the above
354.The higher the ________, the higher
344.Shringkage factor test is _______________. the penetration.
a) test to determine pay volume a) specific gravity c) durability
b) test to determine strength characteristic b) viscosity d) solubility
c) test to determine volume change
d) test to determine maximum density 355.The required thickness of the thermoplastic paint
in PCCP is __________.
a) 3.2 to 4.8 mm. c) 3.3 to 3.8 mm.
b) 3.0 to 4.5 mm. d) 3.2 to 4.0 mm 364.What is the basis for rejection or acceptance of
any construction materials?
356.What percent of hydrated lime shall be added to a) Certificate of Billingc) Statement of work accomplis
the mixture during mixing operation of asphalt mix? hed
a) 0.5 to 1.0 mass % c) 0.75 to 1.2 mass %. b)Materials Test Report d) none of the abcve
b) 1.0 to 1.5 mass % d) 0.2 to 0.7 mass %
365. Initial rolling of bituminous mixes shall be
357.As Materials Engineer, what performed with a ______ roller.
would you recommend in order to check the suitability a) Vibrator c) sheep foot
and efficiency of the equipment to used prior to b) Pneumatic d) none of the above
subbase construction for item 310, Bituminous
Concrete Surface Course? 366.In bituminous mix sample, what is the %
a) make a trial section c) make trial mix of asphalt by a) weight of aggregate and by b) weight
b) establish control strips d) none of the above of mix? Given the following data:Weight of dry
aggregates (after extraction) = 950 grams: Weight
of Mix = 1010.
358. Quality of factor – produced reinforced concrete A.
pipes may be best established through what? a) 6.32%
a)compressive strength test b)5.50%
b) flexural strength test c) 6.0%
c) core test d) none of the above
d) crushing strength test B. a) 5.50% b) 6.32% c) 6.0% d) 5.94%

367.What grade of asphalt has a penetration grade of

359.Result of Immersion – Compression 0 – 30?
test conducted on a bituminous mix sample are as a) emulsified asphalt c) blown asphalt
follow: Dry stability = 2,000 Kpa, Wet stability = 1,000 b) asphalt cement d) none of the above
Kpa,What is the resulting Index of Retained Strength?
a) 60% c) 50% 368.Problems regarding quality of construction
b) 55% d) 70% materials shall be reported directly by the
Contractor’s Materials Engineer to the ____________.
360.In DPWH Contract Projects, Quality Control is the a) DPWH Materials Engineer
sole responsibility of ___________. c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
a) the DPWH project personnel b) Contractor d) none of the above
b) the government’s Materials Engineer
c) the Contractor 369.If the RC pipes in the forgoing problem is not cast
in the field, how many pipes will be required to be
361.As Materials Engineer, when is the right time subjected to the Crushing Strength test?
to start sampling and testing of materials to be a) 75 pcs.
incorporated into the work? b) 70 pcs.
a) before final payment c) 50 pcs
b) before start of work items
c) before first partial payment 370.How many concrete cylinder samples are required
for 3,500 pcs. of reinforced concrete pipes?
362.The Spot Test on asphalt is used to determine a) 14 sets of 3 c) 75 sets of 3
what? b) 140 sets of 3 d) none of the above
a) Cleanliness c) safe working temperature
b)overheating duringmanufacture 371. What is the bitumen obtained from the
d) viscosity of the mix distillation coal or wood?
a) rock asphalt c) emulsion
363.Underwhat climate b) tar d) none of the above
conditions do we use higher penetration
grade asphalt cement? 372.How do you reduce the viscosity of Medium –
a) hot climate c) cold climate Curing Cutback Asphalt?
b)rainy weather d) none of the above By mixing it with _______.
a) gasoline c) kerosene 382.When is the completed asphalt pavement opened
b) diesel d) emulsion to traffic?
a) when the asphalt has cooled to atmospheric
373.What establish the exact percent of aggregates temperature
and asphalt content in abituminous mix _______. b) when the asphalt has cooled to +/- 10*C of the
a) design mix c) job mix formula spreading temperature
b) job order d) extraction formula c) when asphalt is still hot

374.What greatly influence the serviceability of an 383.The apparatus used in determining the
asphalt pavement? consistency of asphalt cement is ___________.
a) quality of aggregates and climate a) penetrometer
b) penetration grade and quantity of asphalt b) Viscometer
c) density and compaction of completed pavement c)thermometer

375.In asphalt pavement 384.How is the consistency of liquid asphalt

construction, how is the surface level of the determined?
completed pavement check? a) viscometer
a) by T – core test b) Tag open cup
b) bydensity test c) penetrometer
c) by the use of 3 meter straight edge
385.The Optimum Asphalt Content obtained in
376.What primarily influence the grade of asphalt to be Marshall Stability Test is the average asphalt content
selected? of the Maximum Stability, Maximum Bulk Specific
a) penetration c) climate Gravity, and _________________. a) 4% Air Voids
b) class of aggregate d) temperature b) 2 mm flow
c) 5% mineral content
377.Who will approve the Job Mix Formula?
a) DPWH Project/Materials Engineer 386.What test determines the safe working
b) Contractor temperature of the asphalt?
c) Contractor’s Materials Engineer a) Ductility test
b) Flash Point Test
378.What control c) Stability Test
during the mixing and compaction of the bituminous
pavement is of great significance in the resulting 387._________________ are usually tested for extract
pavement? ion.
a) Compaction c) grading of aggregates. a) Asphalt Mixes
b) Density d) temperature b) emulsions
c) asphalt cement
379. In asphalt pavement
construction, there are three phases of rolling; what 388.Steel bars for the concrete reinforcement are
kind of roller is required to be used for the final tested for their __________ properties.
compaction and smoothing?. a) tensile and bending
a) pneumatic roller b) compressive
b) sheep foot roller c) crushing
c) tandem- smooth wheeled roller.
389.What method is used in determining the
380.What is the maximum speed of the roller in strength of concrete pipes?
compaction of asphalt pavement? a) third point loading method
a) 4 kph c) 8kph b) center point loading method
b)5 kph d) 6 kph c) three edge bearing method

381. What shall be checked after final rolling? 390.How many units shall be tested for strength,
a) Degree of compaction b) optimum asphalt content c moisture and absorption in a lot of 120,000 CHB
)quantity of aggregates Ans.. 18 units
391.For 250 gallons of Reflectorized Traffic Paint, how Ans.. Non volatile material
many samples are required to be submitted for Quality
Testing? 403.___________ consist of beads of good quality,
a) 3 samples optically clear, lead free glass with not less than 90%
b) 2 samples reasonably spherical and free from flows.
c) 4 samples Ans. Ballotini for reflective road paint

392.The bituminous mix should have a mass % 404.___________ is a reflector which shall be
of air voids within the range of __________. the short base type having a maximum base area of
a) 2 to 3% 180 mm x 140 mm.
b) 1 to 4% Ans. Flash surface reflective stud
c) 3 to 5%
405.The pads shall be highly resilient and durable
393.Traffic paint shall be applied to the pavement at rubber reinforced with canvas and shall have a design
the rate of 0.33li/sq. m. and shall dry sufficiently to be life of at least ____________.
free it from cracking from ___________. . Ans. Five ( 5 ) years
Ans. 150to 30mins.
406.The reflectors shall have the minimum specific
394.This is the only class of riprap that may consist of intensity value expressed as ______ of illumination.
round natural stones.
Ans.. Class A Riprap Ans.. Candle power per foot candle

395.The surface of riprap shall not vary 407.The reflector shall support a vertical load
from the theoretical surface by more than _________ of _____ when tested.
mm. ay any point. Ans. 10 KN
Ans.. 100 mm.
408.When raised profile type reflector are
396.Fine aggregates of masonry shall all passes the _ specified the approved _______ epoxy adhesive shall
_______ mm.sieve. be used .Ans. Two ( 2 ) parts
Ans.. 2.36 mm (No. 8 sieve )
409.Expansion joint filler having a nominal thickness of
397.Mortar that is not used within ______ minutes less than ________ mm. shall not be subject to a
after the water has-been added shall be discarded. requirement for water absorption.
Ans. 90 minutes Ans. 9.5 mm

398.Maximum projection of rock faces beyond the 410.Expansion joint filler having a
pitch lines shall not be more than _____. nominal thickness of less than ________ mm. shall not
Ans.. 50 mm. be subject to a requirement for compaction.
Ans.. 13 mm.
399.In hot or dry weather, the masonry shall be
satisfactory protected from the sun and shall be kept 411.Strip of the joint filler that do not conform to the
wet for a period at least _________ after completion. specified dimension within the permissible variation of
Ans.. Three ( 3 ) days ______ mm. thickness ________ in depth shall be
reflected.
400.For pavement markings, the composition of white Ans. +/- 1.6 to – 0 thickness ; +/- 3mm. in depth
paint shall be _______ pigment and ______% of
vehicle 412.These are finely divided residue that result
Ans.. 42 – 45 % pigment ; 53 –55% vehicle from the combustion of ground or powdered coal.
Ans. Fly Ash
401.The composition of yellow paint shall be _______
pigment and ______ vehicle. 413.A light spray application of asphalt to an existing
Ans.. 23% pigment and 77% vehicle pavement as a seal to inhibit raveling, or seal
the surface or both.
402.The __________ material shall be of such quality Ans.. Fog Seal
that it will not darken or become yellow when a thin
section is exposed to sunlight.
414.A light application of bituminous 424.___________ is a spray application of bituminous
material for the express purpose of laying and bonding material used to temporarily stabilize a recently
loose dust. seeded area. The bituminous material can be applied
Ans.. Dust Binder to the soil or to a straw or hay mulch as a tie down.
Ans. Mulch treatment
415.The aggregate that is graded from the 425.___________ is a combination of bituminous
maximum size, down to and including filler, with the material and aggregate that isphysically mixed by
object of obtaining a bituminous mix with a controlled mechanical means, spread on the job site
void content and high stability is called. andcompacted.
Ans.Dense – graded aggregate Ans. BituminousAggregate Mixtures

416.The bituminous material used to fill and seal

cracks in existingpavement is called______. 426.__________ is a combination of
Ans. Crack filler bituminous material and mineral aggregate applied at
ambient temperature for use in patching
417.The application of sprayed bituminous coatings holes,depression and distress area in existing paveme
not involving theuse of aggregate is called_____. nt.
Ans. Bituminous application Ans.Maintenance Mix

418.A mixture of bituminous material and mineral 427.__________ is a pavement construction using
aggregate usuallyprepared in a conventional hot – mix essentially one-sizeaggregate which penetrated in
plant or drum mixer at atemperature of not more than place by an application of highviscosity bituminous
______ and spread and compacted at the job site at a material followed by an application of smallersize
temperature above _______. course aggregate and thoroughly rolled,
Ans. 260*F (127*C)/200*F (93*C Ans. Penetration Macadam

419.__________ is an application of low viscosity 428.The glass beads used in traffic paint shall have
bituminous material to an absorptive surface designed a minimum of ______ % true spheres.
to penetrate, bond, and stabilize this existing surface Ans. 70%
and to promote adhesion between it and the new
super-impose construction. 429.The glass beads shall have a minimum refractive
Ans. PrimeCoat index of ______ .
.Ans. 1.50
420. A uniform application of a mixture of emulsified
asphalt, fine aggregate,mineral filler, and water to 430.The white thermoplastic
an existing pavement , single or material shall not exceed a yellowish index of ______.
multipleapplication may be used. Ans. 0.12
Ans. Slurry Seal
431.The thermoplastic material shall have a maximum
421._____________ is an application of bituminous percent residue of _____ after heating at 8 +/- 0.5
material applied for an existing, relatively non- hours at 218 +/- 2*C
absorbent surface to provide a thorough Ans. 28%
bondbetween old and new surfacing.
Ans. Tack Coat 432.The softening point of thermoplastic paint should
be _______.
422.____________ is a bituminous aggregate Ans. 102.5+/-9.5*C.
application to any type of road or pavement surface for
the purpose of providing a wearing course, or surface 433.What kind of water shall be used in laboratory
seal or both. test especially if itdeals with chemical?
Ans. Treatment and Seals Ans. Distilled Water

423.___________ is a bituminous-sand application to 434.Liquid limit brass cup with a sample is raised and
an existing pavement to seal the surface and to allowed to dropsharply on the base through a height of
function as a light – wearing course. what?
Ans. Sand Seal Ans. 10 mm.
435.How many rotation per second will the crank of a li 444.If the soil is properly compacted at MDD it will
quid limitdevice be rotated? __________.
Ans. 2 rotation per seconds a) increase stability/strength
b) minimize future settlement
436. What is the required size of calibrated sand used c) decrease permeability
for FDT ? d) all of the above
Ans. Any clean, dry, free- flowing, uncemented and
passing # 10 andretained # 200 sieve 445.Asphalt construction, compaction
must be completed before themixture cools
437.What is the degree of compaction of soil having to _______.
a maximum dry densityof 2,250 kg/cu. m. and wet a) 165*F ( 60*C ) c) 185*F ( 71*C )
density of soil from hole is equivalent to 2,335kg/cu. m. b) 175*F ( 65*C ) d) 195*F ( 76*C )
and average moisture content of 8.85%?
Ans. 446.Which contractor are required by DPWH to own
% degree of compaction = (dry density/Max. dry the minimum material testing equipment for pre-
density ) x 100= qualification purposes?
[2,335/(1+8.85/100)] / 2,250 x 100= a) small c) large
( 2,145.15/2,250 ) x 100= 9.34% b) medium d) all of the above

438.What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT 447.As percent asphalt increases in
sand cone? Marshall stability test, the % Air voids____________.
Ans. ½” ( 12.7 mm ) a) increases c) remains constant
b)decreases d) a or b
439.Soil properties can be improved by
____________. 448.The aggregate component contribute to shear
a) Adequate compaction c) Maximizing water content strength and stability of bituminous mixture . The
b) Additional binder d) Stabilization desirable shape and surface texture of aggregate is
_________.
440.As construction progresses, you noticed that a) round and smooth surface c) round and rough
the materials delivered at the project site are different texture
from the one tested and passed the requirement, as b) angular and smooth surfaced) angular and rough
Materials Engineer what would you do? texture
a) Authorize the use of the materials
b) Conduct immediate retesting of the materials for 449. You can classify a soil sample in accordance to
verification purposes AASHTO through _________.
c) Reject materials a) Grain size analysisc) both a and b
d) Replace the materials b) Atterberglimit d) none of the above

441.What is the test criteria for RCPC test with three

( 3 ) Edge Bearing Test? 450.Who should take samples of materials and bring
a) 0.3 mm. c) 0.5 mm. them to the laboratory for acceptance purposes?.
b) 0.4 mm. d) 0.6 mm. a) DPWH Materials Engineer
c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
442.The Immersion – Compression test is prepared to b) Contractor’s Materials Engineer
determine_________. d) DPWH Project Engineer
a) ductility c) stability
b) solubility d) flexibility

443.The use of sea water in reinforced concrete 451.How do you determine the diameter of RSB?
is not allowed due to ____________. a) by Vernier Caliper b) by unit weight
a) no effect
b) cause of reduction in ultimate strength of concrete 452.Cement which has been in storage for so
c) induce corrosion of R.S.B long period that there isalready doubt as to its
d) b and c quality should be _____________.
a) retested prior to use c) authorized to use
b) not to used
b) 800 psi d) 1,200 psi
453.In abrasion test, a sample of 5,000 grams was
subjected to abrasion, a2,000 grams sample was 463.The surface condition of tack coat before the next
retained in no. 12 sieve after washing, what is the course should be applied is _______.
abrasion loss? a) wet c)dry
a) 50c) 60 b) sticky d) plastic
b) 40d) 30
464.The contractor shall give the Engineer at least
454.Different brand of cement should not be allowed _______ days notice prior to the beginning of work at
because _____________. the mill or shop where the metal structure has been
manufactured or fabricated, so that the required
a) different in texture c) varies in strength inspection may be made.
b) different in color when dried a) 14 c) 21
b) 17 d) 15
455.An apparatus used for field density test is called
___________. 465.The request for recoring shall be made by the
a) Sand cone c) Nuclear density meterb) Rubber ballo contractor within _________ weeks after the official
on d) all of the above result of the coring test has been released if the
structure failed to meet strength requirement.
456.Thickness tolerance in the construction of sub- a) one ( 1 ) c) three ( 3 )
base course is ____________. b) two ( 2 ) d) four ( 4 )
a) +/- 10 mm. c) +/-5 mm.
b) +/- 20 mm.d) +/- 15 mm. 466.A revised design strength for concrete works was
set forth from 14 daysto 7 days for concrete pavement
457.PH value of water used in concrete is for national roads and _____ days for major
___________. interchanges and busy intersection thus minimizing
a) 4 to 6 c) 6 to 10 occurrence of roadcongestion.
b) 6 to 8 d) 3 to 5 a) seven( 7 ) c) six ( 6 )
b) three ( 3 ) d) four ( 4 )
458.In what item of work emulsified asphalt and cut
back asphaltused? 467.Compressive strength for mortar samples test at
a) Tack Coatc) Seal Coat 3 days and 7 sevendays can be considered for
b)Prime Coat acceptance provided the strength of the samplesat 7
d) Bituminous Surface Course Hot-Laid days is not less than ________ Mpa which is 85% of
the compressivestrength for 28 days
459.What is the boundary between Coarse and Fine a) 22.08 c) 23.45
aggregates usedin concreting. b)24.84 d) 21.53
a) passing No. 3/8 sievec) passing No. 6 sieve
b)passing No. 4 sieve d) passing No. 8 sieve

460.The purpose of trial section is to check 468.The use of Fly Ash concrete mix as mineral
___________________. admixture in PCCP and as ______ % replaces the
a) the suitability of materials Portland cement in concrete mix.
b) the efficiency of the equipment a) 15 c) 25
c) the construction method proposed to be used b) 20 d)10
d) all of the above
469.This is an instrument used to measure pavement
461.In FDT, the volume of hole is determined by what? deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loading. The
a) Sand to fill hole over unit weight of dry sand results of the elastic deformation test are used to
b) Total material taken from hole over volume of hole evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help
c) Wet unit weight over 1 + MC/100 in the design of road strengthening measure and road
d) Dry unit weight over MDD x 100 capacity improvement
. a) Dynamic Cone Penetrator
462.What is the average compressive strength of b) Falling Weight Deflectometer
the load bearing concrete hollow blocks? c) Three ( 3 ) Meter Straight Edge
a) 1,000 psi c) 600 psi d) Benkelman Beam
b) swelling stage d) none of the above
470.This an equipment which is used to measure
differential deflection between joints of a concrete 479.In this stage, additional water replaces some of
pavement to determine the modulus of the existing the entrapped air and the soil particles move closer
slabs for use in the design of an overlay. together with a resulting increase in density.
a) Dynamic Cone Penetrometer a) wetting stage c) lubricating stage
b) Falling Weight Deflectometer b) swelling stage d) all of the above
c) Benkelman Beam
d) Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device 480.All boring during soil exploration survey shall
generally be carried to a depth of at least ______
471.In the foregoing illustration determine the average meter below the proposed grade line.
thickness of PCCP. Position ActualMeasurement1 a) one ( 1 ) c) 0.30
23.42 23.53 23.64 23.65 23.46 23.37 23.38 23.49 23.4 b) two and half ( 2 ½ ) d) 0.50
a) 23.433 b) 23.43 c) 23.4 d)23.4333
481.What is the factor that will influence the
472.Vibrator shall not be operated longer than construction of stabilized road?
______ seconds in anyone location. a) Depletion of the supply of economically available
a) 10 c) 20 materials
b) 15 d) 25 b) High cost involved in the construction of the
conventional types of road
473.How many rotation per second will the crank of a c) If the road structure may be built by stages, and a
liquid limit device be rotated? properly designed road might function briefly as a
a) three ( 3 ) rotations persecond wearing course
b) two and a half (2 ½ ) rotations per second d) All of the above
c) two ( 2 ) rotations per secondd) one and a half ( 1 ½
) rotations per second 482. What is the meaning of ASTM?
a) American Standard for Testing Materials
474.What is the required size of calibrated sand used b) American Standard for Testing and Materials
for FDT? c) American Society for Testing Materials
a) passing sieve No. 30 retained No. 200 d)American Society for Testing and Materials
b) passing sieve No. 20 retained No. 200
c) passing sieve No. 10 retained No. 200d) None of 483. In sampling bituminous materials, the composite
the above samples taken from a number of drums should have a
size sufficient for testing and should not be less _____
475.When placing concrete, what is the as called for in the guidelines on the submission
required temperature of concrete? of samples.
a) less than 29*C c) less than 30*C a) 5 liters c) 10 liters
b) less than 28*C d) less than 31*C b) 4 liters d) 6 liters

476.In PCCP coring, what is the specified thickness of 484.For semi solid materials, samples should be
an individual measurement that shall not be included taken at the center of the containers at least _____
in the average? mm. below the surface and 75 mm. from the sides with
a) less than 20 mm. c) less than 25 mm. the aid of a clean hatcher or patty knife.
b) more than 20 mm. d) more than 25 mm. a) 100 c) 75
b) 85 d) 50
477.__________ is the wearing away of the
pavement surface caused by the dislodging of 485.__________ test classify the different
aggregate particles. asphalts into types and the different types into grades.
a) Rutting c) Shoving a) Quality test c) Ductility test
b) Raveling d) Corrugation b) Consistency test d) All of the above

478.This is the stage in compaction in 486.This is the most important volatilization test
which all free air is expelled andreplaced by water, if on liquid asphalt products, its gives information as to
further pressure is applied to the soil mass, the actual amount of constituents remove at definite
thetendency is to reduce its volume. temperature.
a) wetting stage c) saturation stage a) Extraction test c) Evaporation test
b) Distillation test d) Softening test a) Yes c) It depends
b) No
487.This test indicate the purity of asphalt. d) Let the DPWH Project Engineer to decide
a) Specific Gravity c) Solubility
b) Viscosity d) Ductility 496.Is the accredited private testing laboratories
owned by companies involved in the supply of
488. This is the most important factor construction materials for DPWH project be allowed
which influences the stability of bituminous to test their own products?
mixture. a) Yes c) It depends
a) Gradation of mineral aggregate b) No d) Either a or c
b) Shape and surface texture of aggregate
c) Hardness of aggregate particles 497.For small projects where the quantity of steel bars
d) All of the above is less than 10,000kgs. What may be required as a
basis of acceptance.
489.The principal factor that a) P.E. Certificate c) Inspection Report
effect the flexibility of bituminous mixture is _______. b) Mill Certificate d) All of the above
a) the quality of bituminous binder
b)the quality of mineral filler 498.Lumber is considered well seasoned
c) temperature susceptibility of the binder when its moisture content is between _________.
d) all of the above a) 10 to 16% c) 10 to14%
b) 14 to 18% d) 15 to 20%
490.The application temperature of emulsified
asphalt ranges from ___________. 499.Flushing of bitumen to the surface after belting or
a) 66* to 107*C c) 20* to 66*C screeding the hot mixture denotes rich mixture.
b) 10* to 71*C d) 15* to 66*C a) true b) false neither of the two

491. Concrete deposited in water shall be Class 500.Unsuitable materials are those materials
Sealconcrete with a minimum cement factor of containing detrimental quantities of organic materials,
_______ per cubic meter of concrete. such as grass, roots, and sewerage and those that is
a) 12 bags per cu. m. c) 11 bags per cu. m. _____________.
b) 10 bags per cu. m. d) 9.5 bags per cu. m. a) high organic soils
b) soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 and / or PI > 55
492. A tremie shall consist of a tube having c) soils with very low density, 800kg/cu. m. or below
a diameter of not less than ______ mm. constructed in d) all of the above
section s having flanged couplings fitted with gasket
with a hopper at the top. 501.The set of cylinders for each project shall be
a) 200 c) 250 numbered consecutively beginning with 1 and three
b) 300 d) 150 specimens should be identified as A, B, and C. At the
early stage of pouring, the laboratory should be
requested to break the “A” cylinders at 7 days to check
what?
a) If the structure should be put in service
493. The fine aggregate used in stone masonry mortar at early stage
shall all pass No.____ sieve. a) 40 c) 30 b) tocheck the mix design
b) 8 d) 3/8 c) To check if there is unusual development when
admixture is usedd) All of the above
494.The coarse aggregate used in
Bituminous Concrete is _________. 502.The field specimen should be cured from 4 to 7
a) Retained on a 2.36 mm. ( No. 8 sieve ) days at the project under moist conditions obtained by
b) Retained on a 4.75 mm (No. 4 sieve ) __________.
c) retained on a 19.00 mm. ( No. ¾ sieve )d) both a a) covering with wet sand
and b b) covering with saw-dust
c) covering with palay-straw
495.As Materials Engineer, will you permit the use of d) all of the above
salvage soil aggregate for lie stabilized road mix base
course?
503.The cured cylindrical samples shall be 511. What is the allowable smooth riding quality of
transported to the Regional Laboratory or any testing PCCP?
laboratory accredited by the DPWH a) 5.00 mm. c) 3.00 mm.
in ________________. b) 8.00 mm. d) 6.00 mm.
a) on top of sand
b) Carefully packed and crated surrounded with damp 512. What is the penetration grade of bitumen prime
sawdust or palay straw coat?
c) On boxes with sand surrounding the cylinders a) 60 – 70 c) 85 – 100
d) all of the above b 120 – 150 d) none of the above

504. The penetration grade of concrete joint

sealer, hot poured elastictype is _________
a) 80 – 100 c) 100 – 120 513. The spraying application temperature of all
b) below 90 d) 40 – 60 grades of asphalt cement should not be more
than ________.
505. The CBR is generally selected at what a) 211*C c) 135*C
penetration? b) 159*C d) 204*C
a) 5.08 mm. c) 2.54 mm.
b) 3.1 mm. d) 3.50 mm. 514.What is the rate of application of bituminous prime
coat using cutback asphalt?
506.A soil aggregate that has a CBR value of 20 a) 0.5 to 0.7 liters/sq. m. c)1.0 to 1.1 liters/sq. m.
means that in the condition tested, the resistance to b) 1.0 to 2.0 liters/sq. m.
penetration of the standard piston was ______ of the d) 1.10 to 2.0 liters/sq.m.
standard resistance of a compacted soil or aggregate.
a) 40% c) 10% 515.What is the weight boulders required for class A
b) 20% d) 80% grouted riprap?
a) 10 to 25 kgs c) 15 to 30 kgs.
507.For liquid asphaltic materials, these are run on the b) 15 to 25 kgs. d) 20 to 30 kgs.
residue afterdistillation.
a) consistency test c)ductility test 516. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by
b) quality test d) cement mixing test laboratory test, the degree of compaction required for
aggregate subbase should be
508.The basic aim of compaction is to produce a soil at least _____________.
mass that will satisfy what criteria? a) 95% c) 100%
a) settlement c)permeability b) 98% d) 90%
b) stability d) all of the above
517. Where to determine the amount of mixing water
509.When do the embankment become friable in dry to use when compacting the soil in the field to attain
weather , ravel at the edges and abrade severely maximum density.
under traffic and will become dusty in service and a) Trial Section c) Control Strip
much of the binder soil is simply blown away during b) Field Density Test d) Lab. Compaction Test
the dry season.
a) The embankment is non- plastic 518.For soil classification purposes as in AASHTO
b) The embankment lacks compaction M45, what is not required?
c) Materials fails CBR test a) combined sieve and mechanical analysis
d) None of the above b) sieve analysis
c) the wash test
510. When the embankment tends to soften in wet d) none of the above
weather, and PCCP constructed of such material
develop ruts under traffic an d may shift and shove to 519.This is widely used to control the characteristics
develop a wash board surface, the plasticity index of of soil which are to be incorporated in roadways.
such materialis ____________. a) The Limit Test c) The Group Index
a) P.I. is too high c) P.I. is too low b) The soil classification d) all of the above
b) Neither a & b d) both a & b
520. In direct shear test, the soil is sheared to failure
by moving one part of the soil sample relatively to the
other part along a pre-determined plane. When several c) 0.08% d) 0.05%
tests are made on a soil under different normal loads
and the results are plotted in arithmetic scales, the 528.The permissible variation of reinforcing steel bars
resulting line is made in the form of ____________. bigger than 9.0mm. shall not exceed _____.
a) Straight line c) parabola a) 10% b) 5% c)8% d) 6%
b) Hyperbola d) semi-elliptical
529.A type of cement that sets and hardens by
521.In conducting soil exploration survey, what chemical interaction with water and is capable of doing
equipment you will use in obtaining undisturbed so underwater.
samples. a) Portland Cement
a) split spoon sampler b) Hydraulic Cement
c)screw type soil auger sampler c) Air-Retaining Portland cement
b) thin-walled sampler d) Post-hole auger sampler d) All of the above

522. Bituminous stabilization in the process of mixing 530. The spacing center to center of
intimately pulverized soil and bituminous material. circumferential reinforcement of all pipes shall not
What is the minimum bearing capacity (soaked exceed its wall thickness and shall in no
CBR ) of the mixture? caseexceed _______________.
a) 80% c) 98% a) 150mm. b) 200 mm. c) 100 mm. d) 250 mm.
b) 100% d) 95%
531. Oversanded and undersanded concrete mixtures
523. Portland cement stabilization road mix base require more water in order to be workable but will only
course is an intimate mixture of pulverized soil, result to ______________.
Portland cement and water which is thoroughly a) Good surface texture b) water tightens
compacted while in a moist condition to form a c) Weak strength d) all of the above
structural road material when the cement hydrates and
crystallizes. What is the mass percent wearof soil 532. For every lean mixes or low cement content of
aggregate used in this stabilization? the mixture, What determines the flexural strength of
a) 40% c) not more than 40% the concrete.
b) 45% d) 50% a) The strength of aggregate b) The mortar strength
c) The water cement ratio d) All of the above
524. For a rich mixture of cement in concrete, what
determines the flexuralstrength of the concrete? 533. This is a method of determining in-place density
a) Mortar strength c) both a & b of soil that can be used satisfactorily in moist, cohesive
b) the strength of aggregate fine grained material only. The sample is obtained by
d) the water/cement ratio forcing a small thin walled cylinder into the material
with a
525. This is a new method of soil stabilization being driving head and hammer or other suitable apparatus.
introduced to improve the properties of soil which is Ans.Drive Cylinder Method
effective and at the same time cheaper.
a) Stabilization by the use of Geotextiles 534.This method of test is intended to determine the
b) Cement stabilization density of cohesive soil and stabilized soil by
c) Bituminous stabilization measuring the weight and volume of undisturbed
d) Lime stabilization samples.
Ans. Block, Chunk orCore Sampling
526.As per guidelines on submission of
samples, laboratory trial mixes should be made on 535.This method covers the determination of the
aggregates which are proposed tube used for the first density in-place of compacted or firmly bonded soil
time, in this case what is the weight of fine aggregates by using a flexible membrane and liquid that can be
to be submitted for testing? used to measure the volume of a test hole soil with an
a) 100 kgs. c) 50 kgs. accuracy within 1.0%.
b) 70 kgs. d) 80 kgs. Ans. By Rubber Balloon Method

527.The phosphorous content of reinforcing steel bars 536.This method covers the determination of the total
bigger than 9.0mm shall not exceed _______. or wet density of soil and soil aggregate in-place by
a) 0.18% b) 0.06%
the attenuation of gamma rays, where the gamma 548.If impossible to air-dry the sample under the
detector, or both, remains at or near the surface. heat of the sun whatalternative should be used?
Ans. Nuclear Method Ans. oven dry the sample at 60*C

537.What are the three major groups of soil?

Ans. 1) granular 2) fine grained 3) organic 549.Sample for compaction test should pass to what
sieve?
538.What are the common laboratory test required for Ans. method A & B use sample passing sieve #4;
soil? method C & D usesample passing #3/4
Ans. a) sieve analysis b) plastic and liquid limit
test c) compaction test (moisture- 550.What is the difference between T-99 and T-180
density relation) d) CBR e) Abrasion Test (Mass pe compaction test method?
rcent of Wear) f) Unit weight g) Moisture Content Ans. T-99 uses 2.5kg.(5.5lbs.) rammer with a drop
of 12” height, while T-180 uses 4.54kg.(10 lbs.)
539.What are the common field test? rammer with a drop of 18” height
Ans. To determine the degree of compaction of
soil or it is a control test in embankment 551.What are the particle size analysis?
construction to ensure adequate compaction Ans. It is the determination of particle size
distribution in soil by sieve, hydrometer, or
540.What is moisture content? combined analysis
Ans. It is the amount of water present in the soil
552. What are the other terms or particles size
541.What is the different between analysis?
natural moisture content with Ans. 1) sieve analysis 2) mechanical analysis 3) gr
hydroscopic moisture content? ading test/analysis
Ans. Natural moisture contentis the moisture of
undisturbed soil sample while hydroscopic 553.What is the liquid limit?
moisture content is the moisture of air-dried soil Ans. it is the lowest moisture content at which the
sample. soil will flow upon the application of a very small
shearing force.
542.What is the formula used for moisture
content determination? 554.The liquid limit is expressed as the
Ans. Moisture Content = (wt. Of water/wt. Of oven dried moisture content corresponding to
sample) x100 what number of blows?
Ans. 25 blows
543.Weighing hot sample is not advisable as it
affects the accuracy of result. 555.What test are used in soil classification?
Ans. True Ans. 1) grading or sieve analysis 2) plastic and
liquid limit

544. What are the methods use in reducing 556.What is plastic limit?
samples from the field totesting size? Ans. It is the minimum moisture content at which
Ans. 1) sample splitter 2) quartering the soil can be readily molded without breaking or
crumbling
545.What is the required temperature for
oven drying the soil sample? 557.What kind of water shall be used in laboratory
Ans. 110*C +/- 5*C test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Ans. Distilled water
546.How can you determine if the soil sample is
already oven dried? 558.Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised
Ans. dried if it reached its constant weight allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height
of what?
547.How to prepare or to come up with air-dried soil Ans. 10 mm.
sample?
Ans. air dry the sample under the heat of the sun 559.How many rotation per second will the crank of a
liquid limit device be rotated?
Ans. 2 rotations per second 574.What is the minimum percent field density or
degree of compaction foritem 104 (embankment)?
560.In doing a plastic limit test, to what diameter shall Ans. 95% minimum
the soil thread began to break?
Ans. 3.2 mm. ( 1/8” ) 575.What is the minimum degree of
compaction for item 200 and 201?
561.What is the formula for plastic limit? Ans. 100% minimum
Ans. PL = (Wa – Wb)/Wb x 100Where: Wa = original
wt of crumbled soil thread Wb = wt of oven dried 576.What is the highest point in moisture density
crumbled soil562.What is Plastic Index (PI)? curve of the moisturedensity relation test or
Ans. It is the difference between the liquid compaction test of soil represent?
limit and the plastic limit;PI = LL-PL Ans. MDD(Maximum Dry Density)
and OMC (Optimum Moisture Content
563.What is specific gravity?
Ans. It is a gravimetric-volumetric relationship 577.What is the required size of calibrated sand used
in soils (or defined asthe ratio of the wt in air of an for FDT?
equal volume of water at a statedtemp.) Ans. Any clean, dry, free-flowing uncemented sand
passing # 10 andretained # 200 sieves
564.What is the approximate area for density control
strip?Ans. 335 sq. m.565.What is the maximum depth 578.What is the degree of compaction of soil having
of roadway embankment perhorizontal layer in loose a maximum dry density2,250kg/cu. m. and wet density
measurement? of soil from hole equivalent to 2,335kg/cu.m. and an
Ans. 200 mm. (8”) average moisture content of 8.85%?
Ans. % Degree of Compaction = (Dry density/Max.
566.What item of work is embankment?Ans. Item 1045 dry density) x 100 Where ; Dry density = Wet
67.What is the kind of material used for item 200? density/(1+MC/100)Wet density = wt of soil filled
Ans. Aggregate subbase course in a hole/volume of hole% degree of compaction =
{(2,335)/[1+(8.85/100)] x 100}/2,250=
568.What is the required particle size for selected (2,145.15/2,250) x 100= 95.34%
borrow for toppingunder item 104 (embankment)?
Ans. All particle size will pass a sieve 75 mm. or 3” 579.Is the soil for No.45 passed the item 104
square opening and notmore than 15% will pass requirement for %degree of compaction?
0.075 mm. (No. 20) AASHTO 11 Ans. G or Grading = 2P or Plasticity = 2C or
Compaction = 2D or Density = three in-site density
569.P.I. requirement for item 104 (selected common test/500 sq. m.
borrow) is __________.
Ans. 6 maximum 580.What are the test and number of test needed for
2,960 cu.m. Aggregate Base Course?
570.L.L. requirement for item 104 (selected common Ans. sand cone, jug (at least4 liters), guide plate,
borrow) is ____________. moisture cans, sand, weighing scale, oven with
Ans. 30 maximum temperature control, chisel or digging tools,
plastic bags and labeling materials (tag number)
571.What is the LL requirement for item 200
(aggregate subbase course)passing sieve # 40?
Ans. 12 maximum 581.What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT
sand cone?
Ans. ½ inch (12.7 mm.)
572.Coarse portion retained on sieve # 10 (2.00 mm.)
of item 200 shall havea mass percent of wear by Los 582.How many hours does a
Angeles Abrasion test of _______________. fine aggregates tested for specificgravity and
Ans. 50% maximum absorption be soaked in water?
Ans. 15 to 19 hrs.
573.The required CBR value for item 300?
Ans. 25% minimum (AASHTO T 180 method D) 583.How will you determine if the fine aggregates
reaches thesaturated surface dry condition?
Ans. It is determine by theuse of cone test for
surface moisture and if the molded shape of 594. What do you call a sample for concrete
fineaggregate slump slightly it indicates that it has pavement?
reached a surface-drycondition. Ans. Concrete beam sample

584.What are the test required for 595. How many sample should be taken for every 75
concrete aggregates? cu, m. of fresh concrete?
Ans. 1) Fine Agg: Grading, specific gravity, Ans. 3 pcs. sample or 1 set sample
absorption, dry unit wt.2) Coarse Agg: grading,
specific gravity, absorption, dry unit wt, and 596. What do you call the sample for structural
abrasion Note: soundness is also tested as perreq concrete?
uest Ans. Concrete cylinder sample

585.What is the maximum mass % of wear 597. What is the test use to determine the
by Los Angeles Abrasion Test? consistency of concrete?
Ans. 40% maximum Ans. Slump test

586.What is the required speed of Los Angeles 598. How to compute for the slump of concrete?
Abrasion Machine per minute? Ans. Slump = Ht. Of slump cone – ht. Of fresh
Ans. 30 to 33 rpm concrete aftersubsidence

587.What is the size or diameter and weight of cast- 599.How to compute for the compressive strength of
iron spheres use in abrasion? concretecylinder sample?
Ans. Approximately 46.8 mm dia. andweighing Ans. CS = P/A where: P= loads, lbs. A = area, sq.
between 390-455 grams m.A = [rD(sq)] / 4 = 28.27 sq. m

588.What is the required total wt. of sample for 600.At what age should a concrete beam sample be
abrasion test of coarse aggregate grading A with 12 tested for flexural test? Ans. 4 days
number of sphere?
Ans. 5,000 grams +/- 25 grams 601.How to compute the flexural strength for
third point loading test?
589.What is the significance of abrasion test? Ans. R = (PL)/(bxdxd) = P(18”)/(6” x 6” x 6”) =
Ans. It evaluate the structural strength of coarse P/12where: R = modulus of ruptureP = Load in lbs.
aggregates- gives an indication of quality as or tonsL = span length in inchesb = base in
determined by resistance to impact and wear - inchesd = depth in inches
it determines whether the aggregate will have
degradation during traffic or rolling 602.What is the minimum flexural strength for third
point loadingtest?
590.Quality test for cement is represented by Ans. 3.8 Mpa (550 psi)
how many bags of cement?
Ans. 2,000 bags or fraction thereof 603.What is the minimum flexural strength for center
point loading test?
Ans. 4.5 Mpa (650 psi)
591.What is the sieve use in sieving materials 604.How to compute for flexural strength at center
from Abrasion Machine? point loading?
Ans. Sieve # 12 (1.70 mm.) Ans. R = (3PL)/(bxdxd) = 3P(18)/2x9x6x6

592. Testing machine should be calibrated once 605. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should
every six (6) months if possible but if it not possible the sample be taken from a stationary mixers,
what is the required time should the machine revolving drum truck mixers or agitators?
be calibrated? Ans. two or more regular intervals during
Ans. Once a year discharge of middle portion of the batch

593. What is the percent tolerance of error in 606. What is the size of tamping rod use in sampling
calibrating the machine? concrete?
Ans. +/- 1%
Ans. 16 mm. (5/8 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24
inches) long with the tamping end rounded to a 620.SS-1 or SS-1h is what kind of asphalt
hemispherical tip of the same dia. as the rod Ans. Slow Setting Emulsified Asphalt

607. Concrete Masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to 621.What are the three (3) kinds of Emulsified
test, how many sample isrequired? Asphalt?
Ans. 6 pcs./10,000 units 12 pcs. if morethan 10,000 Ans. Rapid Setting, Medium Setting and Slow
units608.What is the strength requirement for load Setting
bearing
concrete masonryunits? Ans. individual = 5.5 Mpa 622.What asphalt contains water?
(800 psi)minimumAverage(for 3 samples) = 4.14 Ans. Emulsified Asphalt
Mpa (600 psi) minimum
623.What is the penetration grade for blown asphalt?
609.What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel Ans. 0 to 30
bars?
Ans. to determine the yield and tensile strength of 624.What is the ideal penetration grade of asphalt
the bar as well as its elongation and is used to use in Tropical Region?
classify the bars into grade Ans. 85 to 100 (but some uses 60 to 70)

610.What is the required length of RSB for testing? 625.Tack coat is used in an existing bituminous or
Ans. 1 meter/10,000 kgs./size/shipment concrete pavement.
Ans. True
611.What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Ans. to evaluate the ductile properties of RSB 626. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack
coat?
612.What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. Ans. 0.2 to 0.7 liter/ sq. m.
sheets?
Ans. 60 mm. x 60 mm. ( 3pcs. from one sheet/100 627. What is the rate of application of bituminous
sheets prime coat?
Ans. 1 to 2 liters/sq.m.
613.What is the required sample for paint?
Ans. 1 can ( gal. or pail )/100 cans (gal. or pail ) 628. For how many hours or how long shall a
bituminous prime coat left undisturbed?
614.What kind of paint had reflectance in the form of Ans. 24 hrs.
beads?
Ans. Reflectorized Traffic Paint 629. What kind of asphalt is used as prime coat?
Ans. Cut-back asphalt (medium curing or rapid
curing)
615.What is the common components of house paint?
Ans. pigment and vehicle 630. Bituminous prime coat is use to treat
surface of base course.
Ans. True

616.What is this construction material that is dark 631.No tack coat or prime coat shall be applied when
brown to blackcementatious material in which the weather is foggy or rainy.
the predominating constituent arebitumen? Ans. True
Ans. Asphalt
632.What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
617.What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt? Ans. cut-back asphalt (rapid curing) or emulsified
Ans. Asphalt cement asphalt

618.What are liquid asphalt? 633.Where should the bituminous seal coat be used?
Ans. Cut-back asphalt and Emulsified Asphalt Ans. on an existing bituminous surface course
with or without an application of aggregates
619.What is the use of blown asphalt or hard asphalt?
Ans. Use as joint filler or water proofing
634.If concrete cylinder sample for RCP is not Ans. Joint Filler Asphalt (commonly called
available for compression test one (1) whole piece hard asphalt
RCP for every 50 pcs. RCP will be submitted
for quality test. 647.The main problem associated with wrong practice
Ans. True of conveying concreteis called ______.
Ans. Segregation
635.One set (3 pcs ) concrete cylinder sample shall be
taken for every how many pieces of RCP? 648.The specification call for 1:2:3 concrete mix.
Ans. 25 pcs. In one bagger mixer, whichof the following amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
636.In submitting samples for testing, what particular Ans. 20 i\liters
form is beingaccomplished?
Ans. sample card 649. A one lane road, with a pavement width
of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of 0.5 meter on each
637.as a Materials Engineer of the project what is the side of the pavement, was designed to have subbase
report accomplished every week? and base courses with a combined thickness of 300
Ans. Quality Control Assurance Report mm. If the thickness of the subbase is a 125 mm. the
spreading and compaction of the subbase and base
638.What do you call the report to be submitted course shall be carried out in ______.
at end of the month? Ans. 3 layer over the full width of 4.5 m.
Ans. Monthly Materials Report

639.How to determine the proportion of cement ,

water, fine aggregates and coarse aggregates?
Ans. by means of Concrete Design Mix 650.as Material Engineer, what is the area of
trial section that you would recommend to check the
640.How to determine the thickness of pavement? suitability of the materials and efficiency of the
Ans. by means of concrete core equipment to be used for item 310, Bituminous
Concrete Surface course?
641. How to determine the asphalt content of Ans. about 500 sq. m.
bituminous mix?
Ans. by means of extraction test 651.Per program of work, the estimated volume of
item 201 materials is7,500 cu. m. How many grading
642.In an extraction test, aside from the asphalt what and plasticity test are required based
other materials being extracted? onthe DPWH minimum testing requirements?
Ans. Aggregates or compositeaggregates Ans. 25 grading and 25plasticity
(minerals of fine & coarse aggregates)
652. Bituminous concrete mixes contain asphalt by
weight equivalent to what?
Ans. 5 to 8%
643. What is being determined in a core sample from
asphalt pavement/ 653.Quality of factory-produced reinforced concrete
Ans. thickness of pavement and density of pipes may be best-established through what?
pavement Ans. Test of concrete pipe samples

644.All records regarding quality control 654.Where do we take additional cores

such as accomplishment,daily activities, weather etc. when the measurement of anycore taken from the
are recorded in a ________. pavement is deficient in thickness by more
Ans. Materials Log Book than25 mm?
Ans.At no less than 5 meters intervals parallel to
645.The standard penetration test (SPT) is an in-site the centerline in eachdirection from the affected
test that measureswhat? location
Ans. depth of soil layer
655.The results of Immersion-Compression test
646.Which of the following bituminous material is conducted on an asphalt mix sample are as
best recommended forsealing weakened plane joints? follows: Dry stability = 2,000 Kpa Wet stability = 1,000
Kpa. What is the resulting index of retained strength? 665.During the application of the first half of the
Does it meet the specification requirement of item 310 anticipated load a _______ rate of loading shall be
Bituminous Concrete Course? permitted.
Ans. Index of Retained strength = (Wet Ans. higher rate
stability/Dry stability) x
100= (1,000 Kpa/2,000 Kpa) x 100= 50%No it does 666.Initial rolling in bituminous mixes shall be perform
not meet the specification of item 310 since the with a _____ roller.
specification of IRS is 70% minimum while Ans. Pneumatic Tire Roller
the resulting IRS is only50%
667.Final rolling in bituminous mixes shall be perform
656.Quality Control testing in a DPWH with a _________ roller.
project is the responsibility of the ___________. Ans. 3-wheel or Tandem type steel wheel roller
Ans. DPWH and Contractor’s Materials Engineers
668.Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discounted
657.As Material Engineer, when is the right time to whenever it begins to produce excessive ______ or
start sampling and testing aggregates of the course ________.
materials? Ans. pulverizing of the aggregate or displacement
Ans. before the course materials be incorporated of the mixture
in the project
669.Final rolling shall be continued until roller
658.The spot test on asphalt is used to determine marks are eliminated and a minimum of _____ mass
what? percent of the density of the laboratory compacted
Ans. overheating during manufacture specimens prepared in accordance with AASHTO
T160 has been obtained.
659.Under what climatic condition(s) do we Ans. 95 mass percent
use the lower penetration grades or hard asphalt?
Ans. hot climate 670. sample from compacted bituminous mix shall be
neatly cut by saw or core drill. Each sample shall be at
660.Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should least ____________.
be taken on the _______ batch discharge of the transit Ans. 150 mm. x 150 mm. or 100mm diameter full
mixer. depth
Ans. middle
671. For surface tolerance the surface (bituminous
661.Soft and unstable soils were encountered mix) will be check by the use of a _____ at sites
during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were selected by the Engineer.
the Materials Engineer assigned to the project, what is Ans. 3 meter straight edge
the most effective and cheaper method that you would
recommend to stabilized the soil prior to the 672.What is the sample requirement for
construction of the subbase course? paving concrete for every 75cu. m. or fraction thereof?
Ans. Geotextiles Ans. One (1) set (consisting of 3pcs.) concrete
beam sample
662. How many times per layer should a concrete
specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21” beam mold be 673.In testing bituminous mix sample for Immersion-
rodded? Compression Stability the sample is soaked in water
Ans. 63 times bath for ______ days.
Ans. four (4)
663. What is the basis for acceptance or rejection
of any constructionmaterials? 674.Given:
Ans. Materials Test Report Wt. of dry aggregate = 950grams
Wt. of asphalt = 50 grams
664.In testing concrete cylinder sample the load What is the total % of asphalt weight of total mix
applied should be continuous without shock at a Ans. Wt. of total mix = wt. of dry agg. + wt.
constant rate within the range of _______ per second. of asphalt= 950 + 50 = 1,000 gramstherefore:
Ans. 0.14 to 0.34Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per (50grams/1,000grams) x 100 = 5%
second
675.Does the percent asphalt in problem above meet exceeding 45 minutes and that water cement ratio
the requiredspecification for percent asphalt in is not exceeded
bituminous mixes? Why?
Ans. yes, because standard specification for 686.What is the percent weight of aggregates (coarse,
percent asphalt inbituminous mixes is 5 to 8% fine and mineral filler)in the mixture of bituminous
concrete surface coarse?
676.If the actual percent asphalt in the problem Ans. 92 to 95%
above is 5% and the percent asphalt in a job-mix 5.6%
did it pass the required tolerance? Why? 687.What is the percent weight of asphalt in the
Ans. No, because the required tolerance for % bituminous mixture?
asphalt in a job-mix formula is+/-0.4% Ans. 5 to 8%

677.Which is not the 688.How can we establish the exact percentage to be

duty or responsibility of Materials Engineer? used in the bituminous mixture?
Ans. quantity of construction materials Ans. Job-mix formula

678.Which is the duty or responsibility of a 689.What are the two types of bitumen that are
Materials engineer? commonly used in bituminous concrete surface
Ans. quality of construction materials course?
Ans.
679.Problem regarding quality of construction 1) Tar- is viscous liquid obtained from distillation
materials shall be reported directly by the of coal or wood
contractor’s Materials Engineer to the __________. 2) Petroleum Asphalt – are the product of the
Ans. DPWH Materials Engineer distillation of crude oil

680.How many concrete cylinder is required for a 690.What are the three major petroleum asphalt
3,000 pcs. Reinforced concrete pipe culvert? product?
Ans.
Ans.120 sets (consisting of 3 pcs. concrete 1) Asphalt cement – produced in various viscosity
cylinder per set) grade, the most common penetration grade are,
200/300, 120/150, 85/100,40/50
681.If the concrete cylinder is not available for a 3,000 2)Cut-back asphalt – are asphalt mixed with
pcs. culvert pipes,how many pipes shall be subjected solvents to reduce their viscosity
to test? 3) Emulsified Asphalt – are mixture of asphalt
Ans. 60 pcs. culvert pipes cement and water with emulsifying agen

682.What kind of test that requires calibrated sand in 691.What are the solvents for cut back asphalt?
filling the hole in orderto determine the volume of Ans.
hole? 1) gasoline – for rapid curing type
Ans. Field Density Test (FDT) 2) kerosene – for medium curing type
3) diesel fuel – for slow curing type
683.What do you call the test using a rammer and
a mold?
Ans. Moisture Density Relation Test or 692.Emulsified asphalt are either _____ and
Compaction Test _________.
Ans.
684.What kind of asphalt has a penetration grade of 0 1) cationic emulsion – which work better with wet
to 30 mm.? aggregate
Ans. Blown Asphalt And in cold weather
2) anionic emulsion – which adhere better to
685.If there is a necessary to add water to the aggregate Which have positive charges
concrete mix in order to increase is workability
(provided concrete does not exceed specified 693.What is the bituminous material commonly used in
slump).How many minutes after the initial of the mixing item 310?
does adding of water be permitted? Ans.not Ans. Asphalt cement (AC)
694.What greatly influence the service of an Ans. 70%
asphalt pavement?
Ans. grade and quantity of asphalt 705.What is the most commonly used method in the
design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes?
Ans. Marshall Stability Method

695.What influence primarily the grade of asphalt 706.The quality control test for asphalt mix are
selected? the following:
Ans. Climatic condition Ans.
1) Immersion-Compression Test – determines the
696.The lower penetration grade or hard asphalt is index of retained strength of the mix
used in ____________. 2) Extraction and Grading Test – determines the
Ans. hot climate asphalt content and particles size distribution of
coarse and fine aggregates
697.The higher penetration grade or softer asphalt is 3) Laboratory density test – determines the degree
used in____________. of compaction
Ans. cold climate
707.What is the correct temperature that the
698.How many weeks does a producer of asphalt mix mixture shall be placed as measured in the truck just
or the contractor shall submit the job-mix formula? prior to dumping into the spreader?
Ans. three (3) weeks prior to production Ans. 107*C

699.Who will approved the job –mix formula? 708.When tar is used, what is the temperature that the
Ans. DPWH Project Engineer and Materials mixture shall be placed?
Engineer Ans. 66*C to 107*C

700.The job-mix formula contains 709.When shall the compaction be done in order
provisions on the following: to attain the required density?
Ans. Ans. when the mixture is still hot and workable
1) grading
2) percentage and type of asphalt 710. How to determine the number of passes that
3) temp. of agg. andasphalt would attain the required density?
4) temp. of mixture upon delivery or at time of com Ans. trial section
paction
711.What control during the mixing and compaction is
701.What is the primary quality of great significance in the strength of the resulting
control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtur pavement?
e? Ans. temperature
Ans. Job-
mix formula which shall conformto the following ra 712.What kind of roller should be used for the initial or
nges of tolerance: breakdown compaction?
Passing No. 4 and larger sieves +/- 7%Passing No. Ans. Pneumatic smooth wheeled roller (not less
8 to No. 100 sieves +/- 4%Passing No. 200 +/- than 10 tons)
2%Bituminous Materials +/-
0.4% Temperature of mixture +/- 10*C 713.What is the speed of the roller?
Ans. 5 km/hr
702.What is the minimum dry compressive
strength of the mixture? 714.How is the rolling be done?
Ans. 1.4 Mpa (200 psi) Ans. It should begin from the side and proceed
longitudinally parallel toward the road centerline,
703.The mixture shall have a mass percent air voids each trip overlapping one half the rollers width
with the range of _________.
Ans. 3.0% - 5% 715.After the final rolling what should be checked?
Ans. degree of compaction
704. What is the Index of Retained Strength of the
mixture?
716.The compacted pavement shall have a 728.How long shall the forms remain undisturbed after
density equal to or greater than ___________. concrete pouring?
Ans. 97% of the laboratory compacted Ans. 24 hrs.
density
729.What is the difference between item 504 and item
717.When is the traffic be permitted to enter the 505?
pavement? Ans. placement of stone or boulders and the ratio
Ans. when the pavement has cooled to of cement and fine sand
atmospheric temperature
730.What is the ratio of fine aggregates to number
718.How many samples shall be taken for each full of bags of cementfor grout in item 504 and 505?
days operation? Ans. for item 504 its one partcement to three part
Ans. at least one but not more than three (3) core fine sand (1:3)for item 505 its one part cement to
samples two parts fine sand (1:2)

719.What is the dimension of the samples taken full 731. Penetration and ductility test of asphalt are done
depth from the finish pavement for thickness in __________ temperature.
determination? a) 60*C b) 25*C c) 50*C d) 10*C
Ans. 150 mm. or 100 mm diameter
732. This is the most fluidest and lightest of all the
720.How is the sample taken from the finished grade of Medium Curing Cut-back Asphalt.
pavement? a) MC – 30
Ans. by means of core drill or saw b) MC– 70
c) MC – 800
721.How is the surface level of the finished d) MC – 300
pavement being check?
Ans. by the use of 3 meters straight edge 733.The only kind of asphalt that can be used
in all bituminous item of work.
722. The variation of the surface from the testing a) Asphalt Cement
edge of the straight between contacts with the surface b) Cut-back Asphalt
shall not exceed ________.. c) Emulsified Asphalt
Ans. 6 mm d) All of the above

. 734.Retempering of concrete or mortar, which has

723.What determine the thickness and density of partially hardened, will be permitted with the addition
compacted asphalt pavement? of cement, aggregate or water.
Ans. core test a) yes
b) no
724. What is the strength c) it depends on the condition of concrete
requirement (flexural strength) of a concrete when d) check the slump
tested by third point loading method?
Ans. 3.8 Mpa (550 psi) 735.What is the minimum number of
representative cores that shall be taken from each
725.What is the compressive strength of the PCCP member area of concrete in place that is considered
when rested at 14days? deficient?
Ans. 24.1 Mpa (3500 psi) a) 3 cores
b) 4 cores
726.What is the slump of a workable concrete if not c) 5 cores
vibrated? d) core must be taken at 5 meter interval backward
Ans. 40 – 75 mm, when vibrated the slump is 10 to & forward of the designed sta.
40 mm

727.What kind of form used in item 311?

Ans. steel forms and a depth equal to the 736. The strength level of concrete will be considered
thickness of the pavement satisfactory if the average of all sets of three
consecutive strength test result equal or exceed the
specified strength and no individual strength test result 748.When the right time is the joint be sealed?
is deficient by more than how many percent? Ans. after the curing period or before it is
a) 25% b) 20% c) 15% d) 10% opened to traffic

737. For major interchanges and busy intersection, 749.What is item 504 in DPWH specification?
PCCP will be allowed to open on the ----------- to Ans. Grouted Riprap
minimize occurrence of road congestion.
a) 14th day b) 10thday c) 12thday d) 7thday 750.What is item 505 in DPWH specifications?
Ans. Stone Masonry
738.The width of the weaken plane joint is
__________. 751.This is the empirical indicator of the clay fraction
Ans. not more than 6 mm. of a binder material in a stabilized soil mixture.
a) Group Index b) Liquid Limit
739. When is the right time to saw the weaken plane c) Plasticity Index d) Plastic Limit
joint?
Ans. within 24 hrs. as soon as concrete has 752. When water is added to the mixture to bring the
hardened sufficiently slump within required limit, it shall be injected into the
mixer under such pressure and direction of flow that
740. What shall be done if cracks appear at or the requirement for uniformity and desired slump of
near the joint prior to the time of sawing? concrete are met. The drum shall be turned on
Ans. sawing shall be omitted additional _______ revolution or more.
a) 10 revolutions
741. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with b) 45 revolutions
____________. c) 30 revolutions
Ans. asphalt or other materials d) 15 revolutions

742. What is the metal device that is used as a load

transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface
and centerline of the slab of pavement? 753. Job-mix formula submitted for approval shall
Ans. dowels propose definite singlevalues for, except _____.
a) % of aggregate passing each specified sieve
743. To protect dowel from corrosion and to facilitate b) Temperature of the mixture delivered on the road
sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _________. c) Percent of bituminous materials to be added
Ans. thin film of bitumen d) Mixing time of the mixture in the batching plant

744. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened 754. For small contract project of the DPWH located in
by means of ____________. remote areas where the quality of cement to be used
Ans. Brooming is too small and where there are no accessible testing
laboratory to check the quality of materials, exception
745.What is the depth of corrugation produce by in the requirements for performance of laboratory test
brooming in the surface of the pavement? in cement prior to use may be allowed provided that
Ans. 1.5 mm. the trial mixes be done for every ___________.
a) Deformation characteristic of soil
746.The surface of the newly placed concrete when b) Engineering properties of the underlying soils
it is sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of c) Arrangement of soil strata
_________. d) Field Density of soil
Ans. 72 hrs.
755. How many days shall the Engineer be notified
747.The curing of the pavement are done on the in advance of the date that the treating process will be
following: performed in order that the untreated lumber, the
Ans.1) by covering the concrete with mats treatment process and the finished treatment timber
saturated with water may all be inspected?
2) thoroughly wetting the pavement a)15 days
3) by ponding4) by applying curing compound b) 10 days
after finishing of the surface c) 21 days
d) 7 days
Quality Control and Its Significance

QUALITY CONTROL FORMULA

HQ (M + W) = (HQ + E) S
WHERE:
HQ = High Quality
M = Materials
W = Work
E = Economical
S = Structure

Quality Control is an essential part of engineering practice and its vital to the development of
better public works, highways or other infrastructures. It is necessary when one party, the
builder/contractor, does the work for another party, the owner.

The owner is the individual or company who needs for a structure but does not have the
ability to build it himself. So he hires another party to do it for him.

The other party is the contractor, also an individual or company, who builds for others.

The two enter into contract, including the plans and specifications which contain, among
others, the agreed-upon requirements and the compensation to be paid.

WHAT IS QUALITY CONTROL?

Quality is degree of excellence. It is described by such general item as: STABLE, DURABLE,
RIGID OR FLEXIBLE. Some equate it to cost, others to comfort. However, quality for different
individuals may vary since it is influenced by factors such as: ECONOMICS, AESTHETICS, SAFETY OR
PERFORMANCE LEVEL.

Quality control is checking for conformance to requirements.

It is widely and increasingly used in the construction industry.
It is instituted during the course of construction as a preventive tool, not as corrective
measure. Preventive measures are always more economical.

WHAT IS CONTROL?

Control is to regulate . It is usually used in relation to weight, population, or prices.

It is instituted when there is a need to check or regulate due to some important, compelling
reasons.

THE MODERN CONCEPT OF QUALITY CONTROL

In the past, quality control inspection in a construction project was regarded as a police action
to ensure compliance and minimize neglect of the requirements.

Recently , a new concept of quality control have emerged.

It is a joint effort of the two parties involved and it calls for a two-fold program, namely.

1. Quality control by the contractor

2. Quality assurance by the owner.

WHAT IS ASSURANCE?

Assurance is a degree of certainty. Quality assurance is the function of the owner to verify
that the work is done in accordance with specifications. Some call it acceptance inspection.

QUALITY CONTROL IN SOIL CONSTRUCTION

Soil, like wood or steel, is a construction material. It was the first, since the first man built his
shelter of soil. Although it is the most readily available natural construction materials, it is the least
understood.

Effective quality control of soils, requires, at least, a basic knowledge of soil engineering,
especially identification, classification, engineering properties and test of soils.

SOIL IDENTIFICATION

1. Granular Soils – individual particles are visible to the naked eye, non plastic
Example: Sand and Gravel
2. Fine-grained soils – individual particles are not visible to the naked eye
Example: Clay and Silt
3. Organic Soils – dark color, fibrous structure, foul odor
Example: Peat and Muck

ENGINEERING PROPERTIES

1. Granular
a. Good load-bearing qualities
b. Drain readily
c. Not susceptible to strength or volume change
d. Comparatively incompressible due to static load
e. Susceptible to Volume Change under vibratory load, if not adequately compacted

2. Fine-grained
a. Poor load-bearing qualities
b. Hard to drain
c. Susceptible to strength or volume change due to change in water content
d. Compressible due to static load, but settlement is slow.

3. Organic
The presence of organic ,matter will adversely affect the engineering properties of either
granular or fine-grained soil, if the amount is appreciable.
SOIL TESTS

1. Classification tests , grading, liquid and plastic limit.

2. Moisture-density relation, as compaction and density tests.
3. Strength tests, as unconfined compression, tri axial compression and direct shear.
4. Permeability tests.
5. Consolidation tests.

CONCRETE :

Concrete is the mixture of fine and coarse aggregates with cement and water and thereafter
observing and implementing proper curing requirements. The two major components of concrete are
the PASTE and MINERAL AGGREGATE which is the fine and coarse. The paste would be the mixture of
cement and water. You will observe in fresh concrete, the individual particles of cement and
aggregate are suspended and separated by thin layers of water which makes the mixture plastic and
workable. The volume of aggregate is about 70% of the volume of concrete mix.

Factors affecting the strength of concrete

1. Quality of aggregate and cement

2. Quantity of mixing (water and cement) (Water-cement Ratio) – The lower the water-cement
ratio is, the higher the strength.
3. Time of mixing – Concrete batches of up to I cu.m shall be mixed at not more than one and
one-half (1 ½) minutes. Mixing time shall be increased from ½ to 1 min for every cubic meter,
but in no case shall a batch be mixed more than 5 min. For this reason, the biggest mixes as
yet, is 8 cu.m capacity.
4. Curing conditions – occasionally treated with water or with curing compound.
5. Age – It should be opened to traffic after the curing period.

Physical properties of Concrete:

1. Workability
2. Durability
3. Strength
4. Impermeability

Quality Control Measures:

In order to produce satisfactory concrete the following should be observed:

1. Selection of materials
2. Design of concrete mixture
3. Aggregate production control
4. Concrete production control
5. Control in transporting and placing
6. Control in consistency
7. Sampling and testing of mixture
8. Curing and protection
Design of Concrete Mixture

Purpose:
To determine the proportioning of the ingredients that will produce concrete of the proper
workability when fresh and desired durability and strength after it has hardened. In proportioning
concrete, we must consider the following:

1. Requirement as to placing
2. Interrelationships of cement content, water-cement ratio and gradation of aggregate
3. Required strength
4. Quality of concrete necessary to satisfy the condition of exposure.
5. Considerations of economy.

Selection of maximum size of aggregates;

Maximum size of aggregate to be used as basis in the concrete design mix computation – is
the smallest sieve size opening thru which the entire amount of aggregate is required to pass.

Trial mixes from laboratory data should be immediately done in the field and adjustments
when necessary be made to suit field conditions. These trial mixes are made part of the monthly
reports and should be reported regularly so that any under or overrun on cement can be avoided.

In estimating the required batch of weight of any concrete mixture, the following sequence of
steps is suggested:

1. Choice of slump
2. Choice of maximum size of aggregate (see Blue Book)
3. Estimate amount of mixing water (from laboratory design mix) and water content
4. Select water-cement ratio. Maximum permissible values for non-air entrained concrete.
5. Calculate cement content (from laboratory design mix)
6. Estimate quantity of fine and coarse aggregate 9from laboratory design mix)
7. Adjust for moisture content of aggregates
8. Checked calculated mixture proportions by preparing testing trial batches. Adjustments
are made , if found necessary.

Concrete Composition:

Air – 6%
Portland Cement – 11%
Gravel or Crushed Stone (Coarse Aggregate) – 41%
Sand (Fine Aggregate) – 26%
Water – 16%

Water:

If you can drink it, you can use it. In the jobsite, you may check the following:
1. SMELL – the water should not have any usual smell.
2. TASTE – the water should not taste unusual. Remember not to drink it if you doubt its
portable quality
3. CLEAR – the water should look clear and clean with little or no sediments. It is also
important that no oil is present.
Coarse Aggregate:

The best coarse aggregates are:

- Strong crushed mountain rock

- Minimal weathered material
- Fairly free of rock dust
- Nearly cubical in shape
Particle size distribution is determined by getting how much percentage of the aggregates
goes into each sieve.

If the size ranges are in an optimum proportion that they are all fit well together such that
they require minimum cement paste to fill the voids, then this gives denser and stronger concrete.

Fine Aggregates:

Crusher sand or manufactured sand (S-1) can be used if it is not too flaky and there is little
rock dust.

It shall also consist of natural sand, stone screening or other inert materials with similar
characteristics, or combinations thereof, having hard, strong and durable particles.

Use of beach sand is not allowed.

Chemical Admixtures:

Type Description Effect

A Water-Reducer The fresh concrete will require

less water to achieve the same
workability

B Set Retarder The setting time is delayed:

good for hot weather
concreting

C Accelerator The setting time and strength

development becomes faster

D Water Reducer and Set Combined A and B

Retarder

F High-Range Water Reducer Same as Type A, with much

less water is required; good for
higher strength concrete

G High-Range Water Reducer Combined Type A and B

and Set Retarder
TYPES OF PORTLAND CEMENT

Portland Cement Type I – a hydraulic cement for use in general concrete construction when special
properties specified for other type are not required.

Portland Cement Type II – a hydraulic cement for use in general concrete construction more specially
when moderate sulfate resistance or moderate heat of hydration is desired.

Portland Cement Type III – a hydraulic cement for use in general concrete construction when high
early strength is desired.

Portland Cement Type IV – a hydraulic cement for use in general concrete construction when low heat
of hydration is desired.

Portland Cement Type V – a hydraulic cement for use in general concrete construction when high
sulfate resistance is desired.

KINDS OF HYDRAULIC CEMENT

Portland Cement – a hydraulic cement produced by pulverizing cement clinker and gypsum (Calcium
Sulfate).

Blended cement – a hydraulic cement consisting of two or more inorganic constituents (at least one of
which is not Portland Cement or Portland Cement Clinker) which separately or
in combination contribute to the strength gaining properties of the cement.

Masonry Cement – a hydraulic cement manufactured for NON-STRUCTURAL applications such as in

mortars for masonry construction or in plasters, or both. Masonry cement is
composed of clinker, gypsum, plasticizing materials and other performance-
enhancing addition(s).

TYPES OF PORTLAND-POZZOLAN CEMENT

Type I (PM) – a hydraulic cement consisting of an intimate and uniform blend of Portland cement or
Portland blast-furnace slag cement and fine pozzolan used in general concrete construction where the
special characteristics attributable to the pozzolan will vary based on quantities contained within the
blended cement.

Type IP – a hydraulic cement consisting of an intimate and uniform blend of Portland cement or
Portland blast-furnace slag cement and fine pozzolan used in general concrete construction when
moderate sulfate resistance and moderate heat of hydration are desired.

Type P – a hydraulic cement consisting of an intimate and uniform blend of Portland cement or
Portland blast-furnace slag cement and fine pozzolan used in general concrete construction not
requiring high early strength and when high sulfate resistant and low heat of hydration are desired.

SETTING OF CEMENT

The condition by which the cement paste, mortar or concrete mix starts to lose its plasticity
and gain a certain degree of rigidity.
HARDENING OF CEMENT

The condition by which the mortar or the concrete starts to develop and gain its strength.

IMPORTANCE OF CEMENT TESTING

- Hydraulic cement are manufactured products that find their principal uses in concrete and
related construction materials
- When cement and water mixed, they undergo various chemical reactions that gradually
change the mixture from a plastic (or fluid), which can be molded or cast into a rigid solid,
capable of bearing substantial compressive loads.
- Thus cement and its reactions with water are largely responsible for most of the key
aspects of concrete.
- The difficulty of understanding it can only be lessened by ascertaining fully the chemical
compositions and all its physical properties.
-The quantity of testing has a direct bearing on the reliability of such determinations,
specially on quality control, and is therefore a key element in the construction
process.
- Testing or characterizing cement is important because we want to ensure that the cement
we bought will serve its purpose or will do its work for which it was produced.
- If not properly characterized, the health and safety of the consumers and the general
public is jeopardized.
- Since Portland and Blended cements are classified as a product under mandatory
certification, under the Philippine National Standard, ascertaining or characterizing them
becomes mandatory.

COMPRESSIVE STRENGTH
- Strength is the property of cement that is probably the most important to engineers, both
as general indicator of concrete quality and to assure that the concrete will perform as
intended during design of the structure.
- It also provides an excellent indication of the overall quality of hydrated cement.
- The strength of cement developed either when tested as a mortar or a concrete is
dependent on the following:
a. Grading of the sand and aggregate
b. The proportion of water used
c. The degree of mixing
d. The temperature and humidity of the atmosphere in which it is conducted
e. The method by which the material is placed in the molds and the specimen made
f. The method of testing
g. The age at which the tests are carried out

For testing purposes it is necessary to define all these conditions, and in all standards
specifications this is done as closely as possible.

Test Method Used: ASTM C109/109M – Standard Test Method for Compressive Strength of
Hydraulic cement Mortars
QUALITY CONTROL PROGRAM

Prepared for every project after the contract was awarded to the contractor following the
schedule of minimum test requirements.

Materials Quality Control Requirements: (Quality Test)

Cement
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof: Q–1

F.A
For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: Q–1

C.A
For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: Q–1

Reinforcing Steel Bars

For every 10,000 kgs or fraction thereof: Q – 1/size

Curing Compound
For every shipment : Q–1

Asphalt Sealant
For every shipment: Q–1

RCPC
For every 50 pieces or fraction thereof: Q-1
(Strength, absorption and dimension)

CHB
For every 10,000 pieces/size or fraction thereof: Q–1

Paint
One 20 liters can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof: Q–1

Gabion/Matress/Filter Fabric
For every shipment : Q–1

Item 200 – Agg. Sub base Course

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: Abrasion – 1
For every 2,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: CBR – 1

Item 201 – Agg. Base Course

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: Q–1
For every 2,500 cu.m or fraction thereof: CBR – 1

Item 612 – Thermoplastic Paint (White and yellow)

For every 100 bags or fraction thereof: Q–1
Minimum Testing Requirements; (Commonly use materials)

Item 103 (Structure Excavation) and Item 104 (Embankment)

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, P.I, PL)
1 – C, Compaction Test

For each 500m of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof at least one group of three
in- situ density tests. The layer shall be placed not exceeding 200mm in loose measurement or based
on the result of compaction trials.

Quantity
FDT = ________ X 3
500 (0.20)

Item 200 (Agg. Sub Base Course)

For every 300 cu.m or fraction thereof
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, P.I, PL)

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof

1 – C, Compaction Test
1 – Abr, Abrasion Test

For each 500m of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof at least one group of three
in- situ density tests. The layer shall be placed not exceeding 150mm in loose measurement or based
on the result of compaction trials.

Quantity
FDT = ________ X 3
500 (0.15)

For every 2,500 cu.m or fraction thereof

1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio Test

Item 201 (Agg. Base Course)

For every 300 cu.m or fraction thereof
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, P.I, PL)

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof

1 – C, Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test

Quantity
FDT = ________ X 3
500 (0.15)
For every 2,500 cu.m or fraction thereof
1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio Test

Fine and Coarse Aggregate

For every 75 cu.m or fraction thereof:

1 – G, Grading Test

For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof:

1 – Q, Quality Test

ROCKS
For every 1,500 cu.m or fraction thereof:
1 – Sp.gr, Specific Gravity
1 – I.R, Inspection Report

Item 405 (Structural Concrete)

For every 75 cu.m of concrete or fraction thereof for each pouring day:
# - 1, Cylinder samples consisting of three (3) pieces to be tested for Compressive Strength
Tests

Item 311 (PCCP)

For every 75 cu.m of concrete or fraction thereof for each pouring day:
## - 1, Beam samples consisting of three (3) pieces to be tested for Flexural Strength Test

Item 500 (RCPC)

For every 50 pieces or fraction thereof: Q-1

(Strength, absorption and dimension)

For every 25 pieces or fraction thereof:

1 – I.R, Inspection report

11-LPC/mie
09-12-11
REVIEW QUESTIONS Answer: 5 holes/km/lane
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m
1. What is the sample for compressive strength selected borrow topping (Item 104)? 25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an
determination of a structural concrete? Answer: 3 grading tests original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried
Answer: concrete cylinder sample weight of 138.2 grams?
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if Answer: 17.58%
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200
concrete? if finer than the required materials? 26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication
Answer: Slump test Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials does it mean?
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item Answer: the soil is clayey
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality 201?
test? Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment 6% respectively the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m 16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201? weight
fresh concrete? Answer: 80% maximum
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample 28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of shall be maintained?
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. concrete pavement? Answer: 110 ± 5°C
sheets? Answer: Blown Asphalt
Answer:3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts 29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue weighing is advisable?
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Book)? Answer: because it can affect its weight
Answer: Reflectorized paint Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture
7. What is that construction material that has a property 19. What is the machine used for abrasion test? content from natural moisture content?
of being a dark brown to black cementitious material Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is
in which the predominating substance is bitumen? the moisture content of an air – dried sample
Answer: asphalt 20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the
104, 200, & 201? moisture content of the original sample from
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous Answer: by Field Density Test thefield.
prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours 21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI? 31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit represents?
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack Answer: 2000 bags
coat? 22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution 32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be
Test, Mechanical Analysis submitted for Quality Test?
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade 23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet
density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture 33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using
Answer: concrete beam sample 1,960 kg/m3? a pump Crete to pump out the fresh concrete mix,
Answer: 101.86% what admixture should it be?
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item Answer: Super plasticizer
201 (Aggregate Base Course)? 24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1)
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD kilometer concrete pavement? 34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
1
Answer: as joint filler and water proofing 45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given Answer: 3,000 psi
for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop 56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not
penetration grade asphalt? exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown
Answer: Asphalt Cement 46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer,
sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer except that an overload up to _____ percent above
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – shall be applied? the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted
Compression Test be soaked in water? Answer: 60 blows/layer provided concrete test data for strength, segregation,
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an that no spillage of concrete takes place.
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt Answer: Ten (10)
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, by weight of mix?
Loss on Ignition Answer: 5.10% 57. Where do we take additional cores when the
measurement of any core taken from pavement is
38. Paint is composed of _____ 48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat? deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% Answer: Cut – back asphalt Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals
beads parallel to the centerline in each direction from
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be the affected location
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
concrete sample? approximately _____? 58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2 penetration grade or hard asphalt?
hemispherical tip Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to penetration grade or soft asphalt)
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range
sample after its initial curing? of asphalt content? 59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C Answer: 4.7% to 5.5% construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. 51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI
Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of 60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior soil? Answer: consistency
to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of Answer: 95% degree of compaction
the specimen at all times. 61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to
Answer: three (3) 52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 determine _____?
bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”? Answer: consistency of concrete
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should 62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix
be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the for each full day’s operation?
°F ± 3°F responsibility of the_____? Answer: at least one but not to exceed three
Answer: Twenty – four (24) Answer: Contractor samples

43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil? 54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start 63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based
Answer: high degree of compressibility sampling and testing aggregates? on how many measurements?
Answer: Once the source is identified Answer: four (4)
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests
should pass to what sieve? 55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class 64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm) “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive on how many measurements?
strength for concrete Class “C”? Answer: nine (9)
2
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by 82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an
structure it represents is defective, why? volume with sufficient water abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect wear?
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a technician must have a program on how many
one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of samples for each item of work should be tested based 83. If the design of concrete mix has the following
water is most likely required for the mix? on the minimum testing requirements. What program corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine
Answer: 20 liters or report is this? aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs,
Answer: Quality Control Program and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______. weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: overheating during the process of 76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine
manufacture samples for test, what is the alternative way of aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130
reducing sample for testing size? liters water
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 Answer: apply quartering method and get two
pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the opposite sides as sample 84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine,
project? 77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this
Answer: four (4) pails specimens molded and cured have attained the material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH
minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not specs?
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 conducted prior to the specified age the pavement Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50%
cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after maximum
many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for the concrete was placed.
sieve analysis? Answer: Fourteen (14) 85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for every _____?
sieve analysis 78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should Answer: week
know how many sample has been submitted and
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in 86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it
60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the other words the ME must refer to what report so that that all the construction materials be tested:
project? he/she may be updated on the balance and on file Answer: before it is incorporated into work
Answer: Two (2) samples quality test of the construction materials being used in 87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment
the project? per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Answer: Status of Test Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests 79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil 88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of
can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to concrete masonry?
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly 1/8” (3.2 mm). Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength
Reports? Answer: Plastic Limit and 3 samples for absorption
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of
test 80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content 89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing
corresponding to 25 blows. the name of the project, the quantity represented,
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 Answer: Liquid Limit kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who
(Stone Masonry)? submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by 81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you
volume with sufficient water use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After as Materials Engineer?
the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm. Answer: Sample Card
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 what is the slump of the concrete?
(Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)? Answer: 127 mm

3
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in 99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided 109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick as an erosion control measures and also to improve Answer: 4% to 9%
Aggregate Base Course is placed? the stability of the slope.
Answer: Three (3) Answer: Berm 110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with 100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control 111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
regards to the number of days of a quality test that design of foundation condition, a soil sample was Answer: void ratio
takes place. Since not all construction materials can be taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required
tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the for soil was taken, except 112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of
lead time should he consider for a quality test of a Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, solids
cement sample? Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative Answer: moisture content
Answer: One (1) month density
113. Significance of grading test are, except
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should 101. Structure crossing above such covered underground Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures
be soaked for how many days before testing? drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the permeability, capillarity, measures the potential
Answer: Four (4) top of the conduit. cohesion of soil
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil 114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Classification, what test that its result be used in field 102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability,
density test? maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density weighing more than 50 kgs. measures the shearing resistance of soil
Relation Test Answer: Class B
115. Properties of concrete are, except
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your 103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
your schedule? Why? weighing more than 20 kgs. 116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the
Answer: No, because the moisture content is Answer: Class A following will determine the economical thickness,
high and can affect the result except
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what weighing more than 80 kgs. 117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural
test? Answer: Class C state.
Answer: Extraction Test Answer: Liquidity Index
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test? maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones 118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined,
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool weighing more than 1500 kgs. except
Answer: Class D Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit,
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test? group index
Answer: glass plate 106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm 119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
mix? 107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300. Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 Answer: 1 inch strength – 80%)
cm interval
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300. 120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
Answer: 35% for floor slabs.

4
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design 130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete 142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in
strength – 70%) structures and members. strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10%
Answer: Class P to less than 15%
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works Answer: 70%
for walls. 131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength Answer: 1.50 m 143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed
– 70%) when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings in the concreting operation
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works Answer: Item 612 Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength 133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer 144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing
– 70%) for Item 300 edge of the straight edge between contacts with the
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm surface in Item 310
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works Answer: 6.0 mm
for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces. 134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength range of _____ 145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after
– 70%) Answer: 3% to 5 % the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be
treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the 135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____ rate of application?
head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to Answer: plain bars Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap 136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point 146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is
Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is
125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer. tested in 14 days. _____
Answer: 150 mm Answer: 3.80 MPa Answer: four (4)

126. Class of concrete deposited in water. 137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 147. Slump test of concrete determines the following,
Answer: Class Seal 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and except
compacted in ____ Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and ` Answer: two or more layers
heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts 148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders, 138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil,
columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced _____ measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and
abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings. Answer: 80% shape of grain, Atterberg limits
Answer: Class A
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for 149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive Item 201. sieve are the ff., except
pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, Answer: ± 10 mm Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of
reinforcement. 140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to 150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a
Answer: Class B alternate US standard highway subgrade material
Answer: No. 40 Answer: Group Index
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections,
railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel 141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the 151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at
grid floors. minimum density is _____ the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how
Answer: Class C Answer: 1,120 kg/m3 many sets of concrete beam samples shall be

5
required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, 164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub- 176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under
thickness = 230 mm base course is determined in accordance with grading A
Answer: 353 sets Answer: AASHTO T 96 Answer: 2”

152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings 165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under
Answer: 30% Answer: 50% grading B
Answer: 1 inch
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow 166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
toppings Answer: 25% 178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course
Answer: 6% composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid course is determined by prepared subgrade/subbase.
limit and plastic limit exceeds Answer: AASHTO T 193 Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively (Item 203)
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material of aggregate sub-base course 179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
density is Answer: 100% Answer: 4% to 10%
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub- 180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with base course material shall be made in accordance with aggregate on Item 203
Answer: AASHTO T 90 Answer: AASHTO T 191 Answer: 50%

157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with 170. In some areas where the conventional base course 181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under
Answer: AASHTO T 89 materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____ grading A and B
allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog) Answer: 2”
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by blended with crushed stones or gravel.
layer Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel) 182. Item number for water?
Answer: 95% Answer: Item 714
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment under grading B 183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long Answer: 1 ½ inch of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be 172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
carried out for each 500 m2 of each layer of Answer: 45% 184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
compacted fill? Answer: 100%
Answer: three (3) 173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least
one (1) fractured face of Item 202 185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 Answer: 50% Answer: 100%
Answer: 12%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202 186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 Answer: 80% Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
Answer: 35%
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under 187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 grading A Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel
Answer: 2” Answer:1 ½ inch roller

6
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame 205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is
Answer: flash point 197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement conducted _____
deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The Answer: Once a year
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a results of the elastic deformation tests are used to
measurement of roughness from the surface profile evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help 206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous
which may be expressed in terms of International in the design of road strengthening measures and mixture?
Roughness Index. road capacity improvement. Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection
Device Logger 207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the
bituminous mixture?
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the 198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the Answer: 2”
structural properties of existing pavement with quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete?
unbound granular properties. This instrument is a non – destructive portable 208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for
160 mm and its main uses includes the determination heavy traffic is ____
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt? of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre – Answer: 1800 lbs
Answer: MC – 3000 cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks
and other imperfections. 209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester the maximum load resistance that a specimen will
method used to determine the casting length of the develop at _____
regular piles? 199. Soil stabilizing agent Answer: 60°
Answer: Test Pitting Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – fro sandy soil 210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design
differential deflection between joints of a concrete 200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to under the Marshall Stability Method?
pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing liquid state. Answer: 75 blows
slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
determine the remaining life of existing pavement. 211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer 201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid the grade of the asphalt?
to plastic state. Answer: 85 – 100
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in 212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I
concrete before cutting or drilling? 202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be
Answer: Rebar Locator – solid. used?
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure
for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as 203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the 213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam
soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as adjoining slabs together are called _____ sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint
soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted? Answer: tie bars method.
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge Answer: 4.50 MPa
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the 214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement
consuming radioactive material which is commonly area represented by these high spots _____ are _____
used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
road construction and in the measurement of moisture high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not
content? exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
7
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done Answer: 10 to 20 cm 238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the
usually at _____ slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: Within 24 hours 227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B –
aggregate base course preparatory to the 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: 24 hours Answer: Prime Coat 239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an
existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form 228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment? bituminous materials preparatory to the construction
method of paving is _____ Answer: Item 304 of bituminous surface course.
Answer: 1 ½ inches Answer: Tack Coat
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein in job – mix formula for Item 310? 240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat
no payment of contract price allowed is _____ Answer: ± 0.4% using asphalt cement?
Answer: 25% or more Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
230. This item consists of an application of bituminous
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single material with or without the application of 241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat
traffic lane is poured? aggregate on existing bituminous surface? using cut – back asphalt?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m Answer: Seal Coat Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two 231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for 242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the
lanes lane are poured concurrently? Item 310. surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the
Answer: 500 ln. m Answer: ± 10°C straight edge between any two contacts with
the surface?
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample? 232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for Answer: 6 mm
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø 243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam Answer: 1.40 MPa
specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of 233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310
pavement of fraction thereof placed each day? when placed? 244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of
Answer: 1 set Answer: 107°C Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum
223. What is the required compressive strength that 234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.
concrete piles be moved? Answer: 5 kph 245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day No. 4 and larger sieve.
compressive strength 235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint Answer: ±7
or crack.
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – Answer: faulting 246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
20 mm Ø reinforcing steel. No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø 236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness Answer: ±4
and above = 10d) determination, it shall have a diameter of at least
______ 247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during Answer: 100 mm No. 200 sieve.
batching. Answer: ±2
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm 237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement
content shall be _____ 248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in Answer: ± 1.0 mass % from imposed load.
water? Answer: stability
8
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly 270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental paved asphalt road? _____
effects of air, water, temperature and traffic. Answer: excessive asphalt content Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing
Answer: durability steel
261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit 271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is
flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads. considered _____
Answer: fatigue resistance 262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in Answer: weak subgrade
order to _____
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without Answer: determine the trend of its strength 272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is
cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and development considered _____
moments of the base and subgrade. Answer: very stable
Answer: flexibility 263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe
tested in a three – edge bearing test machine? 273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above
252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310. Answer: 0.3 mm crack categories is considered ___
Answer: 92% to 95% Answer: normal
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the should be continuous without shock at a constant 274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
effect of water on the cohesion of the mix? rate within the range of _____ Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); soil
125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is 275. What is the significance of field density test?
the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement? 265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period Answer: to determine the degree of compaction
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100 of time and that there is already doubt as to its of soil. It is also a control test in embankment
quality should: construction to ensure adequate compaction.
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Answer: be retested prior to use
Immersion – Compression Test is performed. 276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it
Answer: stability 266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
make it more suitable for a particular purpose. Answer: true
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt Answer: Stabilization
increases in Marshall Stability. 277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried
Answer: decrease 267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs sample?
from each other, third test is taken. What will be Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt this test? the sun
mix, what apparatus is used? Answer: referee test
Answer: armored thermometer 278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as: concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
Answer: highly organic soils use core samples to determine the strength. What is
the required compressive strength? 279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days size?
base or base course construction? Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No.
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, 269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the 4
efficiency of the equipment used and the application of asphalt mix? Method C & D – use sample passing ¾
construction method. Answer: tacky inch

9
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm aggregate = grading, specific gravity,
compaction test method? or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass % absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11) Note: Soundness test is also performed as per
a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) request
rammer with an 18” drop.
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast –
281. What is particle size analysis? 200 and 201? iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size Answer: 100% Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each
distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a weighing between 390 – 455 grams
combined analysis 292. What is the highest point in the moisture density
curve of the moisture density relation test or 300. What is the required total weight of sample for
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test compaction test? abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12
especially if it deals with chemicals? Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and as number of spheres?
Answer: distilled water Optimum moisture content (OMC) Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams

283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed 293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for 301. What is significance of abrasion test?
to drop sharply on the base through a height of field density test (FDT)? Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of
_____? Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of
Answer: 10 mm uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained quality as determined by resistance to impact
No. 200 sieve and wear. It also determines whether the
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a aggregates will have degradation during traffic
liquid limit be rotated? 294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT or rolling.
Answer: 2 rps sand cone?
Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm) 302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil abrasion test?
thread begin to break? 295. What are the apparatus used in FDT? Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”) Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide
plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing 303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be
286. What is specific gravity? scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or tested for flexural test?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials Answer: 14 days
relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of (tag name)
the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a 304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete
stated temperature) 296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for beam sample tested at third point?
specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water? Answer: R = PL
287. What is the approximate area for density control Answer: 15 to 19 hours bd2
strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m 297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the 305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete
saturated dry condition? beam sample tested at center point?
288. What Item of work is embankment? Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test Answer: R = 3PL
Answer: Item 104 for surface moisture. If the molded shape of 2bd2
fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that
289. What kind of material for Item 200? it has reached a surface dry condition 306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling
Answer: Aggregate sub – base course concrete?
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates? Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of
for toppings under Item 104? gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse the same Ø as the rod.

10
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, Answer: 25 pieces 325. How many times per layer should a concrete
how many samples are required? specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more 317. What is being determined in a core sample from rodded?
than 10,000 units) asphalt pavement? Answer: 63 blows/layer
Answer: thickness and density of pavement
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing 326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued
concrete masonry units? 318. All records regarding quality control such as whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or
Answer: accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are _______.
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) recorded in a _____ Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate,
minimum Answer: Materials logbook displacement of the mixture
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9
MPa (1000 psi) minimum 319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ 327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should
test that measures what? be less than ____
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load Answer: depth of soil layer Answer: 29ºC
bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer: 320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of 328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) conveying concrete is called _____ 300 pcs RCCP?
minimum Answer: segregation Answer: 12 sets
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5
MPa (600 psi) minimum 321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m 329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs
and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel pavement was designed to have subbase and base Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
bars? courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading 330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete
strength of the bar as well as its elongation and compaction of the base and subbase courses mix in order to increase its workability (provided
and is used to classify the bars into grade. shall be carried out in _____? concrete does not excced specified slump), how
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of many minutes after the initial time of mixing does
311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB? 4.5 m adding water be permitted?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that
RSB 322. During the application of the first half of the water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints? permitted? 331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or Answer: higher commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
pail) Answer:
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt? established through what? distillation of coal or wood.
Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products
of the distillation of crude oil.
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous 324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the
prime coat be left undisturbed? course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME 332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: 24 hours assigned to the project, what is the most effective Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt,
and cheaper method that you would recommend to emulsified asphalt
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat? stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the
Answer: cut – back asphalt subbase course? 333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer: geotextiles Answer:
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
for every how many pieces of RCCP? KEROSENE – for medium curing type
11
DIESEL – for slow curing type 343. What is to be done in order to determine the 353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____. number of passes that would attain the required from the time water is added to the mix until the
Answer: density? concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better Answer: trial section Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if
with wet aggregates and in cold hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90
weather. It is a positively charge electron. 344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to compaction and is of great significance in the
aggregates which have positive charge. It is strength of the resulting pavement? 354. How is concrete consolidated?
a negatively charge electron. Answer: temperature Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the
concrete vertically
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310? 345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?
Answer: asphalt cement Answer: It should begin from the sides and 355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of
proceed longitudinally parallel towards the joint in a form of a keyway is used?
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement? center line, each trip overlapping one half the Answer: longitudinal construction joint
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt roller’s width.
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt 346. After the final rolling, what will be checked? stated in the preceding problem?
selected? Answer: degree of compaction Answer: deformed steel tie bars
Answer: climatic condition
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal 357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or to or greater than _____ sawed with a concrete saw?
the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula? Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted Answer: not less than 50 mm
Answer: three (3) weeks density
358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
339. Who will approve the job – mix formula? 348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the Answer: not less than 6 mm
Answer: DPWH PE and ME pavement?
Answer: when the pavement has cooled to 359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the
340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the atmospheric temperature joint prior to the time of sawing?
following: Answer: sawing shall be omitted
Answer: 349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?
a. grading of aggregates Answer: by the use of core drill or saw 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
b. percentage and type of asphalt Answer: asphalt or other materials
c. temperature of aggregates and 350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete
asphalt if not vibrated? 361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer
d. temperature of mixture upon Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm device held in a position parallel to the surface and
delivery or time of compaction center line of the slab of pavement?
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete Answer: dowel
341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the if vibrated?
mixture shall be placed? Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm 362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, Answer: thin film of bitumen
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain what is the time of mixing?
the required density? Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and 90 seconds means of _____
workable Answer: brooming

12
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by Answer: asphaltene Answer: Standard Penetration Test
brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm 373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous 387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring
mix is passing sieve? Answer: diamond bit
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has Answer: No. 200
sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____ 388. CQCA means
Answer: 72 hours 374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____ Answer: Certificate of Quality Control
Answer: pothole patching Assurance (submitted weekly)
366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the
following: 375. VMA means 389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
Answer: Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
a. by covering the concrete with mats
saturated with water 376. The compaction temperature in molding the 390. The type of electron present in rapid curing
b. by thoroughly wetting the bituminous mixture specimen emulsified asphalt?
pavement Answer: 124ºC Answer: cationic
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound 377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is 391. How many group of three in – situ densities are
immediately after finishing of the Answer: 163ºC required if the compacted volume of embankment
surface laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is of 200 mm/layer?
367. When is the right time to seal the joints? Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC Answer: fifteen (15)
Answer: after the curing period or before it is
opened to traffic 379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from 392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed
Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC reinforcing steel is
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
505 (bluebook ’95)? 380. The maximum absorption content of CHB
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders Answer: 240 kg/m3 393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of
and the ratio of cement and fine sand a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB Answer: 0.06%
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the Answer: 45%
supervision of the _____? 394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH 382. SPT means Answer:
Answer: Standard Penetration Test TENSILE
370. The requisites in transporting samples of the STRENGTH YIELD POINT
laboratory is _____ 383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed GRADE 40 483
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to sample MPa 276 MPa
avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a Answer: Shelby tube GRADE 60 621
sample card filled up in detail and duly signed MPa 414 MPa
by the ME 384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample GRADE 75 689
Answer: wax MPa 517 MPa
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or
rejection of construction materials for use in the 385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample 395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
project based on test results? Answer: split spoon sampler Answer: clay content
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid 396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives empirical results which can be used to estimate shear laboratory compaction test is
color and hardness. strength and bearing capacity Answer: air – dried condition
13
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the 416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you night time.
– place recommend? Answer: glass beads
Answer: Sand cone method Answer: conduct recoring
417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is 407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with units.
passing the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly Answer: Latex
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200 appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt 418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? zinc coating test.
Answer: 408. Where and when was the first use of Portland Answer: Triple spot test
a. subbase materials cement?
b. surfacing materials Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893) 419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with
c. base course materials lightest coating.
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th Answer: Single spot test
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of
cast – iron spheres or steel spheres. the soil. 420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is
Answer: Answer: Flow curve a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
GRADING A – 12 spheres Answer: Enamel
GRADING B – 11 spheres 410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____
GRADING C – 8 spheres Answer: abrasion loss 421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0
GRADING D – 6 spheres to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its
after all ingredients including water is in the drum is mm? group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: 100 rpm Answer: 24.7 liters Answer: good subgrade material

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet 412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about 422. It determines the target density which is constructed
mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used _____ at the beginning of the work on each course of material
(Item 206) Answer: 2.75 to be compacted.
Answer: two (2) hours Answer: Control strips
413. The standard packaging weight of cement
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the Answer: 40 kg/bag 423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in
speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has a compact mass in its fina position.
set. 414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
Answer: 40 kph pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid
evaporation of water from the mix. 424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its Answer: curing compound Answer: 2.15
preparation
Answer: 90 minutes 415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, 425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, Answer: 102.5ºC
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess
correct method that should be followed is improved visibility at night. 426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the Answer: reflectorized paint Answer: 10 minutes
face of the previously placed concrete.
427. The rate of application of traffic paint.
Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
14
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. 452. The test that determines the resistance of
Answer: 15 – 30 minutes 440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked? aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of
Answer: yellowish brown sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized Answer: Soundness test
paint. 441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix
Answer: 10 kg bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? 453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook
Answer: seven (7) is based on
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or Answer: Absolute Design Method
height of compacted bituminous paving mixture. 442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix
Answer: vernier caliper bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? 454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less
Answer: two (2) than
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the Answer: 45 minutes
mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt 443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured
pavement. at 455. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted Answer: approximately quarter points Answer: 10 hours
bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry
specimens. 444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes 456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar
Answer: bleeding strength of Portland cement
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen. Answer: Ottawa sand
Answer: gasoline 445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4 457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: mass of dry aggregates 446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
dislodging of aggregate particle.
434. The method used to determine the grading of Answer: raveling 458. A mixture of cement and water is
aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture. Answer: cement paste
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted 447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small
aggregates blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire. 459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of Answer: alligator cracking setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
asphalt. Answer: Gillmore needle
Answer: penetrometer 448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated
quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of 460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples
436. Volatization test which measures the relative each item of work. in 7 days is
proportion of asphalt to oil. Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements Answer: 19.3 MPa
Answer: Distillation 449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles
of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall 461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to not exceed which fails to meet the autoclave?
melt. Answer: 10 mass % Answer: crumbled
Answer: Softening point
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of 462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not Answer: first seven (7) days
through the formula exceed
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100% Answer: 12 mass % 463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the
sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for 451. Additives used in concrete mixing. will show the nature and condition of the materials which
Item 310. Answer: admixtures they represent.
15
Answer: sampling f. Soils that cannot be properly modulus of the cracked and seated pavement
compacted as determined by the section.
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent engineer Answer: 3” to 5”
tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes
which will pass certain sieves. 473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if
Answer: disturbed samples 200, grading A for aggregate base course? the mean deflection is ____ or the differential
Answer: 0 – 12% deflection is ____.
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than
samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties. 474. The rate of application of special curing agent 0.002”
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by
467. The representative who will witness the testing of 475. The method of measurement for determining the _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by
materials in an accredited laboratory. depth of the river channel. _____.
Answer: government Answer: sounding Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum 476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what 486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks
disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides Atterberg limit test can be performed? and areas that have previously patched by asphalt
clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is, Answer: Liquid limit test by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
both the natural density and moisture content are Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100
preserved as much as practicable. 477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into psi
Answer: undisturbed samples the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm 487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting amount of air on the form moist in concrete during
of fresh concrete. 478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before mixing without significantly altering the setting or
Answer: retarder the treating process of timber. the rate of characteristic of concrete.
Answer: 10 days Answer: air entraining admixtures
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum
early compressive strength of concrete. 479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ 488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled
Answer: accelerator maximum clear opening. against actual and by speed task to make – up for
Answer: 2mm the past or future loss of time.
471. The best enemy of construction. Answer: Delivery control
Answer: water 480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid
injury using gravity hammer. 489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials: Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) pavement surface.
Answer: 4.5m (timber) ` Answer: potholes
a. Materials containing detrimental
quantities of organic materials such 481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates 490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples
as grass, roots and sewage of any size, shape and gradation. (surface waves) across the pavement.
b. Highly organic soils such as peat Answer: Compaction Answer: corrugation
and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% 482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity 491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized
and/or PL exceeding 55% index are poor as engineering materials. bulging of the pavement.
d. Soils with a natural moisture Answer: liquid limit of fines Answer: shoving
content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt 492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
800kg/m3 overlay depending on the expected traffic and the Answer: rutting

16
492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road? 505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline 515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting
Answer: base or subbase course of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic. operations.
Answer: 500m (along centerline) Answer: ± 4mm
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from
the point of deposit by pneumatic means. 506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline 516. This method is usually adopted when there is no
Answer: 3 meters for new road on swampy or marshy ground. visible evidence of termite infestation.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new Answer: Cordoning
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced road)
by traffic in the subbase and subgrade. 517. This method is used when soil shows termite
Answer: base course 507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge infestation.
project Answer: Drenching
495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered. Answer:
Answer: 40 times bar Ø 1 deep drill for each abutment (30m 518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not
run) exceed _____
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete 1 boring for each pier for multi – span Answer: 22%
in all structures except pavements conforming to (3m into the bed rocks)
the lines, grade and dimension. 519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not
Answer: Structural concrete 508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over exceed _____
foundation area of dam. Answer: 14%
497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons. Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi) centerline 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
Depth = ½ times base width Answer: 244 kg/m2
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry
the roadway structure. 509. For ports and harbors projects: 521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: transom Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by 522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on
using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is 510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2): concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
_____. Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the Answer: 831.48 kg/m
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m structure and one on the interior (9m below
lowest foundation) 523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler? of the splice below ground line or seabed.
Answer: 50mm 511. For buildings less than 930 m2 Answer: 2.5 meters
Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling. 524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of
Answer: 1.50m length 512. This reflector shall be the short type having a creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm. Answer: dredging
502. The initial diameter of bore hole. Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
Answer: 76mm 525. The slope of batter piles
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened Answer: 1:6
503. What is the core bit diameter? plane is delayed.
Answer: 67mm Answer: shrinkage cracking 526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than
____
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline 514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design Answer: 0.12%
of roads for 300 VPD traffic. criteria in design?
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade) Answer: consistency 527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in
design
17
Answer: 20% Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for d. extruder
verification
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the 546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
building outline has been established on the ground. 539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of Answer: its nominal diameter as determined
Answer: Minor excavation the Materials Engineer? by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size
Answer:
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction a. sampling of material 547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested
bearing capacity. b. analysis of test result of material for quality the requirements
Answer: footing c. scheduling of delivery of materials except grading. What will you recommend?
d. design of concrete mix Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3)
storey and above. 540. Measure of construction materials for concrete 548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: Boring test structure shall be Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete
Answer: volume strength
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other
minor structure on the ground. 541. The moisture density curve if different from each 549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its
Answer: 700mm soil. Which of the ff statement is true? engineering properties?
Answer: Answer: organic
532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted a. granular, well graded soil generally
fill. have fairly high maximum density 550. What is the testing soil that involves the application
Answer: 100mm at low optimum moisture content of energy and addition of water as lubricant?
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is than granular, well graded soil
usually provided to support a column. c. granular, well graded soil have greater 551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in
Answer: Spread footing densities than uniform soil at OMC concrete pavement is
d. none of the above Answer: No. 10
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of
_____ of the manufactured state. 542. What should be done on the subbase course with 552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for
Answer: ± 3% existing moisture content of 10% higher than the AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
optimum moisture content? Answer: 0.002124 m3
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to
obtained on the subgrade indicates that the required thickness and compact 553. A material resulting from the disintegration,
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
compaction specs and needs additional 543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm
compaction asphalt pavement thickness sieve
536. Liquid limit is usually Answer: - 5mm Answer: sand
Answer: greater than plastic limit
544. Geosynthetics may be used for 554. What is ASTM?
537. The blue book requires that the base course be Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, Answer: American Society for Testing &
compacted at least erosion control Materials
Answer: 100% modified proctor
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining 555. What is AASHTO?
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that moisture content? Answer: American Association of State
the delivered materials are different from the on Answer: Highway & Transportation Officials
tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you a. beam balance
do? b. oven 556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has
c. moisture can prepared a revised laboratory
18
testing procedure manual, in order to have be Answer: 20 meters finished grade and extending to the full width
consistent with the latest methods as prescribed of the embankment
under 568. The use of geofabric material to increase the
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO strength of the subgrade 577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
material for road construction is classified as Answer: the material shall be deposited on the
557. What is the category of contractor that are required Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method fill and push over the end of the fill by means
by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to
apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications? 569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed
Answer: large asphalted which showed a lump within 600 mm of the other grade
Answer: remove and replace the pavement
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in area with irregularity 578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Item 104? Answer: the material shall be taken from
Answer: ½ of the thickness 570. Controlled Density Method in embankment borrow locations and shall be deposited so as
construction involves to form the grade and cross section and shall
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve? Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in be thoroughly compacted
Answer: colloids layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose
materials and extending to the full width of 579. What is the principal factor used in determining the
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at the embankment thickness of the pavement?
least _____ above the specimen Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE
Answer: 25mm 571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it (deterioration due to frustration move also be
was not cured immediately after final placement considered)
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting especially during the first seven days?
predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks 580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method
containing silt – clay materials Embankment?
Answer: soil aggregates 572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh Answer: were unsuitable material is present
concrete? under the embankment correctivework
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded Answer: Liquid membrane forming consists of placing a surcharge constructed to
with an average dimension between 75mm – the full width of the road bed. The surcharge
305mm 573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen? shall remain in place until the embankment
Answer: boulders Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and has reached stability or the required
tested at the specified date settlement
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree
on the roadside to make them denser and grow 574. When to remove the false work of continuous 581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method
straight. structure? Embankment?
Answer: Pruning Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span Answer: this involves the introduction of water
on each side have reached the specified into the embankment to accelerate
564. The road near or abutting a bridge. strength consideration
Answer: Approach
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of 582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high binder and water for surface sealing
Answer: before the construction work void rather and usually not high water content Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
Answer: Weak Subgrade
566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity 583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer: sand and gravel 576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment? Answer:
Answer: the material shall be deposited and Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt.
567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be spread in layers not more than 300 mm in retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
made at a maximum interval of depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the
19
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from
original wt. subgrade level? 606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland
Answer: 4 – 5 feet Cement?
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which Answer: Type IV
creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that 597. What is the process of combining two or more soil
usually becomes quite sticky in suitable properties to produce good grading on 607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant
Answer: bleeding gravel, sand, silt and clay? Portland Cement?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization Answer: Type V
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint
caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during 598. What is the common material employed in 608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace
hot weather stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and Slag Cement?
Answer: buckling hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction Answer: Type 1S
process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the moisture from the soil 609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan
concrete pavement Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt Cement?
Answer: crushing Answer: Type 1P
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture 610. Type I is for general use such as
of the free haul distance content increases. Granular material becomes Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings &
Answer: Overhaul unstable if it has dried bridges and tanks & water pipes

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical 600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road 611. Type III cement is used for
slurry ratio? construction aside from asphalt cement? Answer: early stripping of forms & high early
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water Answer: It was introduced in order to save strength
heating costs and from convenience in road –
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the mixing or priming 612. Type IV is used for
soil aggregates in Item 204? Answer: massive structures such as dams
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil 601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and 613. Type V cement is used for
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics? optimizes properties of cement mortar Answer: when sulphate content of
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi groundwater is very high
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar,
591. What is quality? one has to depend on 614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: It the degree of excellence Answer: cement type, cement content and Answer: Joseph Aspdin
water content
592. What is control? 615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials
Answer: Is to regulate 603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland containing
Cement (OPC)? Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
593. What is quality control? Answer: Type I
Answer: It is conformance to requirements 616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part
594. What is assurance? Resistant Portland Cement? clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore,
Answer: it the degree of certainty Answer: Type II then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker

595. What are the two kinds of control activities? 605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening 617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material
Answer: Inspection and Testing Portland Cement? called
Answer: Type III Answer: volcanic earth
20
Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix 640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is
618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement proportion and its economy Answer: objectionable
is composed of
Answer: C3S and C2S 631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to 641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as
concrete? Answer: Water – reducing admixture
619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is Answer:
controlled by a. calcium 642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into
Answer: C3A and C4AF b. chloride how many equal segments?
c. coal Answer: five (5)
620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ d. sulphate
process is developed 643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive
Answer: hydration 632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require settlement occur leading to failure
more water to be workable, but making it so Answer: bearing capacity
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] will only result to sacrifice in
are developed when _____ is added to Portland Answer: strength 644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt
cement overlay
Answer: water 633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will Answer: 2”
be considered adequate if the average strength of
622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the 645. In the test to determine the moisture content of
Answer: the setting time is larger specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to
_____ Answer: 0.1g
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s 646. If a sample can not be weighed within the
Answer: alkalinity 634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the prescribed time after being removed from the oven,
_____ for organic impurities it will placed inside a
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from Answer: Colormatic Test Answer: dessicator
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if: 647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how
625. The water required for concrete mix should be Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: fresh water of cake cement and it comes from a discarded Answer: 4 hours
or used bag
626.Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on 648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and
admixture is added because it contains 636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of must be weighed after it has been removed from
Answer: chloride aggregates the oven within
Answer: fineness modulus Answer: 1 hour
627. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: accidental and unwanted 637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse 649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant
aggregates weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time
628. The entrained air in concrete is Answer: free water depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A
Answer: deliberate and desirable 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in
638. What do you mean by SSD? about
629. We use aggregate in concrete as Answer: Saturated Surface Dry Answer: 2 hours
Answer: filler materials in concrete
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix 650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they with respect to its fluidity Answer: Boring Test
strongly influence: Answer: consistency
651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
21
Answer: calcium tri – chloride Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger
aggregates)
652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate
is 663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air
Answer: low entrained?
Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated
pavement 664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will
Answer: hot – mix asphalt happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk
Answer: 1.5 m 665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement
ratio and maintaining other values of its
655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete ingredients?
Answer: 0.50 – 0.60 Answer: it will acquire strength

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect 666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer: Portland cement Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
657. A concrete where compression is induced before Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90
the application of working load so that tension seconds
under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing 667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates,
batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the Answer: 1 ½ hours
phosphorus content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate 668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed
and stockpiled before batching starts?
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be
material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness stockpiled or binned for draining
when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous 669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of upon cement has due added
proposed concrete pavement 15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as
Answer: 0.60 m 32ºC temperature is present

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, 670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must
how do you it? be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of
Answer: the drum or Olader. Why?
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial
(water) setting of concrete
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of
average (water) 671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid,
what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible
662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % in the volume computation?
air entrained? Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
22
CONCRETE (PCCP & ITEM 405)

1. It is the process of maintaining sufficient moisture and a favorable temperature

in concrete during hardening process so that the desired properties of concrete.

a. Design of Concrete Mixtures c. sampling

b. curing d. testing

2. It is the process of determining the proportion of the ingredients that will

produce concrete of the proper workability when fresh and derived workability
and strength after it has hardened.

a. Design of Concrete Mixtures c. core test

c. Mixing d. slump

3. What is the tool used for a most effective method of consolidating and placing of
concrete. It also eliminate air voids and honeycomb.

a. tamping rod c. mixer

b. mallet d. vibrator

4. It is test used to determine the consistency and workability of concrete mixture.

a. Penetration test c. load test

b. Slump test d. Post test

5. A rich concrete means

a. Rich in cement c. rich in coarse aggregates

b. Rich in fine aggregate d. rich in water

6. ______________ is an excessive increase in temperature of mix which impaires

the strength and causes cracking on concrete.

a. evaporation c. setling
b. Heat of Hydration d. Heat loss
7. A mixing water to be used for concrete shall be clear and clean, it has PH value
from _____________________.

a. 3 to 7 c. 4.5 to 8.5
b. 9 to 10 d. 8 to 10

8. Which of the following solution used in the conduct of soundness test?

a. Sodium Chloride c. Sodium Sulfate

b. Hydro Chloride d. Salicylic Acid

9. It is a test to determine the resistance of aggregates to disintegration. It also

evaluates or furnishes information on weathering actions.

a. Penetration Test c. Abrasion Test

b. CBR Test d. Soundness Test

10. A concrete with a less cement content is called

a. Structural concrete c. Bad concrete

b. Lean concrete d. Absorption

11. The test which evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregates. It gives
an indication as determine to resistance to impact and wear.

a. Load test c. Sp. gravity

b. Abrasion test d. Absorption

12. What is the approximate diameter of cast-iron spheres or steel spheres used in
the Abrasive machine?

a. 20 mm dia. c. 46.8 mm dia.

b. 30 mm dia. d. 10 mm dia.

13. In abrasion test for coarse aggregates, the percent wear shall not exceed
__________.

a. 30% c. 35%
b. 25% d. 40%
14. In soundness test for coarse aggregates the weighted loss shall not exceed
______________ mass percent.

a. 12 c. 10
b. 11 d. 9

15. In soundness test for fine aggregates, the weighted loss shall not exceed
_________mass percent.

a. 9% c. 8%
b. 10% d. 7%

16. If slag is used in lieu of gravel, crushed stone, the material shall have a density
of not less than ______________.

a. 1,400 kg/m3 c. 1,120 kg/m3

b. 1,200 kg/m3 d. 1,000 kg/m3

17. What is the percentage of wear of a coarse aggregates if the weight of original
sample is 5000g while retained in sieve no. 1.70mm and sieve no. 2.0 is 4,500g
and 4,700g, respectively,

a. 10% c. 8%
b. 6% d. 7%

18. Tensioning of the prestressing reinforcement shall not commenced until the
cylinder samples attained the compressive strength of at least ____________.

a. 35 Mpa c. 31 Mpa
b. 28 Mpa d. 24.1 Mpa

19. What type of concrete to be used in a Prestressed Concrete Structures is class

__________ with a minimum cement factor of 11 bags/m3.

a. P c. B
b. Seal d. A
20. In unit weight/mass determination of aggregates, the tamping rod shall be, steel
with ______ mm diameter and __________mm long.

a. 20mm dia, 600mm long c. 16mm dia, 700mm long

b. 16mm dia, 600mm long d. 20mm dia, 700mm long

21. In rodded unit weight determination, the measure shall be filled 1/3 and tamped
__________ times evenly.

a. 25 c. 35
b. 30 d. 40

22. In loose unit weight determination, the filling the volumetric measure to
overflowing, the aggregate from the height of about_______________ mm from
the top of measure shall be discharge.

a. 20 mm c. 50 mm
b. 15 mm d. 25 mm

23. Fineness modulus is the summation of percent.

a. Passing from sieve (3/8-100)X100c. Passing from sieve (100-3/8)X100

b. Retained from sieve (No.4-100)X100 d. Retained from sieve (100-3/8)X100

24. In a completed PCCP what is one lot means.

a. 1000 lin m. single lane or 500 double lane c. 1,550 single lane
b. 500 linm. single or 250 lane double d. 2,000 lin. m double lane

25. The period of time for a concrete close B to be vibrate after it was poured on
the first layer of rubble concrete.

a. 5 seconds c. 10 seconds
b. 20 seconds d. 15 seconds
26. What is the minimum compressive strength of a lean concrete.

a. 2,400 psi c. 3,500 psi

b. 3,000 psi d. 3,500 psi

27. What kind of test is allowed pursuant to MC No. 138-A for small quantity of
materials intended for noncritical structures?

a. Laboratory test c. frequency test

b. Simplified test d. consolidation test

28. The term small quantity for reinforcing steel pursuant to MC No. 138-A is

a. 10,000 kg c. 2,000 kg
b. 1,000 or less d. 100 kg or less

29. What is the nominal maximum size of course aggregate in filling of the
6”x 6” x 21” beam metal for the preparation sample specimen.

a. 2” c. 3”
b. 2.5” d. 1”

30. In preparation of sample specimen both for cylinder & beam mold the rodding
of the upper layer shall penetrate the lower layer by _ inch/es

a. 1” c. 1.5”
b. 1.25” d. 2”

31. In the application of bituminous material for prime coat the rate shall within the
range of __________

a. 2 to 2.5 liters/m2 c. 1.5 to 2.5 liters/m2

b. .5 to 1.0 liters/m2 d. 1 to 2 liters/m2
32. Which of the following material applied on a prepared a base or Subbase
surface before the placing of bituminous concrete surface course?

a. Bituminous seal coat c. bituminous prime coat

b. Bituminous tack d. cement paste
33. What item consist of preparing & treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete surface?

a. Bituminous prime coat c. bituminous seal coat

b. Bituminous tack coat d. wo/coat
34. What is the range of rate of application of bituminous material for tack coat?

a. .2 to .7 liters/m2 c. .2 to .7 liters/sec.
b. .7 to .9 liters/m2 d. .7 to .9 liters/sec.
35. What penetration grade of a bituminous material used for bituminous seal coat?

a. 150 – 200 c. 85 – 100

b. Not exceeding d. 120 – 150

36. What is a dark brown cementitious materials where whose consistency ranges
from solid to semi-solid and whose main constituent is called bitumen which is
either found in nature or a residue in petroleum refining?

a. Mineral filler c. asphalt

b. Carbon d. cement

37. What kind of asphalt used for joint filler in pavement water proofing & lining
pipes or canals?

a. Blown asphalt c. epoxy asphalt

b. Emulsified asphalt d. mineral filler

38. What test used to determine the resistance to determination or displacement

due to an impose/load or a repeated loading?
a. Stability c. flexibility
b. Durability d. workability

39. Emulsified asphalt means?

a. 60% asphalt cement, water and emulsified
b. 60% asphalt cement, oil and emulsified
c. 60% asphalt cement, kerosene and emulsified
d. 60% asphalt cement, gasoline and emulsified

40. Resistance to disintegration or deterioration due to the action of water, traffic

and the changing climate.
a. Workability c. flexibility
b. Durability d. stability

41. What is the minimum temperature of asphalt mix prior to dumping to spreader?
a. 600 c. 1500c
b. 44 d. 1070c

42. What is the minimum index retained strength of an asphalt concrete?

a. 50% c. 80%
b. 60% d. 70%

43. What is the tolerance of air voids after the job mix formula is established?
a. 3 to 5% c. 1 to 2%
b. 6 to 8% d. 2 to 3%

44. In the conduct of sodium sulfate soundness test on aggts. How many cycles
shall be conducted?
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5 d. 7

45. Too wet mix, over sanded mix and overworking of concrete mixing will usually
result in _____ on concrete pavement.

a. Scaling c. disintegration
b. Settlement d. cracking

46. The completed PCCP represented by core sample will be considered adequate if
the average strength is

a. At least 95% of and no cores is less than 90% of fc’

b. At least 75% of and single core is less than 70% of fc’
c. At least 5% of and at least no core is less than 75% of fc’
d. At least 90% of and at least no core is less than 85% of fc’
47. In sampling of concrete beam samples, how many specimen is required
representing 75 cu.m. or fraction theme of?

a. At least 6 conc. beam sample c. at least 5 conc. beam sample

b. At least 3 conc. beam samples d. at least 4 conc. beam samples

48. If the absorption of bituminous mix is 1.5% and moisture content is 6%, the dry
stability is 3,100 while the wet stability is 2,500 lbs, what is the index retained
strength?

a. 81% c. 70.64%
b. 90.3% d. 79.5%

49. The type of specimen which will represents the structural concrete for footing?
a. Cube c. beam
b. Cord d. cylinder

50. The unit cost for PCCP is Php1,500 per square meter. In thickness
determination, it was found out that the average thickness is 22.5cm or deficient
by 5mm, what is the cost of 500 sq. m?

a. Php712,500 c. Php675,000.00
b. Php750,000.00 d. Php33,750

51. Compute the specific gravity of the asphalt specimen, given the data below.
Wt. of specimen in SSD = 1200 air voids = 5%
Wt. of specimen in H20 = 650 asphalt content = 4.9%
Wt. of specimen in air = 1270

a. 2.309 b. 1.935 c. 9.28 d. 0.107

52. In sealing the PCCP joints what penetration grade of asphaltic materials is
appropriate?

a. 90-120 c. 180-200
b. 70-80 d. 120-150
53. In the preparation of sample specimen what portion of the batch of the fresh
concrete will be used?
a. Middle c. last
b. First d. anywhere
54. An indication whether the emulsified asphalt applied as tack coat is already
cured?
a. Black c. blue
b. Green d. brown
55. What quality control to be used in the production of asphalt mixtures
considering the degree of uniformity.
a. Design mix c. grading
b. Job mix formula d. testing
56. Who are responsible for taking samples of materials to be tested in the
laboratory?
a. Contractors M.E c. project engineer only
b. DPWH M.E d. both DPWH & contractors M.E
57. A document w/c is to be updated regarding materials quality control and other
activities concerning quality control of materials in the
a. Minimum test requirements c. equipment utilization
b. Materials logbook d. quality control program
58. Malpractice of conveying fresh concrete mix may result to
a. Cracking c. over mixing
b. Segregation d. curing
59. What is the minimum quantity required to a bituminous mix for one quality test?
a. 40 tons/ fraction thereof c. 130 tons or fraction thereof
b. 10 kg d. 600 tons or fraction thereof
60. A beam samples failed to attain desired test a core sample will represent the
affected structure if the deficient in strength is less than 5%, what will you do?
a. Reject/removed & replace c. accept at adjusted price
b. Accept at original price d. overlay it with asphalt the area
concern
61. In a completed bituminous mix, what is the frequency of core sample
a. Every 200 lin.m per lane c. every 75lin. m. per lane
b. Every 75 w.m d. every 100lin per lane
62. In the absence of Portland cement; for PCCP & structural concrete, what kind of
cement is recommended?
a. Pozzoland cement c. miniral filler
b. Hydrated lime d. portland pozzoland type 1P
63. A concrete class B has a minimum compressive strength of?
a. 4,000 psi b. 3,500 psi c. 2,400 psi d. 3,000 psi
64. A measured cement content of a structural concrete shall be within a tolerance
of mass% of the design cement content
a. + 2.5 b. + 3 c. +1 d. +2
65. A concrete mix shall be rejected it the cement has been in contact with moist
aggregates and mix beyond ___ hours prior to placing?
a. 1hr b. 1 ½ hrs c. 2hrs d. 3hrs
66. A grade 40 RSB has a minimum yield strength of 40,000 psi, what is a minimum
tensile strength
a. 70,000 psi b. 60,000 psi c. 50,000 psi d. 90,000 psi
67. A grade 75 RSB means?
a. Yield strength b. tensile strength c. elongation d. bending
strength
68. A class B type 11 metal guardrails was delivered at site, the required thickness
is 3.58mm but the M.E found out that it only measured 3.33mm what M.E should
do?
a. Accept w/ adjustment price b. reject c. accept d. negotiate
69. In routed riprap, crash stone shall be laid with its longer axis ____ to the
slope.
a. Longitudinal b. any direction c. perpendicular d. non of these
70. The proportional cement & sand of mortar for grouted r’prap shall be?
a. 1:4 b. 1:3 c. 1:2 d. 1:1
71. The horizontal & vertical control surface between stones shall be embedded by
cement mortar a minimum of ____?
a. 20mm b. 25mm c. 30mm d. 35mm
72. The proportion cement sand of mortar for stone masonry shall be
a. 1:2 b. 1:3 c. 1:4 d. 1:1
73. In stone masonry each stone shall be laid with its longer axis ______ to the
faces of the wall
a. Perpendicular b. parallel c. any direction d. diagonal
74. The diameter tolerance for galvanized wire to be used is in gabion is
a. + .09mm b. +2mm c. +11mm d.+1mm
75. The rock size shall not exceed ___ of the matters depth
a. ½ b. 1/3 c. 2/3 d. ¾
76. Filled gabions shall have a minimum density of?
a. 1,400 b. 1,300 c. 1,500 d. 1,000
77. What is the minimum tensile strength of zinc coated wire used in gabion and
mattresses mps
a. 400 b. 385 c. 485 d. 515
78. A hydrated lime for construction purpose shall pass. 100% to sieve ___ ?
a. No. 50 b. no. 20 c. no.200 d. no.100
79. In pavement markings the index of refraction of the beads shall be within the
range of?
a. 1.0 – 1.5 b. 1.5- 1.6 c. 1.2-1.3 d. 1.3-1.4
80. The glass beads shall pass 100% through the standard sieve of ___
a. 200 b. 100 c. 70 d. 80
81. For non-load bearing CHB, what is the minimum average strength?
a. 600 b. 500 c. 700 d. 550
82. For load bearing CHB, what is the minimum average strength?
a. 600 b.800 c. 900 d. 1000
83. What is the average length of metal plate rectangular test specimen
a. 200mm b. 225mm c. 250mm d. 300mm
84. What is the maximum moisture content of a CHB?
a. 30% b. 40% c. 45% d. 50%
85. What is the maximum absorption of a CHB ___ kg/m3
a. 240 b. 250 c. 260 d. 270
86. The installation of rebars is on-going but the lap splicing is not specified on the
plan. If you are the foreman, what is the lap slice length of 25mm tension bar
grade 60? 900mm
87. In splicing of RSB in no care shall the splice length is less than ___ mm?
a. 300mm b. 350mm c. 400mm d. 500mm
88. Concrete vibrates shall separate at a frequency maximum spacing of __?
a. 60cm b. 70cm c. 50cm d. 40cm
89. A timber file shall be treated w/ preservative and shall penetrate at minimum of
20mm?
a. 10mm b. 20mm c. 30mm d. 40mm
90. All concrete piles shall be driven with an allowable variation of _____ per meter
of pile length from the vertical.
a. 15mm b. 10mm c. 25mm d. 20mm
91. What is the minimum penetration of piles driven in a firm materials?
a. 1m b. 4m c. 3m d. 6m
92. What is the minimum penetration of piles driven in a soft materials?
a. 2m b. 7m c. 6m d. 5m
93. In pile driving, the gravity hammers shall not weight less than ___ of the
combine weight of pile & driving head.
a. 60% b. 50% c. 70% d. 80%
94. Gravity hammers shall not weight less than
a. 2,500kg b. 2000kg c. 5000kg d. 1,500kg
95. The maximum height of fall of a hammer in order not to injured the concrete
piles is ___-?
a. 6.0m b. 4.0m c. 2.5m d. 3.0m
96. A concrete pavement is considered adequate if flexural strength of _____ MPA,
if tested by a third point method
a. 3.8 b. 4.5 c. 4.0 d. 3.0
97. A concrete pavement is considered adequate if the CBR representative the area
has a minimum flexural strength of _____ MPA, if tested by a mid - point method
a. 5.0 b. 3.8 c. 4.5 d. 3.0
98. A set of 15cm x 15cm x 525mm con. Beam specimen shall be taken from each
_____m2 of pavement on fraction thereof?
a. 400 b. 75 c. 300 d. 330
99. A material engineer shall takes steps if the concrete mix shall exceed a
temperature of _____?
a. 400c b. 320c c. 430c d. 230
100. A concrete can be thoroughly consolidated by the used of vibrator, but in no
case shall the vibrator be operated beyond _____secs?
a. 10 b. 15 c. 20 d. 30
101. Retempering concrete by adding water when delivered by truck mixers,
provided that the operations are performed within _____ minutes after initial
mixing operation and the water-cement ratio has not attained.
a. 60 b. 90 c. 45 d. 120
102. In form setting for PCCP, forms shall not deviate from true line by more that
______ cm at any point.
a. 1 cm b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
103. A roodbed at the form line is found below the established grade filling of
approved granular materials to grade lifts of _____ , or less is allowed.
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
104. An aggregate that absorbs water and light in weight is a _____ kind of
minerals.
a. Hydrophobic b. hydrophilic c. acrylic d. filler
105. A joint is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in
concreting operations of PCCP and it is constructed from the contraction joint.
a. 2.5 b. 2.0 c. 1.0 d. 1.5
106. A contraction joint shall be created in the surface of the pavement of a width of
not more than _____.
a. 6 mm. b. 7 mm. c. 50 m d. 10 mm
107. The minimum depth of a contraction joint is _____.
a. 20 mm. b. 30 mm. c. 40 mm. d. 50 mm.
108. In straw curing for PCCP, the surface shall be covered with at least _____ of
straw or hay and kept wetted.
a. 5 cm. b. 10 cm. c. 20 cm. d. 25 cm.
109. As Project Engineer or Materials Engineer, prior to pouring what data is
necessary that will affect the proportions of mixing of components of a concrete?
Considering that the batching plant is already calibrated concrete mix design is
available, the crew are sufficient.
a. Moisture content b. unit wt. c. slump d. soundness test
110. What is the main purpose of a test pile?
a. Reinforcement pile b. to determine the number of piles c. to
ascertain the desired length of pile d. to determine the scouring depth
111. What is the most common control test for embankment in order to have
determine the adequacy of degree of compaction?
a. Field density test b. maximum dry density c. soil exploration d.
soil survey
112. _____ is the type of test to determine the silt and clay content of a soil.
a. Liquid limit b. plastic c. moisture content d. hydrometer test
113. In embankment construction, field density test shall be conducted as required
for every ______.?
a. 500 m2 b. 330 m2 c. 100 lin.m. d. one lot
114. Chito knows that an asphaltic material is tube used for sealing of PCCP joints,
what penetration grade of material is appropriate?
a. 85-100 b. not more than 90 c. 150-200 d. 120-150
115. In marshall stability test, the mold specimen shall be tested within ____
seconds from time it is taken from the water tank.
a. 40 b. 30 c. 50 d. 60
116. Materials quality control of the project is the primary concern of ____.
a. Contractor’s M.E. b. DPWH D.E. c. accredited testing facilities d.
none
117. A curing compound shall be applied under pressure at a rate of _______.
4L l> 14m2

118. In prestressing of cement that void between duct and tendon shall be bonded
with grout. The grout shall have a water content of not more than ______.
a. 20 L/sack of cement b. 19 L/sack of cement c. 25 L/sack of cement
d. 30 L/sack of cement
119. A lean concrete shall have a minimum compressive strength of ______ psi.
a. 2400 b. 3000 c. 2000 d. 4000
120. In grouted riprap walls, weep holes shall be provided using PVC with a
diameter of at least 50 mm. and spaced on a staggered manner of not more
than _____ m. center to center.
a. 1 b. 4 c. 3 d. 2
121. A concrete used in rubble concrete is type _____?
a. A b. B c. C d. D
122. In placing of concrete by dropping, the height shall not exceed _____ m.
a. 1.5 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 2.5
123. A concrete class B shall have a minimum compressive strength of ______ psi.
a. 5000 b. 2500 c. 3000 d. 2400
124. The materials to be used for item 200 and 201, the fraction passing sieve 200
shall not exceed 2/3 of the fraction passing ______. 40
125. The coarse portion retained on sieve 2.0mm (10) shall have a mass percent
wear of not exceeding _____. 50
126. The maximum nominal size for materials to be used for item 200 and 201 is
_____.2
127. The CBR value of materials used for item 200 shall not be less than ______.30
128. The CBR value of materials used for item 200 shall not be less than ______.80
129. In the scarcity of materials for base course the use of ____weathered lime
stone shall be blended with ____ crushed stone or gravel.40%
130. The area of a trial section for item 200, 201 and 104 shall be _____.500m2
131. Which of the following is a compaction equipment?
a. Sheep foot b. dog foot c. cow foot d. man foot
132. Steel wheel rollers shall be capable of an exerting force of not less than _____
.per mm. at with
a. 40 b. 45 c. 30 d. 20
133. A free hall distance of an excavated materials is _________m.
a. 400 b. 500 c. 600 d. 800
134. The liquid limit of an item 200 shall not greater than ________.
a. 35 b. 40 c. 25 d. 9
135. The plastic limit of item 201 materials shall not greater than _______.
a. 6 b. 12 c. 10 d. 8
136. The liquid limit of an item 201 materials shall be greater than ________.
a. 20 b. 30 c. 35 d. 25
137. Selected borrow shall have a liquid limit of not more than ________.
a. 10 b. 12 c. 6 d. 9
138. Selected borrow shall have a liquid limit of not more than ___________.
a. 30 b. 35 c. 40 d. 80
139. an suitable materials shall have a liquid limit exceeding ___.
a. 50 b. 60 c. 80 d. 90
140. A materials is considered unsuitable if the plastic limit with be greater than
55
141. A material which has a natural density of 800 kg/m3 is considered
Unsuitable materials
142. The rate of loading for concrete cylinder sample is
20 to 50 psi/min
143. The rate of loading concrete beam sample is
125 to 175 psi/mi
144. The maximum size of coarse aggregates for item 311 is
3
145. In lime stabilized road mix, the strength requirement for CBR is 100%
146. Il lime stabilized road mix the degree of compaction is 100% of max dry
density
147. The lime stabilized base course shall have a 5 days curing period
148. In a portland cement stabilized road mix the proportion of cement to dry soil-
shall be within 6 to 10 %
149. In a asphalt stabilized road mix, the proportion of asphalt material shall be from
4 to 7 % of dry soil-aggregate
150. For a crushed aggregates base course, the course aggregates shall have a
mass % near not exceeding 45%
151. A CBR value of crushed aggregates base course shall not less than 80%
152. An aggregates surface course, the plasticity index ranges from 4 to 9 , this
materials used utilize for road shoulders.
153. If crushed aggregates is use the aggregates w/ one fractured face shall not less
than 50%
154. The course aggregates of aggregate surface course shall not have a percent
wear of not more than 45.
155. The liquid limit of an aggregate surface course shall not exceed 30
156. In determination of liquid limit & plastic limit, the materials shall pass the sieve
# 40
157. If crushed slag is use for bituminous surface treatment, it shall have a density
of not less than 960 kg/m3
158. The maximum nominal size for item 300 aggregate surface course is 1
159. If not specified in the plan the splice length shall not be less than 40 bar Ø
160. Gov. procurement reform act is called R.A 9184
161. A joint mortar for concrete pipes shall be 1 part by volume of cement to 2 parts
of sand. 1:2
162. A mortar shall be rejected after 30 minutes after its preparation
163. If a class of bedding for conduit not specified the depth shall not be less than
10 % of the total depth.
164. Conduit laying shall begin at the downstream of the conduit line.
165. In item 311, per standard specification for highways, bridges & airports. The
minimum cement factor is 9.1bags or 364 kg
166. The maximum length of spur dike is 20% of the width of a river in no case it
shall exceed 100mtrs.
167. a class of concrete deposited in water is called class seal.
168. A class seal concrete must have a minimum of 380 kg/m3 or 9.5 bags/m3
169. A concrete pipe culvert will be rejected if the honeycomb will exceed
2,000mm2

170. A rich concrete means?

a. high cement factor b. more on coarse aggts. c. more on fine aggts. d.

high water cement ratio
CONCRETE

Concrete – is defined as the composition of paste (water and cement) and mineral
aggregates (coarse and fine aggregates) mixed in the proportions specified. It is a
construction material that is made of Portland cement (or some other form of
hydraulic cement), aggregate ( gravel and sand), and water mixed in predetermined
proportions. Concretes solidifies and hardens after mixing and placement due to a
chemical process known as hydration.

311.2.2 FINE AGGREGATES

It shall consist of natural sand, stone screenings or other inert materials with
similar characteristics, or combinations thereof, having hard, strong and durable
particles. Fine aggregate from different sources of supply shall not be mixed or stored
in the same pile nor used alternately in the same class of concrete without the
approval of the Engineer.

It shall not contain more than three (3) mass percent of material passing the
0.075 mm (No. 200 sieve) by washing nor more than one (1) mass percent each clay
lumps or shale. The use of beach sand will not be allowed without the approval of the
Engineer.

If the fine aggregate is subjected to five (5) cycles of the sodium sulfate
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed 10 mass percent.

The fine aggregate shall be free from injurious amounts of organic impurities.
If subjected to the colorimatic test for organic impurities and a color darker than the
standard is produced, it shall be rejected. However, when tested for the effect of
organic impurities on strength of mortar by AASHTO T 71, the fine aggregate may be
used if the relative strength at 7 and 28 days is not less than 95 percent.

GRADING REQUIREMENTS FOR FINE AGGREGATES

Sieve Desination Mass percent Passing

9.5mm(3/8 in) 100
4.75mm(No.4) 95-100
2.36mm(No.8) -
1.18mm(No.16) 45-80
0.600mm(No.30)
0.300(No.50) 5 - 30
0.150mm(No.100) 0-10
311.2.3 COARSE AGGREGATE

It shall consist of crushed stone, gravel, blast furnace slag, or other approved
inert materials (coralline or dolomites) of similar characteristics, or combinations
thereof, having hard, strong, durable pieces and free from any adherent coatings.

It shall contain not more than one (1) mass percent of material passing the
0.075 mm (No. 200) sieve, not more than 0.25 mass percent of clay lumps, nor more
than 3.5 mass percent of soft fragments.

If the coarse aggregate is subjected to five (5) cycles of the sodium sulfate
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed 12 mass percent.

It shall have a mass percent of wear not exceeding 40 when tested by AASHTO
T 96.

If the slag is used, its density shall not be less than 1120 kg/m3. The gradation
of the coarse aggregate shall conform to Table 311.2.

Only one grading specification shall be used from any one source.

GRADING REQUIREMENTS FOR COARSE AGGREGATES

SIEVE DESIGNATION MASS PERCENT PASSING

Alternate U.S.
Standard mm. GRADING A GRADING B GRADING C
Standard
75 3 IN 100 - -
63 2 1/2 90-100 100 100
50 2 - 90-100 95-100
37.5 1 1/2 25-60 35-70 -
25 1 - 0-15 35-70
19 3/4 0-10 - -
12.5 1/2 0-5 0-5 10-30
4.75 NO.4 - - 0-5
ITEM 714 – WATER

This Item covers criteria for acceptance of Questionable Water either natural or
wash water for use in concrete.

The mixing water shall be clear and apparently clean. If it contains quantities
or substances that discolor it or make it smell or taste unusual or objectionable, or
cause suspicion, it shall not be used unless service records of concrete made with it
(or other information) indicated that it is not injurious to the quality, shall be subject
to the acceptance criteria as shown in Table 714.1 and Table 714.2 or as designated
by the purchaser.

When wash water is permitted, the producer will provide satisfactory proof or
data of non-detrimental effects if potentially reactive aggregates are to be used. Use
of wash water will be discontinued if undesirable reactions with admixtures or
aggregates occur.

Table 714.1 – Acceptance Criteria for Questionable Water Supplies

Physical Properties Limits

Compressive strength, min. % Control at 7 days 90
Time of Setting deviation from control from 1:00 earlier to 1:30 later
Time of Setting (Gillmore Test)
Initial No marked change
Final Set No marked change
Appearance Clear
Color Colorless
Odor Odorless
Total Solids 500 parts/million max.
pH value 4.5 to 8.5
Table 714.2 – Chemical Limitation for Wash Water

Chemical Properties Limits

Chemical Requirements, Minimum Concentration
Chloride as CL (-1) expressed as a mass percent
of cement when added to the concrete mixtures
shall not exceed the following levels:
1. Prestressed Concrete 0.06 percent
2. Conventionally reinforced concrete in a moist 0.10 percent
environment and exposed to chloride
3. Conventionally reinforced concrete in a moist 0.15 percent
environment and exposed to chloride
4. Above ground building construction where the No limit for corrosion
concrete will stay dry

Sulfate as SO4 , ppmA 3000

Alkalies as (Na2O + 0.658 K2O), 600
Ppm
Total Solids, ppm 5000

Wash water reused as mixing in concrete may exceed the listed ns of sulfate if
it can be shown that the concentration calculated in the total mixing water, including
mixing water on the aggregate and other sources, does not exceed that stated limits.

Water will be tested in accordance with, and shall meet the suggested
requirements of AASHTO T 26.

Water known to be of potable quality may be used without test.

DETERMINATION OF SPECIFIC GRAVITY AND ABSORPTION OF FINE AND
COARSE AGGREGATES

SIGNIFICANCE:

1. Bulk specific gravity is the characteristic generally used for calculation of the
volume by the aggregate in various mixtures containing aggregate including
portland cement concrete, analyzed on an absolute volume basis.
2. Absorption values are used to calculate the change in the weight of an
aggregate due to water absorbed in the pore spaces within the constituent,
compacted to the dry condition, when it is deemed that the aggregate has
been in contact with water long enough to satisfy most of the absorption
potential.

CALCULATION:

For Coarse Aggregate

Bulk sp. gr. = A/ (B - C)

Absorption, % = [(B – A)/A] x 100

Where:
A = weight of oven-dry test sample in air, g,
B = weight of saturated-surface-dry test sample in air, g,
And
C = weight of saturated test sample in water, g

or Fine Aggregate

Bulk Sp. Gravity = A/ (B + S – C)

Absorption, % = [(S – A)/A] x 100

Where:
A = weight of oven-dry specimen in air, g
B = weight of pycnometer filled with water, g
C = weight of pycnometer with specimen and water to calibration mark.
S = weight of saturated surface-dry specimen, g
ABRASION TEST

SIGNIFICANCE

This test evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an

indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. The results do
not automatically permit valid comparisons to be made between sources distinctly
different in origin, composition or structure.

APPARATUS:

1. Los Angeles Machine.

2. Standard sieves with pan and cover.
3. Abrasive charges.
4. Pans.
5. Balance and weights.
6. Oven-uniform temperature of 110+5oC (230+9oF).
PROCEDURE:

The test sample shall consist of clean aggregate which has been oven-dried to
constant weight/mass at 110+5oC and shall conform to one of the following table:

Sieve Size Grading and Weight of Test Sample, g

Passing Retained on A B C D

37.5 mm 25 mm 1250+25 - - -

25 mm 19 mm 1250+25 - - -

19 mm 12.5 mm 1250+10 2500+10 - -

12.5 mm 9.5 mm 1250+10 2500+10 - -

9.5 mm 6.3 mm - - 2500+10 -

6.3 mm 4.75 mm - - 2500+10 -

4.75 mm 2.36 mm - - - 5000+10

The abrasive charge shall consist of cast-iron spheres or steel spheres

approximately 46.8 mm in diameter and each weighing between 390 and 455 grams.
The charge depending upon grading of test sample shall be as follows:

Grading No. of Spheres Weight of charge, g

A 12 5000 + 25

B 11 4584 + 25

C 8 3330 + 20

D 6 2500 + 15

1) Place test sample and abrasive charge in the Los Angeles machine rotated
at a speed of 30 to 33 rpm 500 revolutions.

2) At completion of test, discharge material from the machine. Make a

preliminary separation of the samples on a sieve coarser than 1.70 mm.
3) Sieve finer portion on the 1.70 mm sieve, using the standing procedure of
sieving aggregates.

4) Wash all materials coarser than 1.70 mm, dry to constant weight/mass at
about 105oC to 110oC and weigh accurately to the nearest 1 gram.

CALCULATION:

Express the difference between the original weight/mass and the weight/mass
of material coarser than 1.70 mm sieve as a percentage of the original weight/mass of
test sample. This value represents the percent abrasion loss.

Original mass Sample retained on

of sample, g - No. 1.70 mm sieve, (No. 12) g

Percentage of Wear, % = ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- x 100

Original mass of sample, g

FINENESS MODULUS:
Is the sum of total aggregates retained on specified sieve( N0.4 – 100)
divided by 100. Based on ASTM C33, FM of fine aggregates must be
within 2.3 to 3.1., the higher the FM the coarser the aggregates and
usually a lower FM results in more paste making concrete easier to finish.
In high cement factor used in the production of a high strength concrete,
a coarser sand with a FM of 3.0 will produce concrete with the best
workability and highest compressive strength . However, ACI table V have
standards and corrections to be used in calculation of Concrete Mix
Design.
DETERMINATION OF ORGANIC IMPURITIES IN SANDS FOR CONCRETE

SIGNIFICANCE

The test determines the presence of the injurious organic compounds in natural
sands which are to be used in cement mortar or concrete. The purpose of the test is
to furnish a warning that further tests of the sand are necessary before they are
approved for use.

APPARATUS:

Glass bottles – approximately 350 ml graduated clear glass prescription bottle

with rubber, cork or other watertight stoppers, not soluble in the specified reagents.

SAMPLE:

Obtain a sample of sand weighing about 450g in accordance with standard

procedure in Reducing Field Samples of Aggregate to Testing Size.

REAGENTS AND REFERENCE STANDARD COLOR SOLUTION

1. Sodium hydroxide solution (3 percent) – dissolve 3 parts by weight of

sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in 97 parts of water.

2. Reference color standard solution – dissolve reagent grade potassium

dichromate (K2Cr2O7) in concentrated sulfuric acid (sp. gr. 1.84) at the rate
of 0.250 g per 100 ml of acid. The solution if necessary to effect solution.

PROCEDURE:

1. Fill a glass bottle to the approximately 130 ml level with the sample of the
sand to be tested.
2. Add a 3 percent NaOH solution in water until the volume of the sand and
liquid, indicated after shaking, is approximately 200ml.
3. Stopper the bottle, shake vigorously, and then allow to stand for 24 hr.
UNIT WEIGHT/MASS DETERMINATION IN AGGREGATE

SIGNIFICANCE:

Values of unit weight/mass are used in volumetric- gravimetric

evaluations. In volumetric batching of concrete aggregate, the unit mass should
be known to convert weight/mass into loose volume.

CONCRETE MIX DESIGN

CEMENT FACTOR 11 BAGS
Structural Concrete
Fine Aggregates Coarse Aggregates

Type: Natural Type: Rounded

Fine Modulos: 2.87 Max Size: 19.0 mm
Bulk Sp. Gr.: 2.57 Abrasion Loss: 29
Moisture Content: 7.21 Bulk Sp. Gr.: 2.60
Absorption: 3.82 Moisture Content: 1.75
Dry Unit Wt.: 1791.76kg/m3 Absorption: 2.09
Sp. Gr. Cement: 3.12 Dry Unit Wt. Ave: 1559.70kg/m3
Slump : 101.6mm

FOR STRUCTURAL CONCRETE:

𝟏𝟏
Abs. Vol. of Concrete = . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 (𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄 𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇)

𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒
Abs. Vol. of 40 kg Bag Cement = (𝟎𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎)
𝟑𝟑.𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 (𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔.𝒈𝒈𝒈𝒈.) 𝒙𝒙 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏/m3

Adjustment from table V for water content considering the max. size of aggregates.
Determine the corrected slump:

Actual slump−Std.slump
Slump correction = (±3%)
25.4
101.6mm−76.2mm
=
25.4mm
= +3%

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏+𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏(𝟑𝟑%)
Net Water =
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥𝐥/𝐦𝐦𝐦𝐦

189.52kg/m3
Abs. Vol. of Water per Bag =
11 bags/m3x1000 kg/m3
= 0.01722 m3/bag

Abs. Vol. of Cement and Water = .01282 + .01722

= . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

Abs. Vol. of Fine Aggregates and Coarse = . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎− . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

= . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

Corrections of Fine Aggregates, % of Total Aggregates.

% sand of total aggregates = 46 considering 19mm dia. max. size

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓
Water/Cement = = . 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

.𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒− .𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 (𝟏𝟏)

Water/Cement Corrections = = −𝟐𝟐. 𝟖𝟖
.𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨𝑨 𝒇𝒇.𝒎𝒎.−𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔𝒔.𝒇𝒇.𝒎𝒎.
% F.m. corr = = . 𝟓𝟓%
𝟎𝟎.𝟏𝟏

( 𝟐𝟐.𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖−𝟐𝟐.𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕 )
= . 𝟓𝟓%
.𝟏𝟏
= .60
Total Corrections = .60% - 2.8%
= -2.2%

% sand from table V

= 46 – 2.2
= 43.8%

Abs. vol. of F.A = abs vol. of aggts. (43.8%)

= .06087 (43.8%)
= .02666

Abs vol. of C.A = .06087 - .02666

= 0.3421

Batch Weight Abs Vol. Sp. Gr. DENSITY UNCORRECTED CORRECTED

CEMENT .012821 3.12 1000 40

FINE AGGTS. .02666 2.57 1000 68.516

COARSE AGGTS. .03421 2.6 1000 88.946

WATER .1722 1.0 1000 17.22

Corrected Weight

𝟕𝟕.𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐−𝟑𝟑.𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖
F.A = 68.516 ( 𝟏𝟏 +
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
)
𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕. 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖 𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌
[𝟐𝟐.𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎−𝟏𝟏.𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕]
C.A = 88.946 ( 𝟏𝟏 − 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
)
= 𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖. 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌

H2O = [ 40+ 68.516+ 88.946+ 17.22 ] – [ 40 + 70.84 + 88.64 ]

H2O = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌
CONCRETE MIX DESIGN
CEMENT FACTOR 10 BAGS

FINE AGGREGATES COARSE AGGREGATES

Type: Natural Type: Rounded

Fine Modulos: 3.61 Max Size: 76.5
Bulk Sp. Gr.: 2.65 Abrasion Loss: 29
Moisture Content: 5.65 Bulk Sp. Gr.: 2.67
Absorption: 2.67 Moisture Content: 1.48
Dry Unit Wt.: 1791.76kg/m3 Absorption: 1.81
Sp. Gr. Cement: 3.15 Dry Unit Wt. Ave: 1559.70kg/m3
Slump : 101.6mm

TYPE OF CONCRETE PCCP

𝟏𝟏
Abs. Vol. of Concrete = . 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 m3
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒
Abs. Vol. of Cement = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
𝟑𝟑.𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 𝒙𝒙 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏(𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.𝟔𝟔−𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕.𝟐𝟐)𝟑𝟑%
Net Water = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏 + − 𝟒𝟒. 𝟕𝟕(𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇 𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍 𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘 𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄𝒄. ) = 147.74
𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐.𝟒𝟒

Abs. Vol. of Water and Cement: . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎+. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

= . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

Abs. Vol. of Fine Aggregates and Coarse Aggregates

= .10 - .02746
= .07254

𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏.𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕
Water/Cement Ratio = = 𝟎𝟎. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍/𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

𝟏𝟏
Water/Cement Corrections (. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑− . 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓) � �
𝟎𝟎.𝟓𝟓
= −𝟒𝟒. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

.𝟓𝟓
Corrections for Fineness Modulus: [𝟑𝟑. 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 − 𝟐𝟐. 𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕).
.𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
= +𝟒𝟒. 𝟑𝟑%
Total Corrections
+𝟒𝟒. 𝟑𝟑
−𝟒𝟒. 𝟎𝟎
−𝟑𝟑
− 𝟐𝟐. 𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕%

Table V
𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑% − 𝟐𝟐. 𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕% = 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐. 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐%

Fine Aggregates: 𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 (. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎)− . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

Coarse Aggregates: = . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎−. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
= . 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎
=. 𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎𝟎

Abs. Sp. Density UnCorr.

BATCH WEIGHT Vol. Gr. Water Wt. Corr. Wt.
Cement .01269 x 3.15 X 1000 = 40 40
Fine Aggregates .02051 x 2.65 x 1000 = 54.351 55.97
Coarse
Aggregates .05203 x 2.67 x 1000 = 138.92 138.46
Water 14.774 x 1 x 1000 = 14.774 13.615

Corrected Weights:
%𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇𝒇 𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘
Uncorrected wt (𝐅𝐅. 𝐀𝐀)[𝟏𝟏 + ]
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟓𝟓.𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔− 𝟐𝟐.𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔
= 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 [𝟏𝟏 + ]
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
Fine Aggregates = 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗

%𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘𝒘 𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓𝒓
Uncorrected wt (𝐂𝐂. 𝐀𝐀)[𝟏𝟏 − ]
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏
𝟏𝟏.𝟖𝟖𝟖𝟖− 𝟏𝟏.𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒
= 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 [𝟏𝟏 − ]
𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏

Coarse Aggregates = 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒

Water Corrections
= [ 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗] + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕𝟕 − [𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒 + 𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓. 𝟗𝟗𝟗𝟗 + 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟒𝟒𝟒𝟒]
= 𝟏𝟏𝟏𝟏. 𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔𝟔 𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍𝒍/𝒌𝒌𝒌𝒌
Item 311 - Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

A. Cement
Quantity: 9.0 bags /m3 (40 kg/bag)

Tests: For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:

1 - Q, Quality Test

B. Fine Aggregate
Quantity:

A. 0.50 m3 /m3 concrete ----- if using rounded coarse aggregate.

B. 0.54 m3 /m3 concrete ----- if using angular or crushed coarse aggregate.
Tests: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:

A. For a source not yet tested, or failed in previous quality test:

1 - Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation (Wash), Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % Clay Lumps and % Shale).

B. For a source previously tested and passed quality test:

1 - Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation (Wash), Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, and Mortar Strength).

For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:

1 - G, Grading Test

C. Coarse Aggregate
Quantity:

a.) 0.77 m3 /m3 concrete ---- if using rounded coarse aggregate.

b.) 0.68 m3 /m3 concrete ---- if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate.
Tests: For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:

a.) For a source not yet tested or failed quality tests:

1- Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight).
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality tests:
1 - Q, Quality Test ( Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion).

For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:

1 - G, Grading Test

D. Water
Tests: 1 - Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 - Q, Quality Test if source is
questionable.

E. Joint Filler
1.) Poured Joint Filler
Tests: 1 - Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each shipment

2.) Premolded Joint Filler

Tests: 1 - Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment

F. Special Curing Agents

Tests: 1 - Q, Quality test for each shipment

G. Steel Bars
Tests: For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:

1 - Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)

H. Concrete
Tests: Flexural Strength Test on Concrete Beam Samples:

1 - Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2 of

pavement, 230 mm depth, or fraction thereof placed each day.

Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3

I. Completed Pavement

Tests: Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis.

Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when two (2)

lanes are poured concurrently.

TABLE V
APPROXIMATESAND AND WATER CONTENTS PER CUBIC METER OF CONCRETE

Based on mix having a water cement ratio of 0.57 by weight of 27.7 liters per sack of
cement. 76.2 mm. slump and natural sand having fineness modulus of about 2.75

For mixes having either properties see adjustment below

Rounded Coarse Aggregate Angular Coarse Aggregate
Maximum size Sand % of Net Water Content per Sand % of Net Water Content per
of Coarse Total cubic meter Total cubic meter
Aggregate mm Aggregate Aggregate
(inch) by Absolute Kilograms Liters by Absolute Kilograms Liters
Vol. M3 Vol. M3
12.7 (1/2) 51 199 199 56 214 214
19.0 (3/4) 46 184 184 51 199 199
25.4 (1) 41 178 178 46 192 192
38.1 (1 ½) 37 166 166 42 181 181
50.8 (2) 34 157 157 39 172 172
76.2 (3) 31 148 148 36 163 163
152.4 (6) 26 131 131 31 146 146

Adjustment of above table for other condition

Effect of Value in Table V

CHANGES IN CONDITIONS STIPULATED IN TABLE V
Percent Sand Net water contents
Each 0.05 increase or decrease in water cement ratio ±1 0
Each 0.1 increase or decrease in fineness modulus of ± 1/2 0
sand
Each 25.4 mm increase or decrease in slump 0 ±3 %
Manufactured Sand +3 + 8.9 kg
For less workable concrete as Pavement 3 ‒ 4.7 kg
QUALITY CONTROL IN CONCRETE CONSTRUCTION

The two (2) composition of concrete:

1. Paste – water and cement

2. Mineral aggregate – coarse and fine aggregate

Requirements of concrete:

1. It should have the required strength

2. It should be uniform, watertight, and resistant wear, weather and other
destructive agencies.
3. It should not shrink excessively on cooling or dying on wetting.
4. High resistant to fire, chemicals or abrasion.

Factors Affecting Strength/other characteristics of Concrete:

1. Quality of aggregate and cement

2. Quantity of mixing water and cement (the lower the water-cement ratio,
the greater is the strength)
3. Curing conditions
4. Time of mixing
5. Age

Curing:

Is the process maintaining sufficient moisture and a favorable temperature in

concrete during the hardening process so that the desired properties for concrete
are developed.
It is important to prevent undesirable reduction of moisture in the paste as
soon as the concrete is placed. Loss of moisture at this age results in drying
shrinkage and development of cracks in the paste.

Two (2) principal methods or procedures for the protection and curing of concrete,
namely:
1. By maintaining a moist environment by the application of water through
ponding, spray, steams or saturated cover materials such as earth,
sawdust, or burlap.

Care should be taken to ensure that saturated cover materials do not dry
out and absorb water fall from the concrete.
2. By prevention of loss of mixing water from the concrete by means of
sealing materials, such as impervious sheets of paper or plastic, or by the
application of a membrane forming curing compound to the freshly placed
concrete.

Shrinkage and Swelling:

When concrete is kept continuously damp it slowly expands, but both the
total amount and rate of expansion are normally so small that the volume is
considered to remain constant. Usually concrete is not kept damp, hence it is subject
to water loss and shrinkage, rather than expansion.
The more porous the hardened paste, the greater is the shrinkage. With the
same paste, the higher paste content of the concrete, the greater the shrinkage.
Drying shrinkage is a primary cause of cracking in concrete.

Heat of Hydration:

Excessive temperature rise is undesirable for it may impair strength and cause
cracking of the concrete. Some of the measures used to control rapid temperature
rise are, using a lean mix or low heat type of cement, precooling materials and using
ice with mixing water.

Quality Control Measures:

1. Selection of Materials
2. Design of Concrete Mixtures
3. Aggregate Production Control
4. Concrete Production Control
5. Control in Transporting and Placing
6. Control of Consistency
7. Sampling and Testing of Concrete Mixtures
8. Curing and Protection

Selection of Materials

Quality of concrete is greatly dependent on the quality of the individual

ingredients.

1. Aggregates:
A quality aggregate consist of particles which are free from fractures,
not easily abraded, favorably graded, and not flat or elongated, with rough
surface textures, and which contain no minerals that interfere with cement
hydration or react with cement hydration products to cause excessive
expansion.

Criteria to be considered in selecting aggregates:

a. Once a grading is established it should be maintained constant within

rather close tolerances.
b. An aggregate with unfavorable particle shape should not necessarily be
rejected, if other alternatives are very costly.
c. An aggregate that contains appreciable amount of organic materials
which may interfere materially with the setting of cement should not
be used.
d. An aggregate that will not produce concrete of the required strength
should not be used. If required strength can be attained with an
excessive cement factor, use of the aggregate is not economical and
not advisable.
e. An aggregate to be used in concrete exposed to severe weathering
should be essentially free of particles that are soft or friable, or highly
absorptive.
f. An Aggregate containing substances that could react with alkalies in
the cement to cause excessive expansion should not be used in
concrete exposed to wetting unless it is required that low-alkali cement
is used.

2. Cement

There are various types of cement for different usages; for example, highly
early strength, surface resistant or low heat.
Type I Portland Cement is for general use and is the type ordinarily available.

Design of Concrete Mixtures

To determine the proportion of the ingredients that will produce concrete of

the proper workability when fresh and the desired durability and the strength after it
has hardened.

Factors to be considered:
1. Requirements as to placing.
2. Interrelationships of cement content, water-cement ratio, and gradation of
aggregate.
3. Required strength.
4. Quality of concrete necessary to satisfy the condition of exposure.
5. Considerations of economy

Aggregate Production Control:

After the aggregates have been selected, there should be constant check on
cleanliness and gradation during production.
In stockpiling aggregate at the plant site, care should be exercised such that
there is no segregation of the coarse from finer sizes.

Concrete Production Control:

1. The measuring scales should be calibrated and checked periodically.

2. The moisture content of aggregate should be determined constantly for
adjustment of mix proportions.
3. Measurement of aggregate, water and cement should be checked closely.
4. Segregation in coarse aggregate should be reduced to minimum by
separating the material into several size fractions and batching the
fractions separately.
5. Insure thorough mixing since it is essential for the production of uniform
concrete.
The usual specifications such as one (1) minute for ¾ cu.m. plus one
(1) minute for each additional ¾ cu.m. of capacity can be used as guide for
establishing initial mixing time to be followed should be base on mixer
performance.

Control in Transporting and Placing:

A basic requirement for placing equipment and methods is that the quality of
the concrete in terms of water-cement ratio, slump, homogeneity and air content
must be preserved. Concrete should be placed in horizontal layers not exceeding 60
cm. in depth, avoiding inclined layers and cold joints. For monolithic construction
each concrete layer should be placed while the underlying layer is still responsive to
vibration, and layers should be insufficiently shallow to permit knitting the two
together by proper vibration. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed at the
lower portion of the slope first, progressing upward, thereby increasing natural
compaction of the concrete.
Consolidation of Concrete:

Internal vibration when properly applied is the most effective method of

consolidating and placing concrete. Vibrators should not be used to move concrete
laterally and should be inserted and withdrawn vertically at close intervals.

Control of Consistency:

The consistency of the mixtures should be checked frequently by the slump

test or ball penetration. The slump test is simple, but very important, since it is an
indicator of water content or water-cement ratio. An excess of water in the mixture
will cause a corresponding loss of potential strength. For economy, the lowest slump
which can be placed properly should always be used, because if the water-cement
ratio is fixed any increase in slump increases the cement requirement.

Recommended Ranges of Slump:

TYPE OF CONSTRUCTION Slum p, m m (inch)

Maximum Minimum
Slabs, beams and reinforced walls 150 (6) 75 (3)
Building columns 150 (6) 75 (3)
Reinforced foundation walls and footings 125 (5) 50 (2)
Plain footings, caissons, and substructure walls 100 (4) 25 (1)
Pavements 75 (3) 50 (2)
Heavy mass construction 75 (3) 25 (1)

Sampling and Testing of Concrete Mixture:

The sampling requirement is to obtain a set of three (3) cylinder samples for
structural concrete or a set of three (3) beam samples for paving concrete for every
75 cu.m. or fraction thereof for each class of concrete. At least one set of samples
shall be obtained for each day of concreting work.

Particular attention should be given to the protection and curing of molded

specimen for strength tests. Due to their small volume compared to the structure,
test specimens will be more adversely affected by big temperature and will dry more
rapidly and completely than the concrete in-place.
Test specimens used as the basis for acceptance of concrete as delivered to
the jobsite should be protected from drying and temperature rise and should be
transferred to standard continuous moist curing conditions in a laboratory at the age
of one day. During the transfer, they should also be protected and handled carefully.

Curing and Protection:

Curing is keeping the concrete moist so that hydration of the cement can
continue. It is done immediately after final placement of the concrete to prevent or
minimize the occurrence of plastic shrinkage cracks.

The exposed surface of normal cement concrete should be kept continuously

moist for atleast 7 days, 14 days will be better.

Sealing compounds are generally accepted as satisfactory means of curing,

particularly if preceded by wet curing. The surface to be cured should still be moist
when the seal is applied.

Protection from Damage:

Heavy impact on green concrete will disturbed the mass should not be
permitted Floors over which construction activities are carried on should be covered.

Back filling against concrete should be done only when the concrete is strong
enough to carry the load, and only if performed with care to avoid impact.

Significance of Site Inspection:

There is no substitute for site quality control inspection in concrete work. If

there are defects in workmanship, the concrete structure may be structurally
unsound although test results are satisfactory. This may be due to one or a
combination of the following:

1. Addition of water after samples have been taken

2. Delayed placing
3. Unsuitable weather conditions (rain or excessive heat)
4. Inadequate compaction
5. Inadequate curing and protection
6. Contamination of concrete mix before or during placement.
Significance of Proper Sampling and Testing:

Test results on concrete samples reflect the actual of the structure. If the
sampling and testing of samples is defective, test results will be unsatisfactory but
the concrete may be structurally sound. This may be due to one or a combination of
the following:

1. Incorrect sampling
2. Inadequate compaction of sample
3. Contamination of sample
4. Damage to sample
5. Inadequate curing and protection of sample
6. Incorrect test method and procedure
7. Inaccurate test results
8. Mixed samples

Preparation of Grade:

After the subgrade or base has been placed and compacted to the required
density, the areas which will support the paving machine and the grade on which the
pavement is to be constructed shall be trimmed to the proper elevation by means of
a properly designed machine extending the prepared work areas compacted at least
60 cm beyond each edge of the proposed concrete pavement. If loss of density
results from the trimming operations, it shall be restored by additional compaction
before concrete is placed. If any traffic is allowed to use the prepared subgrade or
base, the surface shall be checked and corrected immediately ahead of the placing
concrete.

The subgrade or base shall be uniformly moist when the concrete is placed.

Setting Forms:

1. Base Support

The foundation under the forms shall ne hard and true to grade so that
the form when set will be firmly in contact for its whole length and at the
specified grade. Any roadbed, which at the form line is found below
established grade, shall be filled with approved granular materials to grade in
lifts of three (3) cm or less, and thoroughly rerolled or tamped. Imperfections
or variations above grade shall be corrected by tamping or by cutting as
necessary.

2. Form Setting

Forms shall be set sufficiently in advance of the point where concrete

is being placed. After the forms have been set to correct grade, the grade
shall be thoroughly tamped, mechanically or by hand, at both the inside and
outside edges of the base of the forms. The forms shall not deviate from true
line by more than one (1) cm at any point.

3. Grade and Alignment

The alignment and grade elevations of the forms shall be checked and
corrections made by the Contractor immediately before placing the concrete.
Testing as to crown and elevation, prior to placing of concrete can be made
by means of holding an approved template in a vertical position and moved
backward and forward on the forms.

When any form has been disturbed or any grade has become unstable,
the form shall be reset and rechecked.

Mixing Concrete:

The concrete may be mixed at the site of the work in a central-mix plant, or
in truck mixers. The mixer shall be of an approved type and capacity. Mixing time
will be measured from the time all materials, except water, are in the drum. Ready-
mixed concrete shall be mixed and delivered in accordance with requirements of
AASHTO M 157, except that the minimum required revolutions at the mixing speed
for transit-mixed concrete may be reduced to not less than that recommended by
the mixer manufacturer. The number of revolutions recommended by the mixer
manufacturer shall be indicated on the manufacturer’s serial plate attached to the
mixer. The Contractor shall furnish test data acceptable to the Engineer verifying
that the make and model of the mixer will produce uniform concrete conforming to
the provision of AASHTO M 157 at the reduced number of revolutions shown on the
serial plate.

Mixed concrete from the central mixing plant shall be transported in truck
mixers, truck agitators or non-agitating truck. The time elapsed from the time water
is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at the Site shall not
exceed forty five (45) minutes when the concrete is hauled in non-agitating trucks,
nor ninety (90) minutes when hauled in truck mixers or truck agitators, except that
in hot weather or under other conditions contributing to quick hardening of the
concrete, the maximum allowable time may be reduced by the Engineer.

Limitation of Mixing:

No concrete shall be mixed, placed or finished when natural light is

insufficient, unless an adequate and approved artificial lighting system is operated.

During hot weather, the Engineer shall require that steps be taken to prevent
the temperature of the mixed concrete from exceeding a maximum temperature of
320C.

Concrete not in place within ninety (90) minutes from the time the ingredients
were charged into the mixing drum or that has developed initial set shall not be
used. Retempering of concrete or mortar which has partially hardened, that is
remixing with or without additional cement, aggregate, or water, shall not be
permitted.

Test Specimens:

As work progresses, at least one (1) set consisting of three (3) concrete beam
test specimens, 150 mm x 150mm x 525 mm shall be taken from each 330 m2 of
pavement, 230 mm depth, or fraction thereof placed each day. Test specimens shall
be made under the supervision of the Engineer, and the Contractor shall provide all
concrete and other facilities necessary in making the test specimens and shall
protect them from damage by construction operations. Cylinder samples shall not be
used as substitute for determining the adequacy of the strength of concrete.

The beams shall be made, cured, and tested in accordance with AASHTO T 23
and T 97.

Joints:

Joints shall be constructed of the type and dimensions, and at the locations
required by the Plans or Special Provisions. All joints shall be protected from the
intrusion of injurious foreign material until sealed.
1. Longitudinal Joint

Deformed steel tie bars of specified length, size, spacing and materials
shall be placed perpendicular to the longitudinal joints, they shall be placed
by approved mechanical equipment or rigidly secured by chair or other
approved supports to prevent displacement. Tie bars shall not be painted or
coated with asphalt or other materials or enclosed in tubes or sleeves. When
shown on the Plans and when adjacent lanes of pavement are constructed
separately, steel side forms shall be used which will form a keyway along the
construction joint. Tie bars, except those made of rail steel, may be bent at
right angles against the form of the first lane constructed and straightened
into final position before the concrete of the adjacent lane is placed. In lieu of
bent tie bars, approved two-piece connectors may be used.

Longitudinal formed joints shall consist of a groove or cleft, extending

downward from and normal to the surface of the pavement. These joints shall
be effected or formed by an approved mechanically or manually operated
device to the dimensions and line indicated on the Plans while the concrete is
in a plastic state. The groove or cleft shall be filled with either a premolded
strip or poured material as required.

The longitudinal joints shall be continuous. There shall be no gaps in

either transverse or longitudinal joints at the intersection of the joints.

Longitudinal sawed joints shall be cut by means of approved concrete

saws to the depth, width and line shown on the Plans. Suitable guide lines or
devices shall be used to assure cutting the longitudinal joint on the true line.
The longitudinal joint shall be sawed before the end of the curing period of
shortly thereafter and before any equipment or vehicles are allowed on the
pavement. The sawed area shall be thoroughly cleaned and, if required, the
joint shall immediately be filled with sealer.

Longitudinal pavement insert type joints shall be formed by placing a

continuous strip of plastic materials which will not react adversely with the
chemical constituent of the concrete.

2. Transverse Expansion Joint

The expansion joint filler shall be continuous from form to form,

shaped to subgrade and to the keyway along the form. Preformed joint filler
shall be furnished in lengths equal to the pavement width or equal to the
width of one lane. Damaged or repaired joint filler shall not be used.
The expansion joint filler shall be held in a vertical position. An
approved installing bar, or other device, shall be used if required to secure
performed expansion joint filler at the proper grade and alignment during
placing and finishing of the concrete. Finished joint shall not deviate more
than 6 mm from a straight line. If joint fillers are assembled in sections, there
shall be no offsets between adjacent units. No plugs of concrete shall be
permitted anywhere within the expansion space.

3. Transverse Contraction Joint/Weakened Joint

When shown on the Plans, it shall consist of planes of weakness

created by forming or cutting grooves in the surface of the pavement and
shall include load transfer assemblies. The depth of the weakened plane joint
should at all times not be less than 50 mm, while the width should not be
more than 6 mm.
a. Transverse Strip Contraction Joint. It shall be formed by installing a
parting strip to be left in place as shown on the Plans.

b. Formed Groove. It shall be made by depressing an approved tool or

device into the plastic concrete. The tool or device shall remain in
place at least until the concrete has attained its initial set and shall
then be removed without disturbing the adjacent concrete, unless
the device is designed to remain in the joint.

c. Sawed Contraction Joint. It shall be created by sawing grooves in

the surface of the pavement of the width not more than 6 mm,
depth should at all times not be less than 50 mm, and at the
spacing and lines shown on the Plans, with an approved concrete
saw. After each joint is sawed, it shall be thoroughly cleaned
including the adjacent concrete surface.

Sawing of the joint shall commence as soon as the concrete has

hardened sufficiently to permit sawing without excessive raveling,
usually 4 to 24 hours. All joints shall be sawed before uncontrolled
shrinkage cracking takes place. If necessary, the sawing of any
joint shall be omitted if crack occurs at or near the joint location
prior to the time of sawing. Sawing shall be discounted when a
crack develops ahead of the saw. In general, all joints should be
sawed in sequence. If extreme condition exist which make it
impractical to prevent erratic cracking by early sawing, the
contraction joint groove shall be formed prior to initial set of
concrete as provided above.

4. Traverse Construction Joint

It shall be constructed when there is an interruption of more

than 30 minutes in the concreting operations. No transverse joint
shall be constructed within 1.50 m of an expansion joint,
contraction joint, or plane of weakness. If sufficient concrete has
been mixed at the time of interruption to form a slab of at least 1.5
m long, the excess concrete from the last preceding joint shall be
removed and disposed off as directed.

5. Load Transfer Device

Dowel, when used, shall be held in position parallel to the

surface and center line of the slab by a metal device that is left in
the pavement.

The portion of each dowel painted with one coat of lead or tar,
in conformance with the requirements of the item 404, Reinforcing
Steel, shall be thoroughly coated with approved bituminous
materials, e.g., MC-70, or an approved lubricant, to prevent the
concrete from binding to that portion of the dowel. The sleeves for
dowels shall be metal designed to cover 50 mm plus or minus 5
mm, of the dowel, with a watertight closed end and with a suitable
stop to hold the end of the sleeves at least 25mm from the end of
the dowel.

In lieu of using dowel assemblies at contraction joints, dowel

may be placed in the full thickness of pavement by a mechanical
device approved by the Engineer.

Final Strike-off (Consolidation and Fishing):

The screed for the surface shall be at least 60 cm longer than the maximum
width of the slab to be struck off. It shall be of approved design, sufficiently rigid to
retain its shape, and constructed either of metal or other suitable material shod with
metal.

Consolidation shall be attained by the use of suitable vibration or other

approved equipment.
In operation, the screed shall be moved forward on the forms with a
combined longitudinal and transverse shearing motion, moving always in the
direction in which the work is progressing and so manipulated that neither end is
raised from the side forms during the striking off process. If necessary, this shall be
repeated until the surface is of uniform texture, true to grade and cross-section, and
free from porous areas.

Acceptance of Concrete:
The strength level of the concrete will be considered satisfactory if the
averages of all sets of three (3) consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the
specified strength, fc ‘ and no individual strength test result is deficient by more than
15 % of the specified strength, fc ‘ . A set shall consist of a minimum of three (3)
concrete beam specimens.

Concrete deemed to be not acceptable using the above criteria maybe

rejected unless the contractor can provide evidence, by means of core tests, that the
quality of concrete represented by failed test results is acceptable in place. At least
three (3) representative course shall be taken from each member or area of
concrete in place that is considered deficient. The location of cores shall be
determined by the Engineer so that there will be at least impairment of strength of
the structure. The obtaining and testing of drilled cores shall be in accordance with
AASHTO T 24.

Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if

the average strength of the cores is equal to at least 85% of, and if no single core is
less than 75% of, the specified strength, fc ‘.

If the strength of control specimens does not meet the requirements of this
subsection, and it is not feasible or not advisable to obtain cores from the structure
due to structural considerations, payment of the concrete will be made at an
adjusted price due to strength deficiency of concrete specimens as specified
hereunder:

Deficiency in Strength of Concrete Percent (%) of Contract Price Allowed

Specimens, Percent (%)

Less than 5 100

5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0
Figure 1. Components of a Typical JPCP

4.2 Joints

Concrete slabs will crack randomly from natural actions such as shrinkage or
curling. Therefore, joints are vital elements introduced into JPCPs to control cracking
and horizontal movements of the slabs. Joints in JPCP include transverse contraction
and construction joints, and longitudinal contraction and construction joints. Without
joints, plain concrete pavements would be riddled with cracks within one or two
years after placement. Even with JPCPs, incorrectly placed or poorly designed joints
will result in premature cracking.

4.2.1 Joint Construction

Joints are induced by saw cutting the concrete to a certain depth to

force the cracks to occur at those locations (see Figure 9 for crack that has
developed below the saw cut). The depth of the saw cut is limited to no more
than 1/3 the thickness of the slab's depth. This one third depth saw cut is
especially important over lean concrete base since it is much harder than
other types of bases and creates more surface friction with the underside of
the concrete slabs, which in turn can lead to more random cracking. The use
of “early entry saws” is also allowed with a saw cut depth of 1/4 the slab
thickness. Early entry saws are specialty saws used within the first few hours
of concrete curing, and can also be efficiently used on faster curing rigid slab.
Contractors can utilize a single or double saw cuts (see Standard Plan P20)
for making transverse or longitudinal contraction joint.
4.2.2 Joint Types

In the following, the two types of joints commonly used in JPCPs are
discussed.

4.2.2.1 Transverse Joints

Transverse joints are constructed at right angles to the

longitudinal pavement joint in new JPCP construction as seen in Figure
2. On old previously built non-doweled rigid pavements, transverse
joints were skewed. Caltrans has adopted short random patterned
transverse joint spacing to reduce thermal movement at each joint and
reduce the possibility of mid-panel cracking. The staggered joint
spacing of 12, 15, 13 and 14 feet is utilized to reduce harmonic
induced ride quality problems.

According to the Caltrans HDM Index 622.4, doweled JPCP shall

be used for all new state highway construction, lane widening, lane
replacement, and reconstruction, especially for truck and HOV lanes.
According to HDM Index 622.4, dowel bars are not required when:

(1) Rigid shoulders placed or reconstructed next to a non-

doweled existing concrete lane (See Standard Plan P-3)
(2) Rigid shoulders placed or reconstructed next to a widened
slab (See Standard Plan P-2)
(3) Some individual slab replacements (see Standard Plan P-8)

Because mechanical load transfer devices (dowel bars) are

required in all new JPCPs, skewed transverse joints are not permitted.
Dowel bars handle the load transfer and the need for skewing does not
provide any significant benefit. Skewing also makes it difficult to place
dowels along the transverse joint. Section 4.5 of this Guide provides
additional information on load transfer across transverse joints.

For lane/shoulder addition or reconstruction, when providing

transverse joints, there are cases where the new joints may not line up
with the existing transverse joint spacing in the adjacent lane.
Standard Plan P18 shows three different cases of existing and new
transverse joints alignment that can be encountered when
reconstructing or adding concrete lane/shoulder adjacent to existing
concrete pavement. To prevent translation of the existing transverse
joints over to the new and weaker transverse joints, longitudinal
isolation joints (see Section 4.3.1 for this topic) are provided.
Figure 2. Transverse Joints Perpendicular to Lane Lines and Longitudinal
Joints

4.2.2.2. Longitudinal Joints

Longitudinal joints (see Figure 3) are necessary to control

cracking in the longitudinal direction where two or more lane widths
are placed at one time. They are constructed at lane lines, typically in
multiples of 12 feet. Tie bars (see Section 4.4) are placed at these
joints to hold two abutting rigid pavement faces in contact.

Figure 3. Longitudinal Joint at Lane Line

4.3 Other Joints

4.3.1 Isolation Joint

An isolation joint is a special longitudinal joint that is placed to prevent

existing transverse joints or transverse working joints (joints that
accommodate movements) from extending into the weaker newly placed rigid
pavement. Isolation joints should be used when matching the existing
transverse joints is not practical. They are placed to separate dissimilar rigid
pavements/structures in order to reduce compressive stresses that could
cause uncontrolled cracking.

An isolation joint is required in (1) lane/shoulder addition or

reconstruction where transverse joints do not align between new and existing,
for which tie bars are required at the isolation joint, (2) interior lane
replacement where joints do not align between new and existing, and (3)
lane/shoulder addition or reconstruction where transverse joints align
between new and existing, where tie bars are not required for the isolation
joint.

When adding the new lane, in many instances, an asphalt shoulder is

removed. This may leave the abutting edge of concrete slab surface rough
that will require saw cutting to remove any protruding pockets of concrete.
This sawing requirement is covered in SSP 40-010.

The isolation joint prevents the joints and cracks in the adjacent lane
from propagating to the new added lane. A joint filler material is used to fill
the isolation joint to prevent infiltration of incompressible materials. The filler
material should be continuous from one edge of the slab to the other. The top
of the filler material should be recessed below the surface of the slab to allow
space for joint sealant application.

4.3.2 Construction Joint

A construction joint is either (1) a transverse joint that joins together

two consecutive slabs constructed at two different times, or (2) a longitudinal
joint that joins two lanes that are paved in two separate passes. For
nondowelled JPCPs (when permitted), tie bars are usually used to connect the
two adjoining slabs together so as to act as one slab. It is important to have
an adequate slab section to tie into as shown on the plans. Construction joint
for doweled pavement shall coincide with the new joint spacing.

4.4 Tie Bars

Tie bars are typically used at longitudinal joints (see Figure 4) and transverse
construction joint in a nondoweled shoulder addition/reconstruction (see Standard
Plan P-3) to hold tight the faces of abutting concrete in contact.
Figure 4. Tie Bars in a Longitudinal Joint

Tie bars used in JPCP construction are 30-inch long Grade 60 No. 6
deformed steel bars, placed in the mid depth of the JPCP slab, perpendicular
to the longitudinal construction and contraction joints. Tie bars are placed a
minimum of 15 inches from transverse joint location in between slabs and at
18-inch spacing thereafter. The use of epoxy-coated tie bars is not necessary
for JPCP, except in areas where corrosion is known to be a problem (e.g.,
because of the presence of salts or the application of de-icing salts).

In California, tie bars are epoxy-coated as specified under SSP 40-010

and in conformance with Section 52-1.02B, “Epoxy-coated Reinforcement” in
the Standard Specification.

There is a limit of 50 ft wide tied JPCP lanes, based on national

experience. When more lanes are tied together, there seems to be a tendency
for the concrete slab to crack longitudinally. When the slabs are tied together
they act as one slab and the friction between the base and the slabs is high
enough to restrain movement, thus causing cracking in some cases.
Therefore, tie bars should be omitted at one of the longitudinal joints when
more than 4 lanes (or 3 lanes and a shoulder) are being tied together. The
preferred longitudinal joint to omit tie bars would be an inside lane where
truck or bus traffic will not occur. Standard Plan P18 includes lane schematics
that cover most cases for isolation joint placement.

Tie bars are recommended at longitudinal construction joints for

lane/shoulder addition or reconstruction, but not recommended where
isolation joints are required. Dowel bars (see below) at longitudinal joints
without tie bars may be useful when there is a need to obtain some limited
load transfer across the longitudinal joint. Standard Plan P-18 provides
schematics on when and how to apply contact joints, isolation joints, and
when to use dowel bars in lieu of tie bars.
4.5 Load Transfer

Load transfer is the ability of a joint to transfer a portion of an applied load

(the truck wheel) from one side of the joint to the other. Joint transfer is achieved
by (1) mechanical load transfer devices such as dowel bars, (2) aggregate interlock
across abutting edges of concrete, and (3) friction between concrete and stabilized
base [lean concrete base, hot mixed asphalt, asphalt treated base, cement treated
base, etc.]. The ideal transverse joint is one that has all three mechanisms available.
The current Caltrans standard practice utilizes lean concrete or hot mixed asphalt as
the base, dowel bars, and aggregate interlock. In the following a brief discussion of
each mechanism is provided.

4.5.1 Dowel Bars

Dowel bars are made of smooth, round, epoxy-coated Grade 60 steel

bars that allow load transfer across the joint without restricting horizontal
movement (see Figure 5). Dowel bars provide lower deflection, prevent
pumping, corner breaks, and excessive slab curling and reduce the potential
for faulting; thus keeping a smooth-riding pavement. Slab movements
(rocking) are significantly reduced with the use of dowel bars as schematically
seen in Figures 6 and 7 for dowelled and non-dowelled transverse joints.
Generally, the number of dowel bars required along the transverse joint is
dictated by the width of the slab.

Figure 5. Dowel Bars in a Transverse Joint

Figure 6. Slab Movements in Doweled Slab

Figure 7. Slab Movements in Non-doweled Slab

Dowel bars also limit slab curling over time. Slab curling is defined as
when the edges of the slab curl up or down as the temperature changes
throughout the day and night causing rougher pavement profile and increased
stresses on the edges of the concrete slabs, which accelerates spalling and
cracking of the slab. Slab curling is caused by the temperature difference
between the top and bottom of the concrete slab. Because the underside is
insulated from temperature changes, the surface expands and contracts at a
different rate compared to that of the underside of the slab. This causes the
slab to become larger on the surface than the underside during the day
resulting in the slab curling down on the edges as shown in Figure 8 (top
drawing). At night, the process reverses and the surface shrinks compared to
the underside causing the slab to curl up at the edges as shown in Figure 8
(bottom drawing). Warping is defined as the moisture fluctuations throughout
the depth of the slab. Due to warping, slabs deform in the same manner as
with curling as affected by the degree of moisture saturation, as shown in
Figure 8.

Again, dowel bars help prevent excessive warping and curling that can
develop due to these moisture fluctuation and temperature differentials, thus
keeping the pavement smoother (flatter).
Figure 8. Slab Curling and Warping Concept

4.5.2 Aggregate Interlock

Aggregate interlock is the interlocking action between exposed

aggregate particles in the opposing joint faces beneath the sawn joint (see
Figure 9).

Figure 9. Aggregate Interlock Across Transverse Joint

For non-doweled JPCP, aggregate interlock (jagged crack area)
beneath the saw cut portion of the joint provides most of the load transfer.
Over time these aggregate interlock faces can wear and load transfer can
drop. Because aggregate interlock deteriorates over time, especially when
there are no dowel bars and/or stabilized base, Caltrans current practice
requires dowel bars in all but a limited number of cases. Where truck volumes
are low, there are standard designs available that do not require the stabilized
base.

4.5.3 Stabilized Base

Stabilized bases utilize a small percentage of cement or asphalt binder

to stiffen the base, and can provide friction with the concrete slabs resting on
them; thus helping in transferring the load from one side of the joint to the
other. Historically, Caltrans used stabilized base (primarily cement treated
base) with its pavements, which were non-doweled. Experience, however, has
shown that these pavements fault prematurely requiring increased
maintenance and earlier rehabilitation. Current design practice requires both
dowel bars and stabilized base for pavements subject to high truck volumes.
Because pavements with dowel bars have shown to be more cost effective
and provide better performance than no-doweled pavements, current design
practice for low volume routes still requires dowel bars but does provide
designs that do not require a stabilized base.

4.6 Subgrade, Subbase and Base

Rigid pavements require base and, in some cases, subbase layer for structural
support since the applied traffic loads is transferred across the rigid structure by
providing only bearing stress applied to the underlying foundation. Base and
subbase provide a working platform during construction.

The majority of rigid pavements fail not because of concrete slab failure but
by failure of materials below the concrete slab due to unstable or non-uniform
materials, poor compaction, or poor drainage (e.g., either underground water
percolating into the base or surface water leaching through the concrete and
becoming trapped in the base).

4.6.1 Subgrade

The load-bearing capacity of the subgrade soil has a significant impact

on the performance of a JPCP. Anything that can be done to increase the
load-bearing capacity or structural support of the subgrade will likely improve
the overall strength and performance of the pavement. Generally, greater
subgrade structural capacity can result in more economical pavement
structures.
Subgrade soil can vary widely over a short distance. Poor subgrade can
be described as expansive (plasticity index greater than 12 and/or R-value of
less than 10). Index 614.2 in the HDM states that organic and peat soils are
compressible and not recommended for roadway construction. They should
be removed, wherever possible, prior to placing the pavement structure.
Subgrade stabilization is desirable for poor subgrade material under a rigid
pavement. For example, lime may be used with expansive soils, cement with
less plastic soils (plasticity index less than 10), and emulsified asphalt can be
used with sandy soils2. The binding characteristics of these materials
generally increase the subgrade load bearing capacity. To eliminate or reduce
subgrade moisture, installation of subdrains is necessary. Topic 614 in the
HDM explains soil characteristics, testing, and available treatment options.

4.6.2 Subbase Layer

The subbase layer is a planned thickness of specified material that is

placed on the subgrade or under the basement material. This layer is not
always used, but when it is needed it can provide for structural strength
and/or a working platform.

4.6.3 Base Layer

The base layer is immediately placed beneath the surface course. It

can be treated (stabilized, bound) or untreated (unbound, unstabilized). It
can provide a stable platform for the concrete paving, provides for additional
load distribution, and contributes to drainage (if permeable base is used) and
frost resistance. The primary purpose of the unbound aggregate or granular
material is for structural support, but other uses include (1) improve drainage,
(2) minimize frost action damage and (3) minimize intrusion of fines from the
subgrade into the pavement structure.

Stabilized bases are the standard for all JPCPs with a Traffic Index (TI)
greater than 11. For lower TI values, unstabilized aggregate base maybe
used. The Department uses stabilized bases to provide a construction
platform for the concrete paving machine and to minimize base erosion and
the development of voids underneath the concrete slabs. Current standard
designs use either lean concrete base or Hot Mix Asphalt–Type A (HMA-A).

Lean concrete base (LCB) is the typical type of base for JPCP primarily
because it not only provides a stable platform for the rigid slab but is also
constructed using the same plants and equipment as concrete. Lean concrete
base is more rigid and less erodible than cement treated base (CTB). The
September 1, 2006 Caltrans HDM edition (June 26, 2006 Metric edition) states
that concrete can be substituted for LCB when justified for constructability or
traffic handling. JPCP should not be bonded with LCB. A 1-inch thick interlayer
of HMA-A should be placed between the JPCP and LCB.
Hot Mix Asphalt–A (HMA-A) is another alternative to lean concrete
base. It provides a smooth base layer, reduces friction, and provides a good
bond breaker layer. HMA-A base layer consists of a combination of mineral
aggregates and asphalt materials mixed mechanically in a plant. HMA-A
provides flexibility to expand and contract with temperature fluctuations.
HMA-A typically performs better than LCB in hotter climate regions like the
desert environments and southern central valley because it provides more
flexibility for concrete to expand and contract with temperature fluctuation.

Asphalt Treated Permeable Bases (ATPB) has been used in the past to
address water infiltration. This type of permeable base is useful where it is
necessary to drain water beneath the pavement (see Figure 10). Water can
enter the pavement as surface water through cracks, joints, and pavement
infiltration. Saturation of the pavement or underlying subgrade, or both,
generally results in a decrease in strength or ability to support heavy axle
loads. Treated permeable base requires the use of edge drains or some other
method of draining water out and away from the pavement. Otherwise, the
collected water will become trapped. Trapping water beneath the concrete
could create an undesirable condition known as pumping. Pumping removes
fines from the saturated base layer (especially untreated ones) by creating
dynamic upward and downward movements due to wheel loads at joints and
cracks. This pumping action develops voids under the concrete slabs that
eventually lead to faulting and premature cracking. It should be noted that if
the edge drains are not maintained in good operating condition, entrapped
water will create conditions that are typically worse than if no permeable base
was provided. For these reasons, treated permeable bases are not
recommended if edge drains could not be maintained, except where there is
an existing treated permeable base that needs to be propagated for drainage
purposes.

Figure 10. Difference Between Dense Graded (left) and Permeable

(right) Bases

One might consider an ATPB layer for low truck traffic locations if adequate
low maintenance drainage is to be included in the design. If ATPB is desired in these
locations, the designer should make sure that edge drains or other drainage systems
can be maintained by field maintenance crews and should even include the costs to
maintain drains in the report (separate from the construction cost estimate) so
maintenance can pursue the resources and equipment needed to maintain the
pavement drainage.

Stripping (water washing away cement paste, binders, and fines) can be an
issue for stabilized bases if care is not taken to specify materials that will not strip in
the presence of water. As a precautionary measure, the Department no longer uses
cement treated base (CTB) or cement treated permeable base (CTPB) as a base in
JPCP construction. LCB is more tolerant to moisture and less susceptible to pumping
and stripping so it should be used in lieu of CTB when widening next to a CTB layer.
ATPB should be used in lieu of CTPB when widening next to an existing CTPB layer.
MATERIAL ENGINEER TEST REVIEWER

1. What test determined the crushing strength of aggregates to ensure that coarse aggregates will
not degrade to smaller ones.
a. Abrasion
b. Grading
c. Density
d. Plasticity Test
2. A one-lane road, with a pavement width of 3.5m and shoulder width of 0.5m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have sub-base and base coarse with a combined thickness of
300mm. if the thickness of the sub-base is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the sub-
base and base coarse shall be carried out in:.
a. 3 layers over the full width of 4.5m
b. 2 layers over the full width of 4.5m
c. 3 layers over the full width of 3.5m
d. 2 layers over the full width of 3.5m
3. Weakened joints on concrete pavement should be sawed
a. Immediately after the pavement surface has been brooms finished
b. Sawing of joins shall commerce as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently,
usually within 24 hours.
c. Before the pavements opened to traffic usually 14 days from the day of pouring.
4. What depth of weakened joint should at all times not be less than
a. 50mm
b. 60mm
c. 70mm
d. 75mm
5. Cores are taken from a concrete pavement and tested for
a. Strength verification of concrete in place that is considered adequate.
b. Flexural strength determination
c. Cement content determination
d. Thickness determination
6. In accepting completed concrete pavement poured by lanes thickness determination shall come
out by obtaining one core from every
a. 100 meters
b. 200 meters
c. 500 meters
d. 1000 meters
7. If the strength of Item 311 control specimens does not meet the requirements by not more than
25% and it is not feasible to obtain cores from the structure due to structural consideration.
a. The strength of in-plane concrete will be determined by rebound a hammer.
b. Pavement of concrete will be made at an adjusted price
c. No pavement will be made on the concrete represented by failed specimens
d. The contractor will be required to remove and replace the concrete represented by the
failed specimens at his own expense.
8. The flexure strength requirements of Item 311 is
a. 500 psi
b. 550 psi
c. 3000 psi
d. 3500 psi
9. The number of sets of beam test specimens that should be taken from 200 sq.m of concrete
pavements, 0.23cm thick poured on a single day should be:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
10. Three cores taken from a pavement section poured on a single day were tested to have strength
as follows:
Core
1 3650
2 3000 86% of 3500 psi
3 2450 70% of 3500 psi (fail – 75%)
Average 3033 87% of 3500 psi
If the required strength is 3500 psi concrete are represented by the cores
a. Maybe accepted, subject to price adjustment
b. Is considered adequate
c. In considered inadequate
d. Maybe recorded at the initiative of the implementing office
11. Forms for concrete pavement shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than
a. 24 hours after concrete pouring
b. The curing period
c. The period required to attain the design strength
d. 72 hours after concrete pouring

Encircle your answer in each item. If you wish to change an answer, draw an X on your first answer and
encircle your new answer:

1. The bituminous material commonly used in item 310 is

a. Asphalt emulsion
b. Asphalt cement
c. Liquid asphalt
d. Cutback asphalt
2. Item 310 mixture shall have an index of retained strength of not less than
a. 66
b. 70
c. 97
d. 107
3. Final Compaction and smoothing of Item 310 should be done by a
a. Pneumatic-tired roller
b. Sheepsfoot roller
c. Vibratory roller
d. Tandem smooth wheel roller
4. Item 310 mixture shall be delivered to the paver at a temperature not less than
a. 66 oC
b. 97 oC
c. 107 oC
d. 110 oC
5. In the asphalting of a two lane, 500m (for every 100meters) road which lasted for three days,
how many core samples should be taken from the pavement if no sample was taken at the end
of each day’s operation?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10
6. Which of the following provisions is not included in the job mix formula
a. Mixing time
b. Grading aggregates
c. Asphalt cement
d. Temperature at delivery
7. A bituminous mix subjected to immersion-compression test yielded a dry stability of 2.0 kg. and
wet stability of 1.5kg. The index of retained strength of the mix is
a. 0.5
b. 1.33
c. 33
d. 0.75
8. In item 310, bitumen content, expressed in terms of percentage by mass of aggregate, shall be
a. 3 to 5%
b. 4 to 7%
c. 5 to 8%
d. 6 to 8%
9. In the asphalting of a 3-meter wide, 200 meter long road lane, a core was obtained and tested
to have a thickness of 5cm. And a density of 2.25 gm/cm^3. The quantity of bituminous mix to
be paid, in tones, is
a. 65.5
b. 67.5 200*t*Gs=200*5*2.25 = 67.5
c. 655
d. 675
10. After final rolling, the compacted asphalt pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater
than ------% of the laboratory compacted density.
a. 90
b. 95
c. 97
d. 98

Encircle your answer in each item. If you wish to change an answer, draw an X on your first answer and
encircle your new answer:

1. The pH value of water that is acceptable for use in concrete mix is

a. 2.0 to 3.1
b. 3.2 to 4.4
c. 4.5 to 8.5
d. 8.6 to 10.0
2. How many measurements are needed for thickness determination of concrete cores?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9
3. What is the strength of load bearing hollow blocks?
a. 600 psi
b. 700 psi
c. 800 psi
d. 1000 psi
4. What is the single factor that determines the strength of concrete?
a. Slump
b. Water-cement ratio
c. Cement factor
d. Gradation of aggregates
5. What is the curve formed on a maximum dry density and optimum moisture content graph?
a. Parabola
b. Hyperbola
c. Straight line
d. None of the above
6. The minimum testing apparatus requirements are necessary for _______ contractors.
a. Small
b. Medium
c. Large
d. All of the above
7. Which of the following is accepted for concrete with fc’ at 28 days of 3500 psi?
a. 3275 psi; 3020 psi; 2630 psi (2915 – 85%)
b. 2640 psi; 31010; 3030 psi (3892 – 82%)
c. 3030 psi; 2790 psi; 2599 psi (3806 – 80%)
d. 3300 psi; 3330 psi; 2620 psi (3082 – 88.80%)
8. In a design mix, the specific gravity of Portland cement must be.
a. 3.05
b. 3.10
c. 3.15
d. 6.10
9. The rate of application of prime coat before asphalt overlaying is
a. 0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
b. 0.8 to 0.9 L/m2
c. 1.0 to 2.0 L/m2
d. 2.1 to 2.5 L/m2
10. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes
a. Design mix
b. Marshall stability
c. Index of retained strength
d. Immersion/Compression test
11. Which of the following penetration grade of asphalt is used in cold climate?
a. 120/50
b. 85/100
c. 60/70
d. 40/50
12. If sea water is used in concrete mix, what will be the effect on the hardened concrete
pavement?
a. Strength is affected
b. Scaling at surface
c. Cracks at the side
d. Steel bars will rust
13. The job mix formula contain the following provisions except
a. Grading of aggregates
b. Temperature of aggregates and asphalt
c. Index of retained strength value
d. Type of asphalt and percentage
14. Scaling of newly constructed concrete pavement is an evidence of inadequate quality control
mainly due to high
a. Fineness modules
b. Slump
c. Fine aggregates content
d. Water cement ratio
15. The grade designation of a reinforcing steel bars is also its
a. Nominal area
b. Yield strength
c. Tensile strength
d. Unit mass
16. Which of the following is not an engineering property of granular soils?
a. Good load bearing qualities
b. Drain readily
c. Susceptible to strength or volume change due to change in water content
d. Comparatively incompressible due to static load
17. Peat is an example of
a. Inorganic soil
b. Organic soil
c. Selected borrow
d. Embankment material
18. Which of the following is an engineering property of fine grained soil?
a. Hard to drain
b. Susceptible to volume change under vibratory load, if not adequately compacted
c. Stable when subjected to load
d. Settlement is high
19. The dividing size between coarse and fine aggregates used in asphalting is
a. No.4
b. No.8 (2.35mm)
c. No. 16
d. No. 30
20. The objective of designing the asphalt mixture is determination of
a. Index of retained strength
b. Penetration grade of asphalt
c. Temperature of mix
d. Production control
21. The sample of reinforcing steel bars for every 10,000kgs shall be
a. 1 meter long
b. 2 meters long
c. 4 meters long
d. 6 meters long
22. Given : Specific gravity = 2.305 (asphalt mix specimen)
Wet compressive strength = 1000 kPa (wet/dry) * 100
Dry compressive strength = 1400 kPa

What is the index of retained strength value?

a. 70.1%
b. 71.4%
c. 40%
d. 140%
23. The variation of tolerance of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge in contact
with the surface of asphalt pavement is
a. +/- 2 mm
b. +/- 4 mm
c. +/-6 mm
d. -5 mm
24. The specific irregularity tolerance for item 201 is
a. 5 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm
25. The depth of the weakened plane joint with a width of 6 mm is
a. 40 mm
b. 45 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 60 mm
26. Which of the following is not the job for a materials engineer?
a. Submits samples for testing
b. Prepares design mix
c. Checks job mix formula
d. Surveys and measures line and grade at site
27. The proper way of sampling of aggregate base course in the laboratory if the splitter is not
available is to
a. Scoop for samples in the middle of the sack
b. Spread the samples on the ground and take the samples in the middle
c. Spread the samples on the ground and divide the samples into four take two opposite
parts from it.
d. Scoop for samples at the side of the sack
28. Given: Original weight of sample, g ______5000, Sample retained on No. 12 sieve, g _____ 4178.
What is the abrasion loss?
a. 16.42%
b. 16.44%
c. 19.67%
d. 19.75%
MATERIALS
ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER

PREPARED BY:

ENGR. FRANK ABEL L. BANUA, ME 1

[email protected] 1
To GOD be the glory!!!
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)

Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the

DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)

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PART C - EARTHWORKS

ITEM 100 – CLEARING AND GRUBBING

* This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation
and debris as designated in the contract.
Tests: None

ITEM 101 – REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS

ITEM 102 – EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of
materials.
Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable

ITEM 103 – STRUCTURE EXCAVATION

ITEM 104 – EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of the construction of embankment.
Tests:
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof:
At least one group of three in – situ density test. The layer shall be
placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on
the result of compacted trials.

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ITEM 105 – SUBGRADE PREPARATION
* This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying
structural layers.
Tests: Same as for Item 104

ITEM 106 – COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS

ITEM 107 – OVERHAUL

* This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance.
Tests: None

PART D – SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE

ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base
course on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course
on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
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For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

ITEM 203 – LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime and water in proper proportions.
Amount of lime to be added:
3 – 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
B. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness determination fro every 150 m or fraction
thereof
D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test

ITEM 204 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate,
Portland cement and water in proper proportions.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
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A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. CEMENT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
C. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
D. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 205 – ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

ITEM 206 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE

COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate
Portland cement and water in proper proportion.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. PORTLAND CEMENT
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
C. MIX
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Same as for Item 204
D. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 207 – AGGREGATE STOCKPILE

* This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations.
Tests:
Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification

PART E – SURFACE COURSES

ITEM 300 – AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed
aggregate and other binder material.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof
For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – F, Fractured face

ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 302 – BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete with bituminous material.
Quantity:
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0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT

ITEM 304 – BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT

ITEM 305 – BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT

* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing one or more aggregate and one or
more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat a with cover aggregate
constructed on a prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
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Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt
Course (crushed) 80 kg/m2
Key (crushed) 24 kg/m2
Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m2
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
7.2 to 11 L/m2
Test:
Same as for Item 301

ITEM 306 – BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE

ITEM 307 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – GENERAL

* This item includes general requirements that are applicable to all type of bituminous
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregate or kind and amount of bituminous
material.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
For every 75 m3/200T or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests
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For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping
and Bulk specific gravity)
1 – F, Fractured face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof:
1 – G. Grading Test
1 – Ext, Stability Test
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken

ITEM 308 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – COLD LAID

* This item shall consist of constructing Bituminous Surface Course (Asphalt Cold Mix)
prepared in central mixing plant, laid cold on a prepared base.
A.AGGREGATE
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
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Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 309 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE

ITEM 310 – BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE – HOT LAID

A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
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Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 311 – PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT

* This item shall consist of pavement of Portland cement concrete, with or without
reinforcement, constructed on the prepared base.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
9.0 bags/m3 (40 kg/bag)
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.50 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded course aggregate
0.54 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate
2 3
0.68 m /m concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
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For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test

PART F – BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

ITEM 400 - PILING

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* This item shall consist of piling, furnished, driven or placed, cut and spliced.
A. TIMBER PILES
Test:
1 – Inspection Report for each size and shipment of timber
B. CONCRETE PILES
a.) Concrete
Test: Same as for Item 405
b.) Reinforcing Steel
Test: Same as for Item 404
C. STRUCTURAL PILES
Tests:
1 – IR, inspection Report
1 – Q, Quality Test or Mill Test Certificate

ITEM 401 – RAILINGS

ITEM 402 – TIMBER STRUCTURES

ITEM 403 – METAL STRUCTURES

ITEM 404 – REINFORCING STEEL

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel
reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required.
A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
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1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test

ITEM 405 – STRUCTURAL CONCRETE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all
structures except pavements.
A. CEMENT
Quantity: (40 kg/bag)
Class A 9 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 8 bags/m3 of concrete – 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa
Class C 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 11 bags/m3 of concrete – 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class Seal 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 –Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.50 0.54 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.45 0.52 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.53 0.59 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.44 0.47 m2/m3 of concrete

Test:
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For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FRO EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of
concrete or fraction thereof

ITEM 406 – PRE – STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES

ITEM 407 – CONCRETE STRUCTURES

*This item shall consist of the general description of the materials, equipment,
workmanship and construction requirements of concrete structures and the concrete
portions of composite structures.
Tests:
Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411
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Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality

ITEM 408 – STEEL BRIDGES

ITEM 409 – WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL

* This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type.
Test:
Same as for 403 and Inspection Report

ITEM 410 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

ITEM 411 – PAINT

ITEM 412 – ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS

ITEM 413 – PRE – MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction.

PART G – DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES

ITEM 500 – PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS

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* This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm
drains.
A. PIPES
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength,
Absorption and Dimension)
Alternative Requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER
Cement, fine aggregates and water:
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 501 – UNDERDRAINS

ITEM 502 – MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS

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ITEM 503 – DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME
* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal
sizes of industry standard sized pits.

ITEM 504 – CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE

STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant
structures.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 505 – RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP

* This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the
case maybe, with or without filter backing.
Test:
Same as for Item 505
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:3)

ITEM 506 – STONE MASONRY

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ITEM 508 – HAND – LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT
* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 509 – SHEET PILES

ITEM 510 – CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION

ITEM 511 – GABIONS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

PART H – MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES

ITEM 600 – CURB AND GUTTER

* This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of
concrete.
A. CONCRETE
Quantity:
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0.078 m3/m (curb only)
0.092 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type A)
0.145 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type B)
0.074 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type C)
Test:
Same as for Item 405
B. JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 601 – SIDEWALK

ITEM 602 – MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS

ITEM 603 – GUARDRAIL

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails.
A. STEEL POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 403
B. TIMBER POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 410
C. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405
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D. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
E. RAIL
Test:
Inspection Report
F. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 604 – FENCING

ITEM 605 – ROAD SIGN

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 606 – PAVEMENT MARKINGS

* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 607 – REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the
surface of the pavement.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 608 – TOPSOIL

* This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from
designated areas, haul and spread.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 609 – SPRIGGING

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* This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 610 – SODDING

ITEM 611 – TREE PLANTING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees
evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 612 – REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING

* This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means
with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.

PART I – MATERIALS DETAILS

ITEM 700 – HYDRATED CEMENT

Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 701 – CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED)

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof

ITEM 702 – BITUMINOUS MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310

ITEM 703 – AGGREGATES

Test:
Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities

ITEM 703A – MINERAL FILLER

* This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug
dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter.
Test:
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Same as for Item 307

ITEM 704 – MASONRY UNITS

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof

ITEM 705 – JOINT MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 311 and 500

ITEM 706 – CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES

A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 500
B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES
Test:
Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs

ITEM 707 – METAL PIPE

Test:
Same as for Item 400

ITEM 708 – CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE

* This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of
concrete admixtures.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

ITEM 709 – PAINTS

Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 710 – REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE

A. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
B.WIRE ROPE
Test:
Same as for Item 406

ITEM 711 – FENCE AND GUARDRAIL

A. FENCE
Test:
Same as for Item 604
B. GUARDRAIL
Test:
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Same as for Item 603

ITEM 712 – STRUCTURAL METAL

Test:
Same as for Items 403 and 406

ITEM 713 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

Test:
Same as for Item 410

ITEM 714 – WATER

Test:
Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test, if source
is questionable

ITEM 715 – GEOTEXTILES

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TABLES

MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES

MATERIALS MNIMUM TESTING MINIMUM

REQUIREMENTS QUANTITY/VOLUME OF
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MATERIALS FOR EACH
SAMPLE SUBMITTED
1. Cement 1 sample per 2000 bags 10 kg
1 sample per 40T or 200
2. Asphaltic material 5L
drums
3. Aspahlt mix 1 sample per 130T 20 kg
4. Aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. coarse aggregate 70 kg
b. fine aggregate 50 kg
5. Soil aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. Classification 20 kg
b. Routinary tests 50 kg
c. MDR test and CBR 50 kg
6. Non – Reinforced Concrete 2 pipes min./0.5% of no.
2 pipes
Pipes of pipes
1 sample per 50 pipes or 1 pipe (1 m length)
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes
2% of # of pipes
1 sample per 500 lengths 2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken
8.Steel pipe (galvanized)
from both ends w/ thread
9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB) 1 sample per 10,000 units
a. strength 3 units
b. moisture content 3 units
10. Steel bar 1 sample per 10T 1m
11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 1 sample per 100 sheets 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm
12. Wire strand 1 sample per 20T 2m
13. Gabion 1m x 2m
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint – filler (pre – molded) 1 – 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m3 1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1
1 set (3 cylinders)
day pouring
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
500 ml
a. Chemical analysis
500 ml
b. Sediment load analysis
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T

COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE

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Class of Minimum Maximum Consistency Designated Minimum
concrete cement water – range in size of compressive
content per cement ratio slump coarse strength of
cu. m aggregate 150mm x
300mm
square concrete
kg (bags) kg/kg mm (inch) opening – cylinder @
std. mm 28 days
MN/m2 (psi)
50 -100 (2 – 37. 5 – 4.75
A 360 (9) 0.53 20.7 (3000)
4) (1 ½ - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 50.0 – 4.75
B 320 (8.5) 0.58 16.5 (2400)
4) (2 - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 12. 5 – 4.75
C 380 (9.5) 0.55 20.7 (3000)
4) (½ - No. 4)
100 max ( 4 19.0 – 4.75
P 440 (11) 0.49 37. 7 (5000)
max) (3/4 - No. 4)
100 – 200 (4 25.0 – 4.75
Seal 380 (9.5) 0.58 20.7 (3000)
– 8) (1 - No. 4)

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

STRENGTH

Deficiency in strength of concrete Percent (%) of

pavement contract price
Percent (%) allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

THICKNESS

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Deficiency in the Percent (%) of
average thickness contract price
per lot(mm) per lot
0–5 100
6 – 10 95
11 – 15 85
16 – 20 70
21 – 25 50
more than 25 removed and replaced (no payment)

COMMON LABORATORY TESTS

Kind of material Type of test Test duration per sample

(min. # of days)
Cement Physical and chemical 8
Coarse aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Abrasion 1
Unit weight 1

Fine aggregate Grading 3

Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1

Soil aggregates mixture Grading 3

(subbase, base and surfaces
courses
Liquid limit 3
Plastic limit 3
Compaction 3
CBR 7
Abrasion 1

Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4

Concrete cylinder Compressive 1

Concrete beam Flexural 1

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Concrete core Cutting of sample 1

LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS

ITEM ITEM ITEM 1TEM ITEM ITEM ITEM

104 105 200 201 202 203 300
Abrasion loss 50% 50% 45% 45%
max max max max
Plastic index 6% 12% 6% 4% to 4% to
6% max
max max max 10% 9%
Liquid limit 30% 35% 25% 25% 35%
max max max max max
Permitted
variation from
+15mm,
design ±20mm ±10mm
-5mm
THICKNESS
OF LAYER
Permitted
variation from +20mm, +10mm, -5mm, - +15mm,
design LEVEL -30mm -20mm 10mm -5mm
OF SURFACE
Permitted
surface
irregularity 30mm 20mm 5mm 5mm
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
±0.5% ±0.3% ±0.2% +0.2%
design cross
fall or camber
Permitted
variation from
design
±0.1% ±0.1% ±0.1% +0.1%
longitudinal
grade over 25m
length
California 25% 80% 80% 80%
100%
Bearing Ratio min min min min
DIMESION OF PILES

Length of pile Ø (1m from the butt) Minimum

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minimum maximum tip Ø
less than 12m 300mm 450mm 200mm
12m to 18m 320mm 450mm 180mm
more than 18m 350mm 500mm 150mm

REMOVAL OF FORMS

Scope of work Minimum time Minimum % of design

strength
Centering under girders,
14 days 80%
beams, frames or arches
Floors slabs 14 days 70%
Walls 1 day 70%
Columns 2 days 70%
Sides of beams and all other
1 day 70%
vertical surfaces

SIEVE SIZES

NO. 200 0.075mm NO. 20 0.840mm

NO. 100 0.150mm NO. 16 1.180mm
NO. 60 0.300mm NO. 12 1.700mm
NO.50 0.250mm NO. 10 2.000mm
NO. 40 0.425mm NO. 8 2.360mm
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm

DETAILS OF WELDS

Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part

5mm 13mm
6mm 19mm
8mm 32mm
10mm 51mm
13mm 152mm
16mm 152mm and above
MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING

GRADE 40 GRADE 60
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Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø

MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 30 100
NO. 50 95 – 100
NO. 200 70 - 100

HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 20 100
NO. 200 85 - 100

MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURE CONTENT

Sieve No. (passing) Weight

NO. 40 25 grams
NO. 10 50 grams
NO. 4 200 grams
½” 300 grams
1” 500 grams
2” 1000 grams

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REVIEW
QUESTIONS

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1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural
concrete?
Answer: concrete cylinder sample

2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?

Answer: Slump test

3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment

4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample

5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Answer: 3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts

6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?

Answer: Reflectorized paint

7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to
black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is bitumen?
Answer: asphalt

8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours

9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?

Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m

10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?

Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade

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11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?
Answer: concrete beam sample

12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD

13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping
(Item 104)?
Answer: 3 grading tests

16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

Answer: 80% maximum

17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?
Answer: Blown Asphalt

18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?

Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?

Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?
Answer: by Field Density Test

21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?

Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit

22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?

Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis

23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m 3,
with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of 1,960
kg/m3?
Answer: 101.86%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?
Answer: 5 holes/km/lane

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25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams
and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?
Answer: 17.58%

26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?
Answer: the soil is clayey

27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the
oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant weight

28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
Answer: 110 ± 5°C

29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?
Answer: because it can affect its weight

30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural
moisture content?
Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is the moisture content
of an air – dried sample while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the
moisture content of the original sample from the field.

31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample represents?
Answer: 2000 bags

32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?
Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample

34. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Answer: as joint filler and water proofing

35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement

36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in
water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C

37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?

Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
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38. Paint is composed of _____
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial
curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing
of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4 °F
± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)

43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?

Answer: high degree of compressibility

44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what
sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)

45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density
Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop

46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how

many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer

47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g,
what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

Answer: Cut – back asphalt

49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the
surface at the rate of approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
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50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47,
what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%

51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree

of compaction for this kind of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction

52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for
concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?

Answer: Contractor

54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing
aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified

55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is
the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)

59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports

60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?

Answer: consistency

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61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s
operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many
measurements?
Answer: four (4)

66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of
the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters

67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.

Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture

68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel
paint are to be used in the project?
Answer: four (4) pails

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous
Prime Coat is to be used in the project?
Answer: Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of
8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests

72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?

Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test

73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?
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Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm
Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without
breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit

80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.

Answer: Liquid Limit

82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing
the mass percent of wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm

83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement =
40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water = 15
liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
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Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse
aggregates; 130 liters water

85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?

Answer: week

88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption

90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers
should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)

92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many
days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)

93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that
its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test

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94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are
you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result

95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt
mix can be done by what test?
Answer: Extraction Test

96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool

97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?

Answer: glass plate

98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?

Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval

99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control
measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm

101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be
laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B

103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A

104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C

105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at
least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
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106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

Answer: 1 inch

108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.

Answer: 35%

109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.

Answer: 4% to 9%

110. Range of sand size.

Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio

112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids

Answer: moisture content

113. Significance of grading test are, except

Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity,
measures the potential cohesion of soil

114. Significance of plasticity index are, except

Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a
binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil

115. Properties of concrete are, except

Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking

116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the
economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base

117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.

Answer: Liquidity Index

118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except

Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index

119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders,
beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)

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120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all
other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to
ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap

125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.

Answer: 150 mm

126. Class of concrete deposited in water.

Answer: Class Seal

127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced

128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding
and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of reinforcement.
Answer: Class B

129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles,
cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.
Answer: Class C

130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.
Answer: Class P

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

Answer: 1.50 m

132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings

Answer: Item 612

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133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm

134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____
Answer: 3% to 5 %

135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____

Answer: plain bars

136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a
flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.
Answer: 3.80 MPa

137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate
sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers

138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____
Answer: 80%

139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.
Answer: ± 10 mm

140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard
Answer: No. 40

141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3

142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete

specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%
Answer: 70%

143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption
of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint

144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge
between contacts with the surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm

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146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required
number of CBR test is _____
Answer: four (4)

147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except

Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density

148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except

Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion
of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits

149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4

150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material

Answer: Group Index

151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width
per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be required.
Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm
Answer: 353 sets

152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 30%

153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 6%

154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit
exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively

155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is

Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 90

157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 89

158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer

Answer: 95%

159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment

Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
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160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of
each layer of compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)

161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200

Answer: 12%

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200

Answer: 35%

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200

Answer: 2”

164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in
accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96

165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200

Answer: 50%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200

Answer: 25%

167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base

course
Answer: 100%

169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be

made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191

171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch

172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202

Answer: 45%

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173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of
Item 202
Answer: 50%

174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202

Answer: 80%

175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A

Answer: 1 ½ inch

176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A

Answer: 2”

177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B

Answer: 1 inch

178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a prepared
subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

179. The required plasticity index for Item 203

Answer: 4% to 10%

180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%

181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B
Answer: 2”

182. Item number for water?

Answer: Item 714

183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the
soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%

184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203

Answer: 100%

185. Required percent compaction for Item 203

Answer: 100%

186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling

Answer: Pneumatic tire roller

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187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and
passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point

189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from

the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness
Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of
existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?

Answer: MC – 3000

192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the
casting length of the regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting

193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints

194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other
metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle

wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate

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the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening
measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger

199. Soil stabilizing agent

Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – fro sandy soil

200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT

201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT

202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together
are called _____
Answer: tie bars

204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight

205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____

Answer: Once a year

206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?

Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”

208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the
Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs

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209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load
resistance that a specimen will develop at _____
Answer: 60°

210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a
heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows

211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100

212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of
pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested
by the midpoint method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa

214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____

Answer: Steel forms of an approved section

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours

216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement

Answer: 24 hours

217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches

218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract

price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more

219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured
concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m

221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?

Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm

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222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from
each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set

223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength

224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)

225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.

Answer: 4 to 6 rpm

226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?

Answer: 10 to 20 cm

227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course
preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat

228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?

Answer: Item 304

229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for
Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%

230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the
application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat

231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C

232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø

233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?
Answer: 107°C

234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.

Answer: 5 kph

235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.

Answer: faulting

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236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of
at least ______
Answer: 100 mm

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____
Answer: ± 1.0 mass %

238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones
for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)

240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2

241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2

242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from
the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with the
surface?
Answer: 6 mm

243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?

Answer: 1.40 MPa

244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by
AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum

245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: ±7

246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
Answer: ±4

247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.
Answer: ±2

248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.
Answer: stability

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249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water,
temperature and traffic.
Answer: durability

250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage
of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance

251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to
gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility

252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.

Answer: 92% to 95%

253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the
cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test

254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used
grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100

255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is

performed.
Answer: stability

256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease

257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer

258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:

Answer: highly organic soils

260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content

261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:

Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
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262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its strength development

263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge
bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack

265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is
already doubt as to its quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use

266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a
particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization

267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test
is taken. What will be this test?
Answer: referee test

268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it

allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength. What is
the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days

269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky

270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____

Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel

271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____

Answer: weak subgrade

272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____

Answer: very stable

273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___
Answer: normal

274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?

Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
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275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test
in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.

276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the
result. True or false?
Answer: true

277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?

Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun

278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what
alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C

279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch

281. What is particle size analysis?

Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve,
hydrometer or a combined analysis

282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with
chemicals?
Answer: distilled water

283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the
base through a height of _____?
Answer: 10 mm

284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps

285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)

286. What is specific gravity?

Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or
defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated
temperature)
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287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m

288. What Item of work is embankment?

Answer: Item 104

289. What kind of material for Item 200?

Answer: Aggregate sub – base course

291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
Answer: 100%

292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density
relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content
(OMC)

293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and
retained No. 200 sieve

294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?

Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)

295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?

296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption
be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours

298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

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Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit
weight: Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit
weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request

299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion
test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455
grams

300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate,
grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams

301. What is significance of abrasion test?

Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an
indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also
determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or
rolling.

302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)

303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days

304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third
point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2

305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center
point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2

306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a
hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are
required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)

308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
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Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum

309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum

310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?

Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its
elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.

311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?

Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB

312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?

Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)

313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?

Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt

314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left
undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours

315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?

Answer: cut – back asphalt

316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many
pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces

317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?

Answer: thickness and density of pavement

318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities,
weather, etc. are recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook

319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer

320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is
called _____
Answer: segregation

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321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m
on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses
with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm,
the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase courses shall be carried
out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m

322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of
loading shall be permitted?
Answer: higher

323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples

324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade
preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most
effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil
prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles

325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21”
beam mold be rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer

326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce

excessive _______ or _______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture

327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC

328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets

329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall
be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous
mixture?
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Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude
oil.

332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?

Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt

333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?

Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and
in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have
positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron.

335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?

Answer: asphalt cement

336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?

Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt

337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?

Answer: climatic condition

338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit
the job – mix formula?
Answer: three (3) weeks

339. Who will approve the job – mix formula?

Answer: DPWH PE and ME

340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:

Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC

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342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable

343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain
the required density?
Answer: trial section

344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great
significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature

345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?

Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel
towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.

346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?

Answer: degree of compaction

347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____
Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density

348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?

Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature

349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?

Answer: by the use of core drill or saw

350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm

351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?

Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm

352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?
Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds

354. How is concrete consolidated?

Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is
used?
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Answer: longitudinal construction joint

356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding
problem?
Answer: deformed steel tie bars

357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: not less than 50 mm

358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____

Answer: not less than 6 mm

359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of
sawing?
Answer: sawing shall be omitted

360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____

Answer: asphalt or other materials

361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position
parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel

362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be
coated with _____
Answer: thin film of bitumen

363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____

Answer: brooming

364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the
pavement?
Answer: 1.5 mm

365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for
a period of _____
Answer: 72 hours

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:

Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the
surface

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367. When is the right time to seal the joints?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine
sand

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____

Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit,
accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME

371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction
materials for use in the project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.

Answer: asphaltene

373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?
Answer: No. 200

374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____

Answer: pothole patching

375. VMA means

Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen

Answer: 124ºC

377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 163ºC

378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC

379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from

Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC

380. The maximum absorption content of CHB

Answer: 240 kg/m3

381. The maximum moisture content of CHB

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Answer: 45%

382. SPT means

Answer: Standard Penetration Test

383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample

Answer: Shelby tube

384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

Answer: wax

385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample

Answer: split spoon sampler

386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can
be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test

387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring

Answer: diamond bit

388. CQCA means

Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)

389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from

Answer: 1.01 – 1.04

390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?

Answer: cationic

391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted
volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness of
200 mm/layer?
Answer: fifteen (15)

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is

Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet
steel bar is
Answer: 0.06%

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
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GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa
GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent

Answer: clay content

396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is
Answer: air – dried condition

397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place

Answer: Sand cone method

398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing

Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200

399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?

Answer:
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients
including water is in the drum is
Answer: 100 rpm

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and
finishing when this method is used (Item 206)
Answer: two (2) hours

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until
the asphaltic material has set.
Answer: 40 kph

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation

Answer: 90 minutes

405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be
followed is
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Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed
concrete.

406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your
firm, what will you recommend?
Answer: conduct recoring

407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or
doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates
Answer: excessive asphalt

408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?
Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)

409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to
determine the liquid limit of the soil.
Answer: Flow curve

410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____

Answer: abrasion loss

411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix
that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?
Answer: 24.7 liters

412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____

Answer: 2.75

413. The standard packaging weight of cement

Answer: 40 kg/bag

414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial

setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound

416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.
Answer: glass beads

417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.

Answer: Latex

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418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.
Answer: Triple spot test

419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.
Answer: Single spot test

420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made
with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Enamel

421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average

conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of a
material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a
group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material

422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the
work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips

423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina
position.
Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø

424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 2.15

425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 102.5ºC

426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 10 minutes

427. The rate of application of traffic paint.

Answer: 0.33 lit/m2

428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.

Answer: 15 – 30 minutes

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.

Answer: 10 kg

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous
paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper

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431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of
compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using
saturated surface dry specimens.

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.

Answer: gasoline

433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on

Answer: mass of dry aggregates

434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from
bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.

Answer: Softening point

438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%

439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.

Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F

440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

Answer: yellowish brown

441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)

442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there
in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)

443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at

Answer: approximately quarter points

444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes

Answer: bleeding

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445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate

particle.
Answer: raveling

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an

alligator’s skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking

448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the
kind and number of test of each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %

450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed
Answer: 12 mass %

451. Additives used in concrete mixing.

Answer: admixtures

452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by

saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test

453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on

Answer: Absolute Design Method

454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than
Answer: 45 minutes

455. The final setting time of Portland cement

Answer: 10 hours

456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand

457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air
permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

458. A mixture of cement and water is

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Answer: cement paste

459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement
in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle

460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is

Answer: 19.3 MPa

461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the
autoclave?
Answer: crumbled

462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete

Answer: first seven (7) days

464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing
aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples

465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory

tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling

467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited
laboratory.
Answer: government

469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder

470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength
of concrete.
Answer: accelerator

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471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water

472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:

473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate
base course?
Answer: 0 – 12%

474. The rate of application of special curing agent

Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m

475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.
Answer: sounding

476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be
performed?
Answer: Liquid limit test

477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is
Answer: 20mm

478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of
timber.
Answer: 10 days

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.
Answer: 2mm

480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity
hammer.
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete)
4.5m (timber)

481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and
gradation.
Answer: Compaction
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482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering
materials.
Answer: liquid limit of fines

483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the
expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section.
Answer: 3” to 5”

484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is
____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”

485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 –
hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have
previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi

488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed
task to make – up for the past or future loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control

489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.

` Answer: potholes

490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the
pavement.
Answer: corrugation

491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.

Answer: shoving

492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.

Answer: rutting

492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?

Answer: base or subbase course

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493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by
pneumatic means.
Answer: 3 meters

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and
subgrade.
Answer: base course

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.

Answer: 40 times bar Ø

496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except
pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete

497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.

Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.
Answer: transom

499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler
and the depth needed is _____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m

500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?

Answer: 50mm

501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.

Answer: 1.50m length

502. The initial diameter of bore hole.

Answer: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter?

Answer: 67mm

504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD
traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)

505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300
VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)

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506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy
or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)

507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project

Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks)

508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width

509. For ports and harbors projects:

Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers
& wharves)

510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):

Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior
(9m below lowest foundation)

511. For buildings less than 930 m2

Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners

512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x
140mm.
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector

513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

Answer: shrinkage cracking

514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?

Answer: consistency

515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.

Answer: ± 4mm

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite
infestation.
Answer: Cordoning

517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.

Answer: Drenching

518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 22%
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519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____
Answer: 14%

520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.

Answer: 244 kg/m2

521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

Answer: 1,033.50 KPa

522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each
stroke.
Answer: 831.48 kg/m

523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground
line or seabed.
Answer: 2.5 meters

524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other
bodies of water.
Answer: dredging

525. The slope of batter piles

Answer: 1:6

526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____

Answer: 0.12%

527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design

Answer: 20%

528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been
established on the ground.
Answer: Minor excavation

529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.

Answer: footing

530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.
Answer: Boring test

531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the
ground.
Answer: 700mm

532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.

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Answer: 100mm

533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a

column.
Answer: Spread footing

534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured
state.
Answer: ± 3%

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade
indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs
additional compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor

540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be

Answer: volume

542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of
10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
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Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and
compact

543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm

544. Geosynthetics may be used for

Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control

545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?

Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder

546. Steel bars are considered undersize if

Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the
manufactured size

547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending

548. Concrete curing refers to

Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?
Answer: organic

550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of
water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in
compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3

553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and
which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand

554. What is ASTM?

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Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials

555. What is AASHTO?

Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have
laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large

558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?

Answer: ½ of the thickness

559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?

Answer: colloids

560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the
specimen
Answer: 25mm

561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or

sand and containing silt – clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates

562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average

dimension between 75mm – 305mm
Answer: boulders

563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them
denser and grow straight.
Answer: Pruning

564. The road near or abutting a bridge.

Answer: Approach

565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done

Answer: before the construction work

566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity

Answer: sand and gravel

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567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum
interval of
Answer: 20 meters

568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method

569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a
lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity

570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves

Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than
225mm depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of the
embankment

571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately
after final placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks

572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?

Answer: Liquid membrane forming

573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?

Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date

574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?

Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the
specified strength

575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit
or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade

576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than
300 mm in depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished grade and
extending to the full width of the embankment

577. What is Rock Embankment Method?

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?

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Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be
deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be thoroughly
compacted

579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration
move also be considered)

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?

581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?

Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to
accelerate consideration

582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface
sealing
Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?

Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.

584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like
reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding

585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion
of the slabs during hot weather
Answer: buckling

586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement
Answer: crushing

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance
Answer: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water

589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
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590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi

591. What is quality?

Answer: It the degree of excellence

592. What is control?

Answer: Is to regulate

593. What is quality control?

Answer: It is conformance to requirements

594. What is assurance?

Answer: it the degree of certainty

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?

Answer: Inspection and Testing

596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?
Answer: 4 – 5 feet

597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to
produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization

599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?

Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular
material becomes unstable if it has dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt
cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from
convenience in road – mixing or priming

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to

Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement
mortar

602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and water content
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603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?
Answer: Type I

604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II

605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

Answer: Type III

606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?

Answer: Type IV

607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type V

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?
Answer: Type 1S

609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?

Answer: Type 1P

610. Type I is for general use such as

Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water
pipes

611. Type III cement is used for

Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength

612. Type IV is used for

Answer: massive structures such as dams

613. Type V cement is used for

Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was

Answer: Joseph Aspdin

615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing

Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica

616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is

Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch
of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker

617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called

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Answer: volcanic earth

618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of

Answer: C3S and C2S

619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by

Answer: C3A and C4AF

620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed

Answer: hydration

621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____
is added to Portland cement
Answer: water

622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means

Answer: the setting time is larger

623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care
of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity

624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from

Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel

625. The water required for concrete mix should be

Answer: fresh water

626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because
it contains
Answer: chloride

627. The entrapped air in concrete is

Answer: accidental and unwanted

628. The entrained air in concrete is

Answer: deliberate and desirable

629. We use aggregate in concrete as

Answer: filler materials in concrete

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:

Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy

631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

Answer:
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a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate

632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but
making it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength

634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic
impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test

635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:

Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes
from a discarded or used bag

636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates

Answer: fineness modulus

637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates

Answer: free water

638. What do you mean by SSD?

Answer: Saturated Surface Dry

639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity
Answer: consistency

640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is

Answer: objectionable

641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as

Answer: Water – reducing admixture

642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?
Answer: five (5)

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to
failure
Answer: bearing capacity
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644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay
Answer: 2”

645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance
should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g

646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed
from the oven, it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator

647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay
constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours

648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has
been removed from the oven within
Answer: 1 hour

650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above

Answer: Boring Test

651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil

Answer: calcium tri – chloride

652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is

Answer: low

653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement

Answer: hot – mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

Answer: 1.5 m

655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete

Answer: 0.50 – 0.60

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect

Answer: Portland cement

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657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working
load so that tension under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing

658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel
materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate

659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause
brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous

660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)

662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?

Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)

663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air entrained?

Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)

664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced

665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other
values of its ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength

666. What is the mixing time of concrete?

Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds

667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be
disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours

668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before
batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for
draining
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669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present

670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1

hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size
of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less

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MATERIALS
ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER

1
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)

2
Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the
DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)

PART C - EARTHWORKS

ITEM 100 – CLEARING AND GRUBBING

* This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation
and debris as designated in the contract.
Tests: None

ITEM 101 – REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS

*This item shall consist of the removal wholly or in part, and satisfactory disposal of all
buildings, fences, structures, old pavements abandoned pipelines, and any other
obstruction which are not designated or permitted to remain.
Tests: None

ITEM 102 – EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of
materials.
Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable

ITEM 103 – STRUCTURE EXCAVATION

ITEM 104 – EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of the construction of embankment.
Tests:
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
3
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof:
At least one group of three in – situ density test. The layer shall be
placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on
the result of compacted trials.

ITEM 105 – SUBGRADE PREPARATION

* This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying
structural layers.
Tests: Same as for Item 104

ITEM 106 – COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS

ITEM 107 – OVERHAUL

* This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance.
Tests: None

PART D – SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE

ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base
course on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course
on a prepared sub-grade.
4
Tests:

For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:

1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every 2,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof

ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

ITEM 203 – LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime and water in proper proportions.
Amount of lime to be added:
3 – 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
B. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test

5
ITEM 204 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate,
Portland cement and water in proper proportions.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. CEMENT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
C. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
D. MIX
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 205 – ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

ITEM 206 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE

COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate
Portland cement and water in proper proportion.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
6
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
Same as for Item 203
B. PORTLAND CEMENT
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
C. MIX
Same as for Item 204
D. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof

ITEM 207 – AGGREGATE STOCKPILE

* This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations.
Tests:
Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification

PART E – SURFACE COURSES

ITEM 300 – AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed
aggregate and other binder material.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof
For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – F, Fractured face

ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m2
Test: 1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 302 – BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT

7
*This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete with bituminous material.
Quantity:
0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums

ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT

ITEM 304 – BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT

ITEM 305 – BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT

8
* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing one or more aggregate and one or
more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat a with cover aggregate
constructed on a prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt
Course (crushed) 80 kg/m2
Key (crushed) 24 kg/m2
Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m2

B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
7.2 to 11 L/m2
Test:
Same as for Item 301

ITEM 306 – BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE

ITEM 307 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – GENERAL

9
* This item includes general requirements that are applicable to all type of bituminous
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregate or kind and amount of bituminous
material.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
For every 75 m3/200T or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping
and Bulk specific gravity)
1 – F, Fractured face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof:
1 – G. Grading Test
1 – Ext, Stability Test
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken

ITEM 308 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – COLD LAID

* This item shall consist of constructing Bituminous Surface Course (Asphalt Cold Mix)
prepared in central mixing plant, laid cold on a prepared base.
A.AGGREGATE
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
10
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)

F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 309 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE

ITEM 310 – BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE – HOT LAID

A. AGGREGATES
11
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Same as for Item 307
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
Same as for Item 307

ITEM 311 – PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT

* This item shall consist of pavement of Portland cement concrete, with or without
reinforcement, constructed on the prepared base.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
9.0 bags/m3(40 kg/bag)
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.50 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded course aggregate
0.54 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
12
0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate
0.68 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test

PART F – BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

ITEM 401 – RAILINGS

ITEM 402 – TIMBER STRUCTURES

ITEM 403 – METAL STRUCTURES

ITEM 404 – REINFORCING STEEL

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel
reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required.
A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
14
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test

ITEM 405 – STRUCTURAL CONCRETE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all
structures except pavements.
A. CEMENT
Quantity: (40 kg/bag)
Class A 9 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 8 bags/m3 of concrete – 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa
Class C 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class P 11 bags/m3 of concrete – 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class Seal 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 –Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.50 0.54 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.45 0.52 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.53 0.59 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.44 0.47 m2/m3 of concrete

Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete
15
Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete

Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
D. WATER
Tests:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FOR EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of
concrete or fraction thereof

ITEM 406 – PRE – STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES

ITEM 407 – CONCRETE STRUCTURES

*This item shall consist of the general description of the materials, equipment,
workmanship and construction requirements of concrete structures and the concrete
portions of composite structures.
16
Tests:
Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411
Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality

ITEM 408 – STEEL BRIDGES

ITEM 409 – WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL

* This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type.
Test:
Same as for 403 and Inspection Report

ITEM 410 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

ITEM 411 – PAINT

ITEM 412 – ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS

ITEM 413 – PRE – MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction
17
PART G – DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES

ITEM 500 – PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS

* This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm
drains.
A. PIPES
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength,
Absorption and Dimension)
Alternative Requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER
Cement, fine aggregates and water:
Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 501 – UNDERDRAINS

ITEM 502 – MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS

ITEM 503 – DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME

* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal
sizes of industry standard sized pits.

ITEM 504 – CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE

STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant
structures.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 505 – RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP

* This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the
case maybe, with or without filter backing.
Test:
Same as for Item 506
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:3)

ITEM 506 – STONE MASONRY

* This item shall consist of stone masonry of minor structures, in headwalls for culverts,
in retaining walls at the toes of slopes.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
2 bags/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:2)
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.17m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405)
For every 75 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
C. STONE
Test:
Inspection Report
D. WATER
Test:

19
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
ITEM 507 – RUBBLE CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete.

ITEM 508 – HAND – LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 509 – SHEET PILES

ITEM 510 – CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION

ITEM 511 – GABIONS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

PART H – MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES

ITEM 600 – CURB AND GUTTER

* This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of
concrete.
20
A. CONCRETE
Quantity:
0.078 m3/m (curb only)
0.092 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type A)
0.145 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type B)
0.074 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type C)
Test:
Same as for Item 405
B. JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311
ITEM 601 – SIDEWALK
* This item shall consist of construction of asphalt of Portland cement concrete sidewalk.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. PRE – MOLDED EXPANSION JOINT FILLER
Test:
Same as for Item 311

ITEM 602 – MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS

ITEM 603 – GUARDRAIL

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails.
A. STEEL POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 403
B. TIMBER POSTS
Test:
Same as for Item 410
C. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405
D. REINFORCING STEEL
21
Test:
Same as for Item 404
E. RAIL
Test:
Inspection Report
F. PAINT
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 604 – FENCING

ITEM 605 – ROAD SIGN

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 606 – PAVEMENT MARKINGS

* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 607 – REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the
surface of the pavement.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 608 – TOPSOIL

* This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from
designated areas, haul and spread.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 609 – SPRIGGING

* This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.
22
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 610 – SODDING

ITEM 611 – TREE PLANTING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees
evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas.
Test:
Inspection Report

ITEM 612 – REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING

* This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means
with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.

PART I – MATERIALS DETAILS

ITEM 700 – HYDRATED CEMENT

Test:
Same as for Item 405

ITEM 701 – CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED)

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof

ITEM 702 – BITUMINOUS MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310

ITEM 703 – AGGREGATES

Test:
Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities

ITEM 703A – MINERAL FILLER

* This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug
dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter.
Test:
Same as for Item 307

23
ITEM 704 – MASONRY UNITS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof

ITEM 705 – JOINT MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 311 and 500

ITEM 706 – CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES

A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 500
B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES
Test:
Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs

ITEM 707 – METAL PIPE

Test:
Same as for Item 400

ITEM 708 – CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE

* This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of
concrete admixtures.
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment

ITEM 709 – PAINTS

Test:
Same as for Item 411

ITEM 710 – REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE

A. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
Same as for Item 404
B.WIRE ROPE
Test:
Same as for Item 406

ITEM 711 – FENCE AND GUARDRAIL

A. FENCE
Test:
Same as for Item 604
B. GUARDRAIL
Test:
Same as for Item 603
24
ITEM 712 – STRUCTURAL METAL
Test:
Same as for Items 403 and 406

ITEM 713 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

Test:
Same as for Item 410

ITEM 714 – WATER

Test:
Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test, if source
is questionable

ITEM 715 – GEOTEXTILES

25
TABLES

26
MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES

MATERIALS MNIMUM TESTING MINIMUM

REQUIREMENTS QUANTITY/VOLUME OF
MATERIALS FOR EACH
SAMPLE SUBMITTED
1. Cement 1 sample per 2000 bags 10 kg
1 sample per 40T or 200
2. Asphaltic material 5L
drums
3. Aspahlt mix 1 sample per 130T 20 kg
4. Aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. coarse aggregate 70 kg
b. fine aggregate 50 kg
5. Soil aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. Classification 20 kg
b. Routinary tests 50 kg
c. MDR test and CBR 50 kg
6. Non – Reinforced Concrete 2 pipes min./0.5% of no.
2 pipes
Pipes of pipes
1 sample per 50 pipes or 1 pipe (1 m length)
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes
2% of # of pipes
1 sample per 500 lengths 2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken
8.Steel pipe (galvanized)
from both ends w/ thread
9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB) 1 sample per 10,000 units
a. strength 3 units
b. moisture content 3 units
10. Steel bar 1 sample per 10T 1m
11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 1 sample per 100 sheets 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm
12. Wire strand 1 sample per 20T 2m
13. Gabion 1m x 2m
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint – filler (pre – molded) 1 – 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m3 1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1
1 set (3 cylinders)
day pouring
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
500 ml
a. Chemical analysis
500 ml
b. Sediment load analysis
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T

27
COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE

Class of Minimum Maximum Consistency Designated Minimum

concrete cement water – range in size of compressive
content per cement ratio slump coarse strength of
cu. m aggregate 150mm x
300mm
square concrete
kg (bags) kg/kg mm (inch) opening – cylinder @
std. mm 28 days
MN/m2 (psi)
50 -100 (2 – 37. 5 – 4.75
A 360 (9) 0.53 20.7 (3000)
4) (1 ½ - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 50.0 – 4.75
B 320 (8.5) 0.58 16.5 (2400)
4) (2 - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 12. 5 – 4.75
C 380 (9.5) 0.55 20.7 (3000)
4) (½ - No. 4)
100 max ( 4 19.0 – 4.75
P 440 (11) 0.49 37. 7 (5000)
max) (3/4 - No. 4)
100 – 200 (4 25.0 – 4.75
Seal 380 (9.5) 0.58 20.7 (3000)
– 8) (1 - No. 4)

PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

STRENGTH

Deficiency in strength of concrete Percent (%) of

pavement contract price
Percent (%) allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
10 to less than 15 70
15 to less than 20 60
20 to less than 25 50
25 or more 0

28
PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN
THICKNESS

Deficiency in the Percent (%) of

average thickness contract price
per lot(mm) per lot
0–5 100
6 – 10 95
11 – 15 85
16 – 20 70
21 – 25 50
more than 25 removed and replaced (no payment)

COMMON LABORATORY TESTS

Kind of material Type of test Test duration per sample

(min. # of days)
Cement Physical and chemical 8
Coarse aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Abrasion 1
Unit weight 1

Fine aggregate Grading 3

Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1

Soil aggregates mixture Grading 3

(subbase, base and surfaces
courses
Liquid limit 3
Plastic limit 3
Compaction 3
CBR 7
Abrasion 1

Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4

Concrete cylinder Compressive 1

Concrete beam Flexural 1

Concrete core Cutting of sample 1

29
LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS

ITEM ITEM ITEM 1TEM ITEM ITEM ITEM

104 105 200 201 202 203 300
Abrasion loss 50% 50% 45% 45%
max max max max
Plastic index 6% 12% 6% 4% to 4% to
6% max
max max max 10% 9%
Liquid limit 30% 35% 25% 25% 35%
max max max max max
Permitted
variation from
+15mm,
design ±20mm ±10mm
-5mm
THICKNESS
OF LAYER
Permitted
variation from +20mm, +10mm, -5mm, - +15mm,
design LEVEL -30mm -20mm 10mm -5mm
OF SURFACE
Permitted
surface
irregularity 30mm 20mm 5mm 5mm
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
±0.5% ±0.3% ±0.2% +0.2%
design cross
fall or camber
Permitted
variation from
design
±0.1% ±0.1% ±0.1% +0.1%
longitudinal
grade over 25m
length
California 25% 80% 80% 80%
100%
Bearing Ratio min min min min
DIMESION OF PILES

Length of pile Ø (1m from the butt) Minimum

minimum maximum tip Ø
less than 12m 300mm 450mm 200mm
12m to 18m 320mm 450mm 180mm
more than 18m 350mm 500mm 150mm

30
REMOVAL OF FORMS

Scope of work Minimum time Minimum % of design

strength
Centering under girders,
14 days 80%
beams, frames or arches
Floors slabs 14 days 70%
Walls 1 day 70%
Columns 2 days 70%
Sides of beams and all other
1 day 70%
vertical surfaces

SIEVE SIZES

NO. 200 0.075mm NO. 20 0.840mm

NO. 100 0.150mm NO. 16 1.180mm
NO. 60 0.300mm NO. 12 1.700mm
NO.50 0.250mm NO. 10 2.000mm
NO. 40 0.425mm NO. 8 2.360mm
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm

DETAILS OF WELDS

Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part

5mm 13mm
6mm 19mm
8mm 32mm
10mm 51mm
13mm 152mm
16mm 152mm and above
MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING

GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø

31
MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 30 100
NO. 50 95 – 100
NO. 200 70 - 100

HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701)

Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 20 100
NO. 200 85 - 100

MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURECONTENT

Sieve No. (passing) Weight

NO. 40 25 grams
NO. 10 50 grams
NO. 4 200 grams
½” 300 grams
1” 500 grams
2” 1000 grams

32
What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete?

Answer: concrete cylinder sample

What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete?

Ans: Slump test

What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test?

Ans: 1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment

How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete?

Ans: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample

What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?

Ans: 3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets

What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads?

Ans: Reflectorized Paint

What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in which the predominating substance

is bitumen? Ans: asphalt

For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?

Ans: 24 hours

What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat?

Ans: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m

10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt?

Ans: 0 to 30 penetration grade

11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test?

Ans: Concrete beam sample

12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)?

Ans: CBR, abrasion, GPCD

13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)?

Ans: 3 grading tests

14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required

materials?

Ans: blend Item 200 with coarser materials

15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201?

Ans: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively

16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201?

Ans: 80% maximum

17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement?

Ans: Blown Asphalt

18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)?

Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

19. What is the machine used for abrasion test?

Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine

20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201?

Ans: by Field Density Test

21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI?

Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit

22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?

Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis

23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry

density of 1,960 kg/m3?

Ans: 101.23%

24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement?

Ans: 5 holes/km/lane

25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams?

Ans: 17.58%

26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean?

Ans: the soil is clayey

27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?

Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight

28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained?
o
Ans: 110 ± 5 C

29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable?

Ans: because it can affect its weight

30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?

Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample while natural moisture content is the moisture content

of the original sample from the field.

31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents?

Ans: 2000 bags

32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test?

Ans: 2 pcs – 1 m sample

33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the

fresh concrete mix, what admixture should it be?

Ans: Superplasticizer

34. What is the use of blown asphalt?

Ans: as joint filler and water proofing

35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt?

Ans: Asphalt Cement

36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water?

Ans: 4 days @ 50 oC

37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? Consistency

Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition

38. Paint is composed of _____

Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads

39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample?

Ans: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip

40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing?

Ans: 23o C ± 1.7o C

41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours

immediately prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times.

Ans: three (3)

42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing

temperature of 73.4 °F ± 3°F

Ans: Twenty-four (24)

43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?

Ans: high degree of compressibility

44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve?

Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)

45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?

Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop

46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied?

Ans: 60 blows/layer

47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix?

Ans: 5.10%

48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?

Ans: Cut-back asphalt

49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of approximately _____?

Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2

50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt content?

Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%

51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of soil?

Ans: 95% degree of compaction

52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”?

Ans: 8 bags/ cu.m

53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____?

Ans: Contractor

54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates?

Ans: Once the source is identified

55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”?

Ans: 3000 psi

56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate

on the mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for

strength, segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)

57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?

Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected location

58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?

Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)

59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material?

Answer: Materials test results/reports

60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?

Answer: consistency

61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____?

Answer: consistency of concrete

62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation?

Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples

63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?

Answer: four (4)

64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements?

Answer: nine (9)

65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why?

Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect

66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of water is most likely required for the

mix?

Answer: 20 liters

67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.

Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture

68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the project?

Answer: four (4) pails

69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted

for CBR test and for sieve analysis?

Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis

70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project?

Answer: Two (2) samples

71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?

Answer: Six (6) compaction tests

72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports?

Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test

73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)?

Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water

74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?

Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples for each item of work should be

tested based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this?

Answer: Quality Control Program

76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?

Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample

77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests

are not conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed.

Answer: Fourteen (14)

78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to

be submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the

construction materials being used in the project?

Answer: Status of Test

79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm).

Answer: Plastic Limit

80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows.

Answer: Liquid Limit

81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete

measured is 178 mm. what is the slump of the concrete?

Answer: 127 mm

82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear?

Answer: 30 – 33 rpm

83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115

kgs, and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?

Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water

84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it

pass the DPWH specs?

Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum

85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____?

Answer: week

86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested:

Answer: before it is incorporated into work

87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement?

Answer: 200 mm loose measurement

88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?

Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption

89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who

sampled and who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?

Answer: Sample Card

90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?

Answer: Three (3)

91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction

materials can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample?

Answer: One (1) month

92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing?

Answer: Four (4)

93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field density test?

Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test

94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?

Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result

95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test?

Answer: Extraction Test

96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?

Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool

97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?

Answer: glass plate

98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix?

Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval

99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.

Answer: Berm

100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests.

The test required for soil was taken, except

Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density

101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.

Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m

102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.

Answer: Class B

103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 20 kgs.

Answer: Class A

104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 80 kgs.

Answer: Class C

105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 1500 kgs.

Answer: Class D

106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.

Answer: 150 mm

107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.

Answer: 1 inch

108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.

Answer: 35%

109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.

Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.

Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø

111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids

Answer: void ratio

112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids

Answer: moisture content

113. Significance of grading test are, except

Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of soil

114. Significance of plasticity index are, except

Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil

115. Properties of concrete are, except

Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking

116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except

Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base

117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state.

Answer: Liquidity Index

118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except

Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index

119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.

Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)

120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.

Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.

Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.

Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.

Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)

124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load

Answer: Pile cap

125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.

Answer: 150 mm

126. Class of concrete deposited in water.

Answer: Class Seal

127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs,

beams, girders, columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.

Answer: Class A

128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of

reinforcement.

Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors.

Answer: Class C

130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members.

Answer: Class P

131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit

Answer: 1.50 m

132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings

Answer: Item 612

133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300

Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm

134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____

Answer: 3% to 5 %

135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____

Answer: plain bars

136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days.

Answer: 3.80 MPa

137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____

`Answer: two or more layers

138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____

Answer: 80%

139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201.

Answer: ± 10 mm

140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard

Answer: No. 40

141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____

Answer: 1,120 kg/m3

142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15%

Answer: 70%

143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation

Answer: Transverse Construction Joint

144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310

Answer: 6.0 mm

145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing

seal, how much is the rate of application?

Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2

146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____

Answer: four (4)

147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except

Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density

148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except

Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits

149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except

Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4

150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material

Answer: Group Index

151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples

shall be required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm

Answer: 353 sets

152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 30%

153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings

Answer: 6%

154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds

Answer: 80% and 55% respectively

155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is

Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower

156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 90

157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 89

158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer

Answer: 95%

159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment

Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long

160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of each layer of compacted fill?

Answer: three (3)

161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200

Answer: 12%

162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200

Answer: 35%

163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200

Answer: 2”

164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 96

165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200

Answer: 50%

166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200

Answer: 25%

167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by

Answer: AASHTO T 193

168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course

Answer: 100%

169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with

Answer: AASHTO T 191

170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered

limestone (anapog) blended with crushed stones or gravel.

Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)

171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B

Answer: 1 ½ inch

172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202

Answer: 45%

173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202

Answer: 50%

174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202

Answer: 80%

175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A

Answer: 1 ½ inch

176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A

Answer: 2”

177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B

Answer: 1 inch

178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and

constructed on a prepared subgrade/subbase.

Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)

179. The required plasticity index for Item 203

Answer: 4% to 10%

180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203

Answer: 50%

181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B

Answer: 2”

182. Item number for water?

Answer: Item 714

183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?

Answer: 3% to 12%

184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203

Answer: 100%

185. Required percent compaction for Item 203

Answer: 100%

186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling

Answer: Pneumatic tire roller

187. Equipment to be used for final rolling

Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller

188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame

Answer: flash point

189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of

International Roughness Index.

Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device

190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound granular properties.

Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?

Answer: MC – 3000

192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular piles?

Answer: Test Pitting

193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the

existing slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing pavement.

Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer

194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?

Answer: Rebar Locator

195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened

sufficiently or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?

Answer: 3 – meter straight edge

196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and

asphalt road construction and in the measurement of moisture content?

Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge

197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests

are used to evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.

Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger

198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non –

destructive portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength

(either in – situ or pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections.

Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester

199. Soil stabilizing agent

Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil

Cement – for sandy soil

200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state.

Answer: LIQUID LIMIT

201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state.

Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT

202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid.

Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT

203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____

Answer: tie bars

204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented by these high spots

_____

Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down

only.

205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____

Answer: Once a year

206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture?

Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes

207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture?

Answer: 2”

208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____

Answer: 1800 lbs

209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will develop at _____

Answer: 60°

210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?

Answer: 75 blows

211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt?

Answer: 85 – 100

212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?

Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P

213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method.

Answer: 4.50 MPa

214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____

Answer: Steel forms of an approved section

215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____

Answer: Within 24 hours

216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement

Answer: 24 hours

217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____

Answer: 1 ½ inches

218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____

Answer: 25% or more

219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured?

Answer: 1,000 ln.m

220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently?

Answer: 500 ln. m

221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?

Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm

222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each

day?

Answer: 1 set

223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved?

Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength

224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.

Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)

225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching.

Answer: 4 to 6 rpm

226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water?

Answer: 10 to 20 cm

227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.

Answer: Prime Coat

228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?

Answer: Item 304

229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310?

Answer: ± 0.4%

230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?

Answer: Seal Coat

231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310.

Answer: ± 10°C

232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation?

Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø

233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed?

Answer: 107°C

234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310.

Answer: 5 kph

235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack.

Answer: faulting

236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______

Answer: 100 mm

237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____

Answer: ± 1.0 mass %

238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.

Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)

239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to

the construction of bituminous surface course.

Answer: Tack Coat

240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement?

Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2

241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt?

Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2

242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two

contacts with the surface?

Answer: 6 mm

243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?

Answer: 1.40 MPa

244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?

Answer: 70% minimum

245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve.

Answer: ±7

246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).

Answer: ±4

247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve.

Answer: ±2

248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load.

Answer: stability

249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.

Answer: durability

250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.

Answer: fatigue resistance

251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.

Answer: flexibility

252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.

Answer: 92% to 95%

253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?

Answer: Immersion – Compression Test

254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?

Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100

255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed.

Answer: stability

256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability.

Answer: decrease

257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used?

Answer: armored thermometer

258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:

Answer: highly organic soils

259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?

Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road?

Answer: excessive asphalt content

261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:

Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit

262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____

Answer: determine the trend of its strength development

263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test machine?

Answer: 0.3 mm crack

264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____

Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)

265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality should:

Answer: be retested prior to use

266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose.

Answer: Stabilization

267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this test?

Answer: referee test

268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the

strength. What is the required compressive strength?

Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days

269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix?

Answer: tacky

270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____

Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel

271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____

Answer: weak subgrade

272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____

Answer: very stable

273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___

Answer: normal

274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?

Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil

275. What is the significance of field density test?

Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate

compaction.

276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?

Answer: true

277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample?

Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun

278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?

Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C

279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size?

Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4

Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch

280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?

Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.

281. What is particle size analysis?

Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis

282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?

Answer: distilled water

283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____?

Answer: 10 mm

284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated?

Answer: 2 rps

285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break?

Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)

286. What is specific gravity?

Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water

at a stated temperature)

287. What is the approximate area for density control strips?

Answer: 335 sq. m

288. What Item of work is embankment?

Answer: Item 104

289. What kind of material for Item 200?

Answer: Aggregate sub – base course

290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?

Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)

291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?

Answer: 100%

292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction test?

Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)

293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?

Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve

294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone?

Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)

295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?

Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control,

chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name)

296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?

Answer: 15 to 19 hours

297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates

that it has reached a surface dry condition

298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption,

dry unit weight an d abrasion

Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request

299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?

Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams

300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?

Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams

301. What is significance of abrasion test?

Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact

and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.

302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test?

Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)

303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?

Answer: 14 days

304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?

Answer: R = PL

bd2

305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?

Answer: R = 3PL

2bd2

306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?

Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.

307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?

Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)

308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?

Answer:

Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum

Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum

309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?

Answer:

Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum

Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum

310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?

Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.

311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?

Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB

312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?

Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)

313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?

Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt

314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed?

Answer: 24 hours

315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?

Answer: cut – back asphalt

316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP?

Answer: 25 pieces

317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement?

Answer: thickness and density of pavement

318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____

Answer: Materials logbook

319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what?

Answer: depth of soil layer

320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____

Answer: segregation

321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase

and base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and

subbase courses shall be carried out in _____?

Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m

322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted?

Answer: higher

323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what?

Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples

324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the

most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?

Answer: geotextiles

325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be rodded?

Answer: 63 blows/layer

326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or _______.

Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture

327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____

Answer: 29ºC

328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP?

Answer: 12 sets

329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?

Answer: 6 pcs RCCP

330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced specified

slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded

331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?

Answer:

TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.

PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.

332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?

Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt

333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?

Answer:

GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type

KEROSENE – for medium curing type

DIESEL – for slow curing type

334. Emulsified asphalts are either _ or _.

Answer:

CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.

ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron.

335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310?

Answer: asphalt cement

336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement?

Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt

337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected?

Answer: climatic condition

338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula?

Answer: three (3) weeks

339. Who will approve the job – mix formula?

Answer: DPWH PE and ME

340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:

Answer:

grading of aggregates

percentage and type of asphalt

temperature of aggregates and asphalt

temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction

341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?

Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC

342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density?

Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable

343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density?

Answer: trial section

344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?

Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done?

Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each trip overlapping one half the

roller’s width.

346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?

Answer: degree of compaction

347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____

Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density

348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement?

Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature

349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement?

Answer: by the use of core drill or saw

350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm

351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated?

Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm

352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing?

Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds

353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?

Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators

354. How is concrete consolidated? Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically

355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used?

Answer: longitudinal construction joint

356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem?

Answer: deformed steel tie bars

357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?

Answer: not less than 50 mm

358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____

Answer: not less than 6 mm

359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?

Answer: sawing shall be omitted

360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____

Answer: asphalt or other materials

361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?

Answer: dowel

362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____

Answer: thin film of bitumen

363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____

Answer: brooming

364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?

Answer: 1.5 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____

Answer: 72 hours

366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:

Answer:

by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water

by thoroughly wetting the pavement

by ponding

by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface

367. When is the right time to seal the joints?

Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic

368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?

Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand

369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____?

Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____

Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed

by the ME

371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the project based on test results?

Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH

372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness.

Answer: asphaltene

373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve?

Answer: No. 200

374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____

Answer: pothole patching

375. VMA means

Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates

376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen

Answer: 124ºC

377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 163ºC

378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is

Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC

379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from

Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC

380. The maximum absorption content of CHB

Answer: 240 kg/m3

381. The maximum moisture content of CHB

Answer: 45%

382. SPT means

Answer: Standard Penetration Test

383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample

Answer: Shelby tube

384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample

Answer: wax

385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample

Answer: split spoon sampler

386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity

Answer: Standard Penetration Test

387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring

Answer: diamond bit

388. CQCA means

Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)

389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from

Answer: 1.01 – 1.04

390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt?

Answer: cationic

391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with

a thickness of 200 mm/layer?

Answer: fifteen (15)

392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is

Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress

393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is

Answer: 0.06%

394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?

Answer:

TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT

GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa

GRADE 60 621 MPa 414 MPa

GRADE 75 689 MPa 517 MPa

395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent

Answer: clay content

396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is

Answer: air – dried condition

397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place

Answer: Sand cone method

398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing

Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200

399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?

Answer:

subbase materials

surfacing materials

base course materials

400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.

Answer:

GRADING A – 12 spheres

GRADING B – 11 spheres

GRADING C – 8 spheres

GRADING D – 6 spheres

401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is

Answer: 100 rpm

402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used (Item 206)

Answer: two (2) hours

403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has set.

Answer: 40 kph

404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation

Answer: 90 minutes

405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is

Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.

406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you recommend?

Answer: conduct recoring

407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies

flat, it indicates

Answer: excessive asphalt

408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement?

Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)

409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil.

Answer: Flow curve

410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____

Answer: abrasion loss

411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm?

Answer: 24.7 liters

412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____

Answer: 2.75

413. The standard packaging weight of cement

Answer: 40 kg/bag

414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.

Answer: curing compound

415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather

conditions and possess improved visibility at night.

Answer: reflectorized paint

416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time.

Answer: glass beads

417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units.

Answer: Latex

418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test.

Answer: Triple spot test

419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating.

Answer: Single spot test

420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.

Answer: Enamel

421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The

supporting value of a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates

Answer: good subgrade material

422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted.

Answer: Control strips

423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position.

Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø

424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 2.15

425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 102.5ºC

426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.

Answer: 10 minutes

427. The rate of application of traffic paint.

Answer: 0.33 lit/m2

428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.

Answer: 15 – 30 minutes

429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint.

Answer: 10 kg

430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.

Answer: vernier caliper

431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.

Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.

432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.

Answer: gasoline

433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on

Answer: mass of dry aggregates

434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.

Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates

435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt.

Answer: penetrometer

436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.

Answer: Distillation

437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt.

Answer: Softening point

438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula

Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%

439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310.

Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F

440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?

Answer: yellowish brown

441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?

Answer: seven (7)

442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?

Answer: two (2)

443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at

Answer: approximately quarter points

444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes

Answer: bleeding

445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?

Answer: not greater than 4

446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle.

Answer: raveling

447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire.

Answer: alligator cracking

448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work.

Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements

449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed

Answer: 10 mass %

450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed

Answer: 12 mass %

451. Additives used in concrete mixing.

Answer: admixtures

452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.

Answer: Soundness test

453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on

Answer: Absolute Design Method

454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than

Answer: 45 minutes

455. The final setting time of Portland cement

Answer: 10 hours

456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement

Answer: Ottawa sand

457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability

Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus

458. A mixture of cement and water is

Answer: cement paste

459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.

Answer: Gillmore needle

460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is

Answer: 19.3 MPa

461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave?

Answer: crumbled

462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete

Answer: first seven (7) days

463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition

of the materials which they represent.

Answer: sampling

464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.

Answer: disturbed samples

465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties.

Answer: thin – walled tube sampling

467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory.

Answer: government

468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin

– walled tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable.

Answer: undisturbed samples

469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete.

Answer: retarder

470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete.

Answer: accelerator

471. The best enemy of construction.

Answer: water

472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:

Answer:

Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots and sewage

Highly organic soils such as peat and muck

Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%

Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%

Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3

Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer

473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course?

Answer: 0 – 12%

474. The rate of application of special curing agent

Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m

475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel.

Answer: sounding

476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed?

Answer: Liquid limit test

477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is

Answer: 20mm

478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber.

Answer: 10 days

479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening.

Answer: 2mm

480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer.

Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) 4.5m (timber)

481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation.

Answer: Compaction

482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials.

Answer: liquid limit of fines

483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated

pavement section.

Answer: 3” to 5”

484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____.

Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”

485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by _____.

Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%

486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air

pressure.

Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi

487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering

the setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete.

Answer: air entraining admixtures

488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make – up for the past or future loss of time.

Answer: Delivery control

489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.

Answer: potholes

490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement.

Answer: corrugation

491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.

Answer: shoving

492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.

Answer: rutting

492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?

Answer: base or subbase course

493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means.

Answer: 3 meters

494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.

Answer: base course

495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.

Answer: 40 times bar Ø

496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.

Answer: Structural concrete

497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.

Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)

498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure.

Answer: transom

499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____.

Answer: one (1) meter, 30m

500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?

Answer: 50mm

501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.

Answer: 1.50m length

502. The initial diameter of bore hole.

Answer: 76mm

503. What is the core bit diameter?

Answer: 67mm

504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic.

Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)

505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic.

Answer: 500m (along centerline)

506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground.

Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)

507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project

Answer:

1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)

1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks)

508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.

Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline

Depth = ½ times base width

509. For ports and harbors projects:

Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)

510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):

Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below lowest foundation)

511. For buildings less than 930 m2

Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners

512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm.

Answer: Flush Surface Reflector

513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed.

Answer: shrinkage cracking

514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design?

Answer: consistency

515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations.

Answer: ± 4mm

516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation.

Answer: Cordoning

517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation.

Answer: Drenching

518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 22%

519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____

Answer: 14%

520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.

Answer: 244 kg/m2

521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.

Answer: 1,033.50 KPa

522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke.

Answer: 831.48 kg/m

523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed.

Answer: 2.5 meters

524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.

Answer: dredging

525. The slope of batter piles

Answer: 1:6

526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____

Answer: 0.12%
527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design

Answer: 20%

528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the ground.

Answer: Minor excavation

529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity.

Answer: footing

530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above.

Answer: Boring test

531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground.

Answer: 700mm

532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill.

Answer: 100mm

533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column.

Answer: Spread footing

534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state.

Answer: ± 3%

535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that

Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional compaction

536. Liquid limit is usually

Answer: greater than plastic limit

537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least

Answer: 100% modified proctor

538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what

will you do?

Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification

539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?

Answer:

sampling of material

analysis of test result of material

scheduling of delivery of materials

design of concrete mix

540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be

Answer: volume

541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?

Answer:

granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum moisture content

clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil

granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC

none of the above

542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact

543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness

Answer: - 5mm

544. Geosynthetics may be used for

Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control

545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?

Answer:

beam balance

oven

moisture can

extruder

546. Steel bars are considered undersize if

Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size

547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements

except grading. What will you recommend?

Answer: reprocess the materials by blending

548. Concrete curing refers to

Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength

549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties?

Answer: organic

550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant?

Answer: Moisture – Density relation test

551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is

Answer: No. 10

552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?

Answer: 0.002124 m3

553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm

sieve

Answer: sand

554. What is ASTM?

Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials

555. What is AASHTO?

Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with

the latest methods as prescribed under

Answer: ASTM & AASHTO

557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?

Answer: large

558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?

Answer: ½ of the thickness

559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?

Answer: colloids

560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen

Answer: 25mm

561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt – clay materials

Answer: soil aggregates

562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average dimension between 75mm – 305mm

Answer: boulders

563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow straight.

Answer: Pruning

564. The road near or abutting a bridge.

Answer: Approach

565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done

Answer: before the construction work

566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity

Answer: sand and gravel

567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of

Answer: 20 meters

568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade material for road construction is classified as

Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method

569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump

Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity

570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves

Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of

the embankment

571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement especially during the first seven days?

Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks

572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete?

Answer: Liquid membrane forming

573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?

Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date

574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?

Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength

575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high

water content

Answer: Weak Subgrade

576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished

grade and extending to the full width of the embankment

577. What is Rock Embankment Method?

Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable

to fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade

578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?

Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be

thoroughly compacted

579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?

Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)

580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?

Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the

full width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has reached stability or the required settlement

581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?

Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate consideration

582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing

Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)

583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?

Answer:

Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100

original wt.

584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky

Answer: bleeding

585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather

Answer: buckling

586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement

Answer: crushing

587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance

Answer: Overhaul

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio?

Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water

589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204?

Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil

590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?

Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi

591. What is quality?

Answer: It the degree of excellence

592. What is control?

Answer: Is to regulate

593. What is quality control?

Answer: It is conformance to requirements

594. What is assurance?

Answer: it the degree of certainty

595. What are the two kinds of control activities?

Answer: Inspection and Testing

596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level?

Answer: 4 – 5 feet

597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?

Answer: Mechanic Stabilization

598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the

compaction process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil

Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt

599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?

Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has dried

600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?

Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road – mixing or priming

601. The theory of concrete design mix is to

Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar

602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on

Answer: cement type, cement content and water content

603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)?

Answer: Type I

604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?

Answer: Type II

605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement?

Answer: Type III

606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement?

Answer: Type IV

607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement?

Answer: Type V

608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement?

Answer: Type 1S

609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement?

Answer: Type 1P

610. Type I is for general use such as

Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes

611. Type III cement is used for

Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength

612. Type IV is used for

Answer: massive structures such as dams

613. Type V cement is used for

Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high

614. The inventor of Portland cement was

Answer: Joseph Aspdin

615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing

Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica

616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is

Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker

617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called

Answer: volcanic earth

618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of

Answer: C3S and C2S

619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by

Answer: C3A and C4AF

620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed

Answer: hydration

621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland cement

Answer: water

622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means

Answer: the setting time is larger

623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s

Answer: alkalinity

624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from

Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel

625. The water required for concrete mix should be

Answer: fresh water

626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains

Answer: chloride

627. The entrapped air in concrete is

Answer: accidental and unwanted

628. The entrained air in concrete is

Answer: deliberate and desirable

629. We use aggregate in concrete as

Answer: filler materials in concrete

630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:

Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy

631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?

Answer:

calcium

chloride

coal

sulphate

632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength

633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of

the specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____

Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c

634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities

Answer: Colormatic Test

635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:

Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag

636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates

Answer: fineness modulus

637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates

Answer: free water

638. What do you mean by SSD?

Answer: Saturated Surface Dry

639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity

Answer: consistency

640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is

Answer: objectionable

641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as

Answer: Water – reducing admixture

642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments?

Answer: five (5)

643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure

Answer: bearing capacity

644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay

Answer: 2”

645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to

Answer: 0.1g

646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a

Answer: dessicator

647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass

Answer: 4 hours

648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the oven within

Answer: 1 hour

649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of

sample. A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about

Answer: 2 hours

650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above

Answer: Boring Test

651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil

Answer: calcium tri – chloride

652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is

Answer: low

653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement

Answer: hot – mix asphalt

654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk

Answer: 1.5 m

655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete

Answer: 0.50 – 0.60

656. A cement which has a cementitious effect

Answer: Portland cement

657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under these loads is reduced

Answer: Pre – stressing

658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials?

Answer: Phospho - molydate

659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05%

to 0.10%

Answer: phosphorous

660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement

Answer: 0.60 m

661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?

Answer:

± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)

± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)

662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?

Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)

663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained?

Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)

664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved?

Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced

665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients?

Answer: it will acquire strength

666. What is the mixing time of concrete?

Answer:

1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds

Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds

667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____

Answer: 1 ½ hours

668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?

Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining

669. When will truck mixing start?

Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added

15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present

670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or loader. Why?

Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete

671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation?

Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less

672. In the Classification of Soil, A-4 and A-5 means

Answer: SILTY SOILS

673. ________is a dark brown to black cementitious material produced by the destructive distillation bituminous coal.

Answer: Coal Tar

674. ___________ are cracks caused by a vertical and horizontal movement in the pavement beneath the overlay which brought on by expansion

and contraction with temperature or moisture changes.

Answer: Reflection Cracks

675. _____ transverse joint shall be constructed within 1.50m of an expansion joint, contraction joint and plane of weakness.

Answer: No

676. Final rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a __________.

Answer: 3-wheel or tandem type steel wheel roller.

677. ________ per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21” beam mold be rodded.

Answer: 63 Blows

678. _________is a test that requires calibrated sand in filling the hole in order to determine the volume of hole.

Answer: In-Situ Density or FDT

679. ,,___are kinds of asphalt that has a penetration grade of 60/70.

Answer: Hot Asphalt, Bituminous Cement, Asphalt Cement

680. Bituminous Concrete Surface Course mixes contain aggregates by weight equivalent to ___________

Answer : 92% to 95%.

681. ______________ is the other name of TRANSVERSE CONTRACTION JOINT

Answer: Weakened Plane Joints

682. Half portion of the dowel shall be coated or painted with ____________

Answer: A Coat Of Lead/Tar, A Bituminous Material And An Approved Lubricant.

683. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, the mixing time is _____________

Answer: Not Less Than 50 Seconds Nor More Than 90 Seconds.

684. __________________________will approved the Job-Mix Formula.

Answer: The DPWH Project Engineer And Materials Engineer

685. is a joint constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation.

Answer: Transverse Construction Joint

686. A 350m³ of bituminous mixture has been laid in a day’s full operation, specimen must be taken.

Answer: 3 ASPHALT CORES

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