PART-I: PHYSICS

1. Which of the following is the correct (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
expression of instantaneous acceleration? the Reason is a correct explanation of the
[New NCERT/XI/16] Assertion.
(1) a =
Δv
(2) 𝑎 =
𝑑𝑣 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
(Δt)2 𝑑𝑡
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
𝑑2𝑣 Δ𝑣 2
(3) 𝑎 = (4) 𝑎 = ( ) Assertion.
𝑑𝑡 2 Δ𝑡
2. Two wires 𝑨 and 𝑩 of the same material, (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
having radii in the ratio 𝟏: 𝟐 and carry currents incorrect.
in the ratio 𝟒: 𝟏. The ratio of drift speed of (4) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
electrons in A and B is [New NCERT/XII/86] 6. Consider a force 𝑭 ⃗⃗ = −𝒙𝒊ˆ + 𝒚𝒋ˆ. The work done
(1) 16: 1 (2) 1: 16 by this force in moving a particle from point
(3) 1: 4 (4) 4: 1 𝐀(𝟏, 𝟎) to 𝐁(𝟎, 𝟏) along the line segment is: (all
3. Three Charges 𝟐𝒒, −𝒒 and −𝒒 lie at vertices of quantities are in SI units) [New NCERT/XI/74]
a triangle. The value of 𝑬 and 𝑽 at centroid of
triangle will be- [New NCERT/XII/148]
(1) E ≠ 0 and 𝑉 ≠ 0 (2) E = 0 and V = 0
(3) E ≠ 0 and V = 0 (4) E = 0 and V ≠ 0
4. A particle of mass 𝒎 is moving with velocity
𝒗𝟏 , it is given an impulse such that the
velocity becomes 𝒗𝟐 . Then magnitude of
impulse is equal to [New NCERT/XI/55]
(1) 𝑚(𝑣⃗2 − 𝑣⃗1 ) (2) m(v⃗⃗1 − v⃗⃗2 ) (1) 2 J (2)
1
J
2
(3) 𝑚 × (𝑣⃗2 − 𝑣⃗1 ) (4) 0.5 m(v ⃗⃗2 − v ⃗⃗1 ) 3
(3) 1 J (4) J
5. In the light of the above statements-Assertion 2
& Reason, choose the most appropriate 7. Through two parallel wires A and 𝐁, 𝟏𝟎 𝐀 and 2
answer from the options given below: A of currents are passed respectively in
Assertion : The horizontal range is same when opposite directions. If the wire 𝑨 is infinitely
the angle of projection is greater than 𝟒𝟓∘ by long and the length of the wire 𝑩 is 𝟐𝒎, then
certain value and less than 𝟒𝟓∘ by the same force on the conductor 𝑩, which is situated at
value. 10 cm distance from A , will be
Reason: If 𝜽 = 𝟒𝟓∘ + 𝜶, then [New NCERT/XII/123]
𝒖𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧⁡ 𝟐(𝟒𝟓∘ + 𝜶) 𝒖𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬⁡ 𝟐𝜶 (1) 8 × 10−7 N (2) 8 × 10−5 N
𝑹𝟏 = = (3) 4 × 10−7 N (4) 4 × 10−5 N
𝒈 𝒈
𝒖𝟐 𝐬𝐢𝐧⁡ 𝟐(𝟒𝟓∘ −𝜶) 𝒖𝟐 𝐜𝐨𝐬⁡ 𝟐𝜶 8. Metals getting magnetised by orientation of
If 𝜽 = 𝟒𝟓∘ − 𝜶, then 𝑹𝟐 = =
𝒈 𝒈 atomic magnetic moments in external
[New NCERT/XI/39, 40] magnetic field are called
[New NCERT/XII/148]
 (1) diamagnetic (2) paramagnetic (3) height of the liquid column
(3) ferromagnetic (4) antimagnetic (4) directions
9. Eddy currents are produced when 16. Two satellites of masses 𝒎𝟏 and 𝒎𝟐 (𝒎𝟏 > 𝒎𝟐 )
[New NCERT/XII/218] are revolving round the earth in circular orbits
(1) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field of radii 𝒓𝟏 and 𝒓𝟐 (𝒓𝟏 > 𝒓𝟐 ) respectively. Which
(2) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field of the following statements is true regarding
(3) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field their velocities 𝒗𝟏 and 𝒗𝟐 ?
(4) Through a circular coil, current is passed [New NCERT/XI/137]
10. Which of the following is not a dimensionless (1) 𝑣1 = 𝑣2 (2) 𝑣1 < 𝑣2
quantity? [New NCERT/XI/7] (3) 𝑣1 > 𝑣2
𝑣 𝑣
(4) ( 1 ) = ( 2)
𝑟2 𝑟2
(1) Relative magnetic permeability (𝜇r )
17. Two point charges placed in a medium of
(2) Power factor
dielectric constant 5 are at a distance 𝒓
(3) Permeability of free space (𝜇0 )
between them, experience an electrostatic
(4) Quality factor
force ' 𝑭 '. The electrostatic force between
11. A car moves at a speed of 𝟐𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 on a banked
them in vacuum at the same distance 𝒓 will
track and describes an arc of a circle of radius
be- [New NCERT/XII/7]
𝟒𝟎√𝟑 𝐦. The angle of banking is (𝐠 = 𝟏𝟎 𝐦𝐬 −𝟐 )
(1) 5 F (2) F
[New NCERT/XI/64]
(3) F/2 (4) 𝐹/5
(1) 25∘ (2) 60∘
18. A stone of mass 𝒎 is tied to a string of length
(3) 45∘ (4) 30∘
𝓵 and rotated in a circle with a constant speed
12. If two equal masses (𝒎𝟏 = 𝒎𝟐 ) collide
v , if the string is released the stone flies
elastically in one dimension, where 𝒎𝟐 is at
[New NCERT/XI/42]
rest and 𝒎𝟏 moves with a velocity 𝒖𝟏 , then the
(1) radially outward
final velocities of two masses are
(2) radially inward
[New NCERT/XI/84]
(3) tangentially outward
(1) 𝑉1 = 0; 𝑉2 = 𝑢1 (2) V1 = V2 = 0
(4) with an acceleration 𝑚𝑣 2 /ℓ
(3) 𝑉1 = 0 and 𝑉2 = −𝑢1 (4) V1 = −u1 ; V2 = 0
19. The energy required to charge a parallel plate
13. The mass per unit length of a non - uniform
condenser of plate separation 𝒅 and plate area
rod of length 𝑳 varies as 𝒎 = 𝝀𝒙 where 𝝀 is
of cross-section 𝑨 such that the uniform
constant. The centre of mass of the rod will be
electric field between the plates is 𝑬, is
at ; [New NCERT/XI/97]
2 3
[New NCERT/XII/74]
(1) 𝐿 (2) 𝐿 1
3 2 (1) 𝜖0 𝐸 2 Ad (2) 𝜖0 ⁡𝐸 2 Ad
1 4 2
(3) 𝐿 (4) 𝐿 1
𝜖 𝐸2 ∈0 𝐸 2
2 3 2 0
(3) (4)
14. The figure shows a planet in elliptical orbit Ad Ad

around the sun 𝑺. Where is the kinetic energy 20. A particle has an initial velocity 𝟑𝒊ˆ + 𝟒𝒋ˆ and an
of the planet maximum? [New NCERT/XI/129] acceleration of 𝟎. 𝟒𝒊ˆ + 𝟎. 𝟑𝒋ˆ. Its speed after 10
sec is [New NCERT/XI/37]
(1) 7√2 units (2) 7 units
(3) 8.5 units (4) 10 units
21. A cell of internal resistance 𝒓 is connected
across an external resistancenr. Then the
(1) 𝑃1 (2) 𝑃2 ratio of the terminal voltage to the emf of the
(3) 𝑃3 (4) 𝑃4 cell is [New NCERT/XII/94]
1 1
15. Liquid pressure depends upon (1) (2)
𝑛 𝑛+1
[New NCERT/XI/182, 183] 𝑛 𝑛−1
(3) (4)
(1) area of the liquid surface 𝑛+1 𝑛

(2) shape of the liquid surface

22. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil (1) increase by 250 J (2) decreases by 250 J
of radius 𝒓, through which a current 𝑰 flows is (3) increases by 50 J (4) decreases by 50 J
[New NCERT/XII/116] 29. In the energy band diagram of a material
(1) directly proportional to 𝑟 shown below, the open circles and filled
(2) inversely proportional to 𝐼 circles denote holes and electrons
(3) directly proportional to 𝐼 respectively. The material is
(4) directly proprotional to 𝐼 2 [New NCERT/XII/326]
23. If both the number of turns and core length of
an inductor is doubled keeping other factors
constant, then its selfinductance will be-
[New NCERT/XII/168]
(1) Unaffected (2) doubled
(3) halved (4) quadrupled
24. If wattless current flows in the AC circuit,
then the circuit is [New NCERT/XII/187]
(1) Purely Resistive circuit (1) an insulator
(2) Purely Inductive circuit (2) a metal
(3) LCR series circuit (3) an n-type semiconductor
(4) RC series circuit only (4) a p-type semiconductor
25. Identify the logic operation performed by the 30. Match Column I with Column II.
given circuit : [New NCERT/XII/491] [New NCERT/XII/27, 50, 51, 62]
Column I
(A) Inside a conductor placed in an external
electric field.
(B) At the centre of a dipole
(C) Dipole in stable equilibrium
(1) AND gate (2) OR gate (D) Electric dipole perpendicular to uniform
(3) NOR gate (4) NAND gate electric field.
26. Drops of liquid of density 𝝆 are floating half (1) (A) → (2); (B) → (4); (C) → (3); (D) → (1)
immersed in a liquid of density 𝝈. If the (2) (A) → (2); (B) → (3); (C) → (4); (D) → (1)
surface tension of liquid is 𝑻, the radius of the (3) (A) → (2); (B) → (3); (C) → (1); (D) → (4)
drop will [New NCERT/XI/194] (4) (A) → (1); (B) → (3); (C) → (4); (D) → (2)
3𝑇 6𝑇
(1) √ (2) √ 31. Which principle is involved in the experiment
𝑔(3𝑝−𝜎) 𝑔(2𝜌−𝜎)
to determine the specific heat of a liquid by
3𝑇 3𝑇
(3) √ (4) √ the method of mixture?
𝑔(2𝜌−𝜎) 𝑔(4𝜌−3𝜎)
[XI/Practical Skills]
27. If 𝜶, 𝜷 and 𝜸 are coefficient of linear, area and
(1) Heat gained by solid = Heat lost by colorimeter
volume expansion respectively, then
and liquid.
[New NCERT/XI/207]
(2) Heat lost by solid = Heat gained by calorimeter
(1) 𝛾 = 3𝛼 (2) 𝛼 = 3𝛾
and liquid.
(3) 𝛽 = 3𝛼 (4) 𝛾 = 3𝛽
(3) Heat lost by solid and liquid = Heat gained by
28. A gas is compressed from a volume of 𝟐 𝐦𝟑 to
calorimeter.
a volume of 𝟏 𝐦𝟑 at a constant pressure of
(4) Heat gained by solid and calorimeter = Heat
𝟏𝟎𝟎 𝐍/𝐦𝟐 . Then it is heated at constant
lost by liquid.
volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a
32. The 𝑷-V diagram of a gas system undergoing
result, the internal energy of the gas:
cyclic process is shown here. The work done
[New NCERT/XI/229]
during isobaric compression is
[New NCERT/XI/235]
 38. The displacement vs time of a particle
executing SHM is shown in figure. The initial
phase 𝝓 is [New NCERT/XI/264]

(1) 100 J (2) 200 J

(3) 600 J (4) 400 J 𝜋 3𝜋
(1) −𝜋 < 𝜙 < − (2) 𝜋 < 𝜙 <
33. The given 𝑷 − 𝑽 curve is predicted by 2 2
3𝜋 𝜋
[New NCERT/XI/247] (3) − < 𝜙 < −𝜋 (4) <𝜙<𝜋
2 2
39. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by
drawing out some gas, the mean-free path of
the molecules [New NCERT/XII/255]
(1) is decreased
(2) is increased
(3) remains unchanged
(4) increases or decreases according to the nature
of the gas
(1) Boyle's law (2) Charle's law 40. Given below are two statements: In the light
(3) Avogadro's law (4) Gaylussac's law of the given statements, choose the correct
34. The refracting angle of a prism is 𝑨 and answer from the options given.
refractive index of the material of the prism is Statement I : The electric bulbs glows
𝐜𝐨𝐭⁡(𝐀/𝟐). Then the angle of minimum immediately when switch is on.
deviation will be [New NCERT/XII/240] Statement II : The drift velocity of electrons
(1) 180 − 2 A (2) 90 − A in a metallic wire is very high.
(3) 180 + 2 A (4) 180 − 3 A [New NCERT/XII/86, 88]
35. A slit of width 𝒂 is illuminated by red light of (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
wavelength 𝟔𝟓𝟎𝟎Å. If the first minimum falls (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
at 𝜽 = 𝟑𝟎∘ , the value of a is (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
[New NCERT/XII/267] incorrect.
(1) 6.5 × 10 mm
−4
(2) 1.3 micron (4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
(3) 3250Å (4) 2.6 × 10−4 cm incorrect.
36. Sodium and copper have work functions 2.3 41. Which statement is true for Gauss law-
eV and 4.5 eV respectively. Then the ratio of [New NCERT/XII/29]
the wavelengths is nearest to (1) All the charges whether inside or outside the
[New NCERT/XII/281] gaussian surface contribute to the electric flux.
(1) 1: 2 (2) 4: 1 (2) Electric flux depends upon the geometry of the
(3) 2: 1 (4) 1: 4 gaussian surface.
37. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr's (3) Gauss theorem can be applied to non-uniform
postulates the product of linear momentum electric field.
and angular momentum is proportional to (𝒏)𝒙 (4) The electric field over the gaussian surface
where ' 𝒏 ' is the orbit number. Then ' 𝒙 ' is remains continuous and uniform at every point.
[New NCERT/XII/299] 42. Given below are two statements: In the light
(1) 0 (2) 2 of the given statements, choose the correct
(3) -2 (4) 1 answer from the options given.
 Statement I: The surface charge densities of small resistance 𝑹𝟐 , two identical
two spherical conductor of different radii are galvanometers 𝑮𝟏 and 𝑮𝟐 , and a variable
equal. Then electric field intensity near their voltage source 𝑽. The correct circuit to carry
surfaces are also equal. out the experiment is
Statement II : Surface charge density is equal [XII/Practical Skills]
to charge per unit area.
[New NCERT/XII/14, 28]
(1) Both statement I and II are correct.
(2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
incorrect. (1) (2)
(4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
incorrect.
43. The speed of light in media ' 𝑨 ' and ' 𝑩 ' are
𝟐. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦/𝐬 and 𝟏. 𝟓 × 𝟏𝟎𝟏𝟎 𝐜𝐦/𝐬
respectively. A ray of light enters from the
(3) (4)
medium 𝑩 to 𝑨 at an incident angle ' 𝜽 '. If the
45. If a proton and an electron have same de-
ray suffers total internal reflection, then
Broglie wavelength, then
[New NCERT/XII/230]
3 2 [New NCERT/XII/285]
(1) 𝜃 = sin−1 ⁡ ( ) (2) 𝜃 > sin−1 ⁡ ( ) (1) both have same kinetic energy
4 3
3 3
(3) 𝜃 < sin ⁡ ( )
−1
(4) 𝜃 > sin ⁡ ( )
−1 (2) proton has more K.E. than electron
4 4
44. To verify Ohm's law, a student is provided (3) electron has more K.E. than proton
with a test resistor 𝑹𝑻 , high resistance 𝑹𝟏 , a (4) both have same velocity

PART-II: CHEMISTRY

46. An electron from one Bohr stationary orbit (1) Both statement I and II are correct.
can go to next higher orbit (2) Both statement I and II are incorrect.
[New NCERT/XI/46] (3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
(1) by emission of electromagnetic radiation incorrect.
(2) by absorption of any electromagnetic radiation (4) Statement II is correct but statement 𝐼 is
(3) by absorption of electromagnetic radiation of incorrect.
particular frequency 49. An 𝒔𝒑𝟑 -hybrid orbital contains
(4) without emission or absorption of [New NCERT/XI/122]
electromagnetic radiation (1) 25%𝑠-character (2) 75% s-character
47. Which one of the following is not correct for (3) 50%𝑠-character (4) 25%𝑝-character
an ideal solution? [New NCERT/XII/13] 50. Which of the following statements about
(1) It must obey Raoult's law galvanic cell is incorrect [New NCERT/XII/33]
(2) Δ𝐻 = 0 (1) anode is positive
(3) Δ𝐻 = Δ𝑉 ≠ 0 (2) oxidation occurs at the electrode with lower
(4) All are correct reduction potential
48. Statement I: Grignard reagents are prepared (3) cathode is positive
in ethers but not in benzene. (4) reduction occurs at cathode
Statement II: Grignard reagents are soluble in
benzene. [New NCERT/XII/180]
51. Identify the method by which 𝐌𝐞𝟑 𝐂𝐂𝐎𝟐 𝐇 can be (1) primary alcohol
prepared [New NCERT/XII/46] (2) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(1) Treating 1 mol of MeCOMe with 2 moles of (3) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols
MeMgI. (4) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
(2) Treating 1 mol of MeCO2 Me with 3 moles of 58. Which of the following properties of glucose
MeMgI . cannot be explained by its open chain
(3) Treating 1 mol of MeCHO with 3 moles of structure? [New NCERT/XII/283]
MeMgI . (i) Glucose does not form hydrogen sulphite with
(4) Treating 1 mol of dry ice with 1 mole of NaHSO3
Me3 CMgI. (ii) On oxidation with HNO3 glucose gives
52. Amphoteric oxide among the following is saccharic acid.
[Old NCERT/XI/319] (iii) Glucose is found to exist in two different
(1) B2 O3 (2) Ga 2 O3 crystalline forms which are named as 𝛼 and 𝛽.
(3) In2 O3 (4) Tl2 O3 (iv) On reaction with bromine water glucose gives
53. Preparation of Lyophobic sols by chemical gluconic acid.
method involves- [Practical Chemistry] (v) On heating with HI , glucose forms n-hexane.
(1) double decomposition (1) (ii) only (2) (i) and (iii)
(2) oxidation & reduction (3) (ii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (v)
(3) hydrolysis 59. Which of the following pairs constitutes a
(4) All of these buffer? [New NCERT/XI/202-203]
54. Which of the following will give a pair of (1) NaOH and NaCl (2) HNO3 and NH4 NO3
enantiomers? [New NCERT/XII/126] (3) HCl and KCl (4) HNO2 and NaNO2
(1) [Cr(NH3 )6 ][Co(CN)6 ] (2) [Co(en)2 Cl2 ]Cl 60. Assertion : Bond angle of 𝐇𝟐 𝐒 is smaller than
(3) [Pt(NH3 )4 ][PtCl6 ] (4) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ]NO2 𝐇𝟐 𝐎.
(en = NH2 CH2 CH2 NH2 ) Reason : Electronegativity of the central atom
55. Which has maximum number of molecules? increases, bond angle decreases.
[New NCERT/XI/18] [Old NCERT/XII/188]
(1) 7 g N2 (2) 2 gH2 (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
(3) 16 gNO2 (4) 16 gO2 the Reason is a correct explanation of the
56. Assertion : A process is called adiabatic if the Assertion.
system does not exchange heat with the (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
surroundings. Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Reason : It does not involve increase or Assertion.
decrease in temperature of the system. (3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
[New NCERT/XI/138] incorrect.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
the Reason is a correct explanation of the correct.
Assertion. 61. Which one of the following esters is obtained
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but by the esterification of propan-2-ol with
Reason is not a correct explanation of the ethanoic acid? [New NCERT/XII/251]
Assertion. (1) (CH3 )2 CHCOOCH3 (2) CH3 COOCH2 CH3
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is (3) CH3 COOCH(CH3 )2 (4) (CH3 )2 CHCOOCH2 CH3
incorrect. 62. By which reaction ethene is obtained from
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is ethyne? [New NCERT/XI/309]
correct. (1) oxidation (2) polymerisation
57. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except (3) hydrogenation (4) dehydrogenation
ethene leads to the formation of 63. Which of the following elements form basic
[New NCERT/XII/199] oxide? [New NCERT/XI/94]
 (1) Aluminium (2) Carbon (1) Borax bead test (2) Flame test
(3) Nitrogen (4) Magnesium (3) Brown ring test (4) Permangante test
64. Hinsberg's method to separate amines is based 70. Which of the following carboxylic acid can be
on the use of [New NCERT/XII/271] esterified most readily? [New NCERT/XII/251]
(1) benzene sulphonyl chloride (1) CH3 COOH (2) (CH3 )2 CHCOOH
(2) benzene sulphonic acid
(3) ethyl oxalate
(4) acetyl chloride (3) (CH3 )2 CCOOH (4)
65. Which one of the following is NOT a ligand ? 71. Which of the following sets of quantum
[New NCERT/XII/121] numbers is correct for an electron in 𝟒𝒇
(1) PH3 (2) NO+ orbital? [New NCERT/XI/56]
1
(3) Na +
(4) F − (1) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +1, 𝑠 = +
2
66. Which one of the following is ethyl-4- (2) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 4, 𝑚 = −4, 𝑠 = −
1
2
(dimethyl amino) butanoate? 1
[New NCERT/XI/267] (3) 𝑛 = 4, 𝑙 = 3, 𝑚 = +4, 𝑠 = +
2
1
(4) 𝑛 = 3, 𝑙 = 2, 𝑚 = −2, 𝑠 = +
2
72. Assertion : The order of a reaction can have
(1)
fractional value.
Reason : The order of a reaction cannot be
written from balanced equation of a reaction.
[New NCERT/XII/68]
(2) (1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and
the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) (2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but
Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is
(4)
(𝟏) incorrect.
67. If the equilibrium constant for 𝑨 ⇌ 𝑩 + 𝑪 is 𝑲𝒆𝒒
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is
(𝟐)
and that of 𝐁 + 𝐂 ⇌ 𝐏 is 𝐊 𝐞𝐪 , the equilibrium correct.
constant for 𝐀 ⇌ 𝐏 is : [New NCERT/XI/176] 73. An ether is more volatile than an alcohol
(1)
Keq (2) (1) having the same molecular formula. This is
(1) (2) (2) K eq − K eq
Keq due to [New NCERT/XII/204]
(1) (2)
(3) K eq + K eq
(1)
(4) 𝐾𝑒𝑞 𝐾𝑒𝑞
(2) (1) dipolar character of ethers
68. Statement 𝐈: 𝐇𝐟 has greater density than Zr . (2) alcohols having resonance structures
Statement II : Lanthanoid contraction is (3) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in ethers
responsible for similar radi of Hf and Zr .3 (4) inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in alcohols
[New NCERT/XII/109] 74. The oxidation number of sulphur in
(1) Both statement I and II are correct. 𝐒𝟖 , 𝐒𝟐 𝐅𝟐 , 𝐇𝟐 𝐒 respectively, are
(2) Both statement 𝐼 and II are incorrect. [New NCERT/XI/240]
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is (1) 0, +1 and -2 (2) +2, +1 and -2
incorrect. (3) 0, +1 and +2 (4) −2, +1 and -2
(4) Statement II is correct but statement I is 75. The vapour pressure at a given temperature of
incorrect. an ideal solution containing 0.2 mol of a non-
69. Which of the following is not a preliminary volatile solute and 0.8 mol of solvent is 60 mm
test used to detect ions? [Practical Chemistry]
 of Hg . The vapour pressure of the pure solvent (l) [Ti(en)2 (NH3 )2 ]4+
at the same temperature is (2) [Cr(NH3 )6 ]3+
[New NCERT/XII/16] (3) [Zn(NH3 )6 ]2+
(1) 150 mm of Hg (2) 60 mm of Hg (4) [Sc(H2 O)3 (NH3 )3 ]3+
(3) 75 mm of Hg (4) 120 mm of Hg (At. no. Zn = 30, Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Cr = 24 )
76. Match Column-I with Column-II. 80. A compound does not react with 2,4
[New NCERT/XII/210, 213, 215] dinitrophenylhydrazine, the compound is :
Column-I [New NCERT/XII/240]
(A) Reimer-Tiemann reaction (1) Acetone (2) Acetaldehdye
(B) Kolbe's reaction (3) CH3 OH (4) CH3 CH2 COCH3
(C) Williamson's synthesis 81. In neutral or faintly alkaline medium, 𝐊𝐌𝐧𝐎𝟒
(D) Conversion of 2∘ alcohol to ketone being a powerful oxidant can oxidize,
Column-II thiosulphate almost quantitatively, to
(p) Conversion of phenol to 𝑜-hydroxysalicylic sulphate. In this reaction overall change in
acid oxidation state of manganese will be :
(q) Conversion of phenol to salicylaldehyde [New NCERT/XII/108]
(r) Heated copper at 573 K (1) 5 (2) 1
(s) Reaction of alkyl halide with sodium alkoxide (3) 6 (4) 3
(1) A − (s), B − (r), C − (q), D − (p) 82. The IUPAC name of diethyl isopropyl amine is
(2) A − (q), B − (s), C − (p), D − (r) [New NCERT/XII/260-261]
(3) A − (q), B − (p), C − (s), D − (r) (1) N, N-diethylpropan-2-amine
(4) A − (r), B − (q), C − (p), D − (s) (2) N, N-diethylpropan-1-amine
77. An ideal gas expands in volume from 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 (3) N, N-diethylisopropylamine
to 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 𝐦𝟑 at 300 K against a constant (4) N, N-diethylaminopropane
pressure of 𝟏 × 𝟏𝟎𝟓 𝐍𝐦−𝟐 . The work done is 83. Identify the alkyne in the following sequence
[New NCERT/XI/141] of reactions.
(1) 270 kJ (2) -900 kJ
(3) -900 J (4) 900 kJ
Wacker
78. Assertion : Lone pair-lone pair repulsive Process
𝐁 ⁡ 𝐂𝟐 𝐇𝟒
interactions are greater than lone pair-bond only

pair and bond pair-bond pair interactions. [New NCERT/XI/309, 313, 317]
Reason : The space occupied by lone pair (1) H3 C − C ≡ C − CH3
electrons is more as compared to bond pair (2) H3 C − CH2 − C ≡ CH
electrons. [Practical Chemistry] (3) H2 C = CH − C ≡ CH
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and (4) HC ≡ C − CH2 − C ≡ CH
the Reason is a correct explanation of the 84. Consider the following statements:
Assertion. [New NCERT/XII/74, 77, 79]
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but (i) Increase in concentration of reactant
Reason is not a correct explanation of the increases the rate of a zero order reaction.
Assertion. (ii) Rate constant 𝒌 is equal to collision
(3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is frequency 𝑨 if 𝑬𝒂 = 𝟎.
incorrect. (iii) Rate constant 𝒌 is equal to collision
(4) If the Assertion is incorrect and Reason is frequency 𝑨 if 𝑬𝒂 = ∞.
correct. (iv) 𝐥𝐧⁡ 𝒌 vs 𝑻 is a straight line.
79. Which of the following complex ions is (v) 𝐥𝐧⁡ 𝒌 vs 𝟏/𝑻 is a straight line.
expected to absorb visible light? Correct statements are
[New NCERT/XII/133] (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (v)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iii)
85. In the borax bead test of 𝐂𝐨𝟐+ , the blue colour cathode
of bead is due to the formation of (D) Electrons flow from Zn rod to Cu -rod
[Practical Chemistry] (1) A − (q), B − (s), C − (r), D − (p)
(1) B2 O3 (2) Co3 B2 (2) A − (r), B − (p), C − (q), D − (s)
(3) Co(BO2 )2 (4) CoO (3) A − (s), B − (r), C − (q), D − (p)
86. Consider the ions/molecule 𝐎+ − 𝟐−
𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 , 𝐎𝟐 (4) A − (s), B − (q), C − (p), D − (r)
For increasing bond order the correct option 89. The best method for the separation of
is : [New NCERT/XI/126] naphthalene and benzoic acid from their
(1) O2−
2 < O−
2 < O2 < O+
2 mixture is: [New NCERT/XI/279]
(2) O− 2−
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
+ (1) distillation (2) sublimation
(3) O2 < O2 < O2 < O2
− 2− + (3) chromatography (4) crystallization
(4) O− + 2−
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
90.
87. Consider the reaction, 𝟐 𝐀 + 𝐁 → products.
When concentration of 𝑩 alone was doubled,
the half-life did not change. When the
concentration of 𝑨 alone was doubled, the rate
increased by two times. The unit of rate
constant for this reaction is Consider the above reaction sequence, the
[New NCERT/XII/103] Product ' 𝑪 ' is : [New NCERT/XII/238]
(1) s −1
(2) Lmol−1 s −1
(3) no unit (4) molL−1 s −1
88. Match the Column-I (functioning of Daniel
cell) with Column-II (value of 𝐄ext ) and choose
the correct option. [New NCERT/XII/32] (1) (2)
Column-I
(A) Flow of electrons from Cu to Zn and current
flows from Zn to Cu
(B) No flow of electrons or current
(3) (4)
(C) Zn dissolves at anode and copper deposits at

PART-III: BIOLOGY

91. In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked C Epigynous

together by [New NCERT/XII/81] D. Staminode
(1) glycosidic bonds (1) A-II; B-I; C-III; D-IV
(2) phosphodiester bonds (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(3) peptide bonds (3) A − III; B − II; C − I; D − IV
(4) hydrogen bonds (4) A-II; B-III; C-I; D-IV
92. Match column I with column II and choose the 93. If both parents are carriers for thalassemia,
correct combination from the options given which is an autosomal recessive disorder,
below. [New NCERT/XI/63] what are the chances of pregnancy resulting
Column-I in an affected child?
A. Hypogynous (1) No chance (2) 50%
B. Perigynous (3) 25% (4) 100%
94. Statement-I: The main purpose of cellular (1) net primary productivity
respiration is to convert energy stored in the (2) gross secondary productivity
chemical bonds of glucose to an energy that (3) net secondary productivity
the all can use. (4) gross primary productivity
Statement-II: It is purely a catabolic process. 100. Match the items given in column-I with their
[New NCERT/XI/154] examples given in column-II and choose the
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct option given below.
incorrect [New NCERT/XI/20]
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Column-I Column-II
incorrect (Items) (Examples)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is A. Ovary I. Fruit
correct B. Ovule II. Guava, orange, mango
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct C. Wall of ovary III. Pericarp
95. Which pigment acts directly to convert light D. Fleshy fruits IV. Seed
energy to chemical energy? (1) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
[New NCERT/XI/137] (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(1) Chlorophyll-a (2) Chlorophyll-b (3) A-I; B-III; C-II;D-IV
(3) Xanthophyll (4) Carotenoid (4) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II
96. Assertion (A): Meiosis II is known as 101. What is the shape of exponential growth?
equational or homotypic division. [New NCERT/XII/194]
Reason (R): Meiosis II produces same number (1) J-shaped population growth
of chromosome in cell. [New NCERT/XI/127] (2) Z -shaped population growth
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) S -shaped population growth
correct explanation of (A) (4) All of the above
(2) (A) is correct but ( R ) is not correct 102. Assertion (A): Neurospora is commonly used in
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct biochemical and genetic work.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the Reason ( 𝐑 ): It belongs to basidomycetes
correct explanation of (A) fungi. [New NCERT/XI/18]
97. The total sum of all the chemical reactions (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
occurring in our body is known as: correct explanation of (A)
[Old NCERT/XI/5] (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(1) metabolism (2) growth (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(3) regeneration (4) reproduction (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
98. Which of the following statements are correct correct explanation of (A)
? [New NCERT/XI/73] 103. Sacred groves are found in
(i) Xylem transports water and minerals. [New NCERT/XII/225]
(ii) Gymnosperms lack sieve tubes and (1) Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya.
companion cells in phloem. (2) Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan.
(iii) The first formed primary xylem is called (3) Western ghat regions of Karnataka and
metaxylem. Maharashtra and Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar
(iv) Phloem fibres (bast fibres) are made up of areas of Madhya Pradesh.
collenchymatous cells. (4) All of the above
(v) Root hairs help absorb water and glucose. 104. Grass is a member of family ⁡ .
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (ii) [In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv) (1) Leguminosae (2) Graminae
99. The rate at which light energy is converted (3) Compositae (4) Malvaceae
into chemical energy of organic molecules is 105. Meiosis in diploid organisms results in
the ecosystem's [New NCERT/XII/207] [New NCERT/XI/125]
 (1) production of gametes C. Tailing
(2) reduction in the number of chromosomes D. Coding strand
(3) introduction of variation (1) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
(4) All of the above (2) A − II; B − IV; C − III; D − I
106. Match the following list of microbes and their (3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D - III
importance. [New NCERT/XII/151, 153] (4) A − III; B - II; C-IV; D-I
Column-I 111. Chemotaxonomy is connected with
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae [New NCERT/XI/24]
B. Monascus Purpureus (1) classification of chemicals found in plants.
C. Trichoderma polysporum (2) uses the chemical constituent of plant for
D. Propionibacterium IV. Production of blood classification.
sharamanii (3) application of chemicals on herbarium sheets.
Column-II (4) use of statistical methods in chemical yielding
I. Production of immunosuppressive agents plants.
II. Ripening of Swiss cheese 112. Statement I: RuBISCO has a similar affinity
III. Commercial production of ethanol for both 𝐂𝐎𝟐 and 𝐎𝟐 .
III. Production of blood cholestrol lowering agents Statement II: RuBISCO is the most abundant
(1) A − IV; B − III; C − II; D − I protein present on earth.
(2) A − IV; B − II; C − I; D − III [New NCERT/XI/143-144]
(3) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(4) A − III; B − IV; C − I; D − II incorrect
107. Plastids storing fat are called (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
[New NCERT/XI/97] incorrect
(1) Elaioplasts (2) Sphaerosomes (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(3) Aleuroplasts (4) Pyrenoids correct
108. Assertion (A): Both at the root apex and the (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
shoot apex, the constantly dividing cells show 113. The point at which funicle touch the ovule is
the meristematic phase of growth. [New NCERT/XII/9]
Reason ( 𝐑 ): The cells of this region are rich (1) chalaza (2) hilum
in protoplasm and lacks nuclei. (3) raphe (4) endothelium
[New NCERT/XI/168] 114. Match the terms given in column-I with their
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the examples given in column-II and choose the
correct explanation of (𝐴) correct option [New NCERT/XI/12-15]
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct Column-I Column-II
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct A. Ascus I. Blue-green algae
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the B. Basidium II. Penicillium
correct explanation of (A) C. Protista III. Agaricus
109. A scar on the seed coat through which the D. Cyanobacteria IV. Euglena
developing seeds are attached to the fruit is (1) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D - II
called as ⁡ -. [New NCERT/XI/66] (2) A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV
(1) testa (2) tegmen (3) A-II, B - IV, C - III, D - I
(3) hilum (4) micropyle (4) A − II, B − III, C − IV, D − I
110. Match column-I with column-II and select the 115. Vessels are found in [Old NCERT/XI/87]
correct combination from the given options. (1) all angiosperms and some gymnosperms.
[New NCERT/XII/95] (2) the presence of vessels is a characteristic
Column-I feature of angiosperms.
A. Sigma factor (3) all angiosperms, all gymnosperms and some
B. Capping
 pteriodophyta. (1) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D-II
(4) all pteridophyte (2) A − II; B − I; C − IV; D − III
116. Which of the following statement is/are the (3) A - III; B-II; C-I; D-IV
correct about the events in aerobic (4) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV
respiration? [New NCERT/XI/158] 119. Crossing over occurs between
(i) The complete oxidation of pyruvate by the [New NCERT/XI/126]
stepwise removal of all the hydrogen atoms, (1) sister chromatids of homologous
leaving three molecules of O2 . chromosomes.
(ii) The reactions catalyzed by pyruvic (2) non-sister chromatids of homologous
dehydrogenase require participation of several chromosomes.
coenzymes. (3) sister chromatids of non-homologous
(iii) The passing on of the electrons removed as chromosomes.
part of the hydrogen atoms to molecular O2 with (4) non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
simultaneous synthesis of ATP. chromosomes.
(iv) Kreb's cycle is also called as Tricarboxylic acid 120. Which one of the following is an incorrect
cycle. statement regarding mutations?
(v) Pyrvate must enter in matrix of mitochondria. [New NCERT/XII/72]
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv) (1) Deletion and insertion of base pairs cause
(3) (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) (4) (ii), (iv) and (v) frameshift mutations.
117. Statement I: When ovules are born on central (2) Cancer cells commonly show chromosomal
axis, it is called axile placentation aberrations.
Statement II: In parietal placentation, the (3) UV and gamma rays are mutagens.
ovules develop on the outer wall of the ovary. (4) Change in a single base pair of DNA does not
[New NCERT/XI/65] cause mutation.
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 121. Statement I: Mitochondria and chloroplast are
incorrect semiautonomous organelles.
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is Statement II: Mitochondria and chloroplast
incorrect are formed by division of pre-existing
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is organelles and they contain DNA but lack
correct protein synthesizing machinery.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct [New NCERT/XI/133]
118. Match the symbols used in human pedigree (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
analysis (given in column-I) with their name incorrect
(given in column-II) and choose the correct (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
option. [New NCERT/XII/72] incorrect
Column-I (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct
A. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
122. Mustard belong to family ⁡ .
[In Syllabus, Not in NCERT/XI]
B.
(1) Brassicaceae (2) Compositae
C. (3) Malvaceae (4) Graminae
123. Match the columns and identify the correct
option. [New NCERT/XI/95, 97, 98, 100]
Column I Column II
(A) Thylakoids (i) Disc-shaped sacs in
D.
Golgi apparatus
(B) Cristae (ii) Condensed structure
 of DNA [New NCERT/XI/139]
(C) Cisternae (iii) Flat membranous (i) It is photolysis of water which provides
sacs in stroma 𝐇 + ions for synthesis of NADPH.
(D) Chromatin (iv) Infoldings in (ii) It provides electrons for
mitochondria photophosphorylation & activation of NADP ⁡+ .
(A) (B) (C) (D) (iii) 𝐎𝟐 is evolved during this process.
(1) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iv) It replenishes 𝐎𝟐 consumed by living
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) beings and combustion.
(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v) Splitting of water create oxygen.
(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (1) One (2) Two
124. Which of the following statement of a bacterial (3) Three (4) All
cell is/are correct? 129. Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in
[New NCERT/XI/90] eukaryotes) is [New NCERT/XII/96]
(i) Mesosome is formed by the extensions of (1) GUA (2) GCA
plasma membrane into the cell. (3) CCA (4) AUG
(ii) The pili are elongated tubular structures made 130. The formation of interfascicular cambium in
up of a protein. plant is due to:- [New NCERT/XI/172]
(iii) Flagellum is composed of filament, hook and (1) Non-differentiation (2) Re-differentiation
basal body. (3) Differentiation (4) De-differentiation
(iv) Ribosomes are about 15 nm by 20 nm in size. 131. "𝐆𝟎 " state of cells in eukaryotic cell cycle
(v) Bacteria have a chemically complex cell denotes [New NCERT/XI/122]
envelope. (1) check point before entering the next phase.
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (v) (2) pausing in the middle of a cycle to cope with a
(2) All of the above temporary delay.
(3) (ii) and (iv) (3) death of a cell.
(4) None of the above (4) exit of cells from cell cycle.
125. Assertion (A): During DNA replication both the 132. Which of the following statements are
parental strand act as template for the correct? [New NCERT/XII/74-76]
synthesis of new daughter strand. (i) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
Reason (R): The Okazaki fragment are formed (ii) Down's syndrome is due to aneuploidy.
on the parent strand which runs in 𝟓′ → 𝟑′ (iii) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal dominant
direction and proves discontinuous strand gene disorder.
synthesis. [New NCERT/XII/90-91] (iv) Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the gene disorder.
correct explanation of (A) (1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i),(ii) and (iii)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 133. No. of carbons in the primary 𝐂𝐎𝟐 fixation
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the product of 𝐂𝟒 plant is [New NCERT/XI/145]
correct explanation of (𝐴) (1) 2 (2) 3
126. Formation of seeds (individuals) without (3) 4 (4) 5
fusion is called⁡ - [New NCERT/XII/23] 134. Which stages of cell division do the following
(1) fertilization (2) pollination figures 𝑨 and 𝑩 represent respectively?
(3) apomixis (4) amphimixis [New NCERT/XI/123-124]
127. ABA acts antagonistic to [New NCERT/XI/177]
(1) ethylene (2) cytokinin
(3) gibberellic acid (4) IAA
128. Which of the following statements (i-iv)
regarding "Splitting of water" is/are correct?
 [New NCERT/XI/240, 241, 246]
Column-I Column-II
A. Hypothalamus I. Estrogen
B. Anterior pituitary II. FSH and LH
C. Testis III. Testosterone
D. Ovary IV. Gonadotropin
Fig. A Fig. B releasing hormone
(1) Metaphase - Telophase (1) A − IV; B − II; C − III; D − I
(2) Telophase - Metaphase (2) A − I; B − III; C − II; D − IV
(3) Late Anaphase - Prophase (3) A − I; B − II; C − IV; D − III
(4) Prophase - Anaphase (4) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II
135. Assertion (A): Taxon and category are different 140. Assisted reproductive technology, IVF
things. involves transfer of [New NCERT/XII/47-48]
Reason (R): Taxonomic category shows (1) Ovum into the fallopian tube.
hierarchical classification. [New NCERT/XI/6] (2) Zygote into the fallopian tube.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (3) Zygote into the uterus.
correct explanation of (A) (4) Embryo with 16 blastomeres into the fallopian
(2) (A) is correct but (𝑅) is not correct tube.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct 141. The cortical region of the kidney has
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the [New NCERT/XI/208]
correct explanation of (𝐴) (1) malpighian corpuscle
136. Statement I: Neanderthal man is the (2) PCT
intermediated between Ramapithecus and (3) DCT
Homo erectus. (4) All the above
Statement II: Neanderthal man, with brain 142. Mother-foetus Rh blood type incompatibility
size of 800 cc used hides to protect their body. disorder can occur if the mother is ⁡ and her
[New NCERT/XII/125] foetus is ⁡ . [New NCERT/XI/196]
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (1) Rh positive; Rh positive
incorrect (2) Rh positive; Rh negative
(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is (3) Rh negative; Rh positive
incorrect (4) Rh negative; Rh negative
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 143. Statement I: Cold blooded animals are
correct poikilothermous.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct Statement II: They lack the capacity to
137. All the following amino acids are aromatic, regulate their body temperature.
except [New NCERT/XI/106] [New NCERT/XI/48]
(1) tyrosine (2) phenylalanine (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
(3) tryptophan (4) valine incorrect
138. Cartilaginous rings in respiratory passage are (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
present in [New NCERT/XI/184] incorrect
(1) Trachea only (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) Trachea and initial part of bronchi only correct
(3) Trachea, bronchi and initial bronchioles only (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(4) Trachea, bronchi and all bronchioles 144. In cockroach, the testes are present in
139. Column-I lists the endocrine structure and [Old NCERT/XI/114]
column-II lists the corresponding hormones. (1) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments
Match the two columns and identify the (2) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments
correct option given below.
 (3) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments 149. When a person is suffering from poor renal
(4) 6,7,8 abdominal segments reabsorption, which one of the following will
145. Match the column-I with column-II and select not help in maintenance of blood volume?
the correct option. Match from the options [New NCERT/XI/212]
given below [New NCERT/XII/32] (1) increased ADH secretion.
Column-I Column-II (2) decreased glomerular filtration.
A. Primary oocyte I. It is formed when (3) increased arterial pressure in kidneys.
oogonia starts division (4) decreased arterial pressure in kidneys.
and temporarily 150. Select the correct match of the techniques
arrested at phase of given in column I with its feature given in
meiosis I. column II. [New NCERT/XII/48]
B. Secondary oocyte II. Rupture to release Column I
ovum from the ovary. A. ICSI
C. Primary follicle III. A large number of B. IUI
these degenerate during C. IUT
the phase from puberty D. GIFT
to birth. (1) A − II; B − IV; C − I; D - III
D. Graafian follicle IV. Gamete mother cell. (2) A − I; B − II; C − III; D − IV
(1) A -I; B - II; C - III; D - IV (3) A − III; B − I; C − II; D − IV
(2) A − III; B − I; C − IV; D − II (4) A - III; B-I; C - IV; D – II
(3) A-II; B-IV; C-I; D - III 151. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by
(4) A − II; B − IV; C - III; D-I radiation than normal cells because they are
146. In which part of the heart SA node is present [New NCERT/XII/141]
(1) sinus-venosus [New NCERT/XI/199] (1) non-dividing
(2) interatrial septum (2) starved of mutation
(3) right atrium (3) different in structure
(4) atrioventricular septum (4) undergoing rapid division
147. Refer the given equation and answer the 152. Which of the following statements (i-iv) are
question. correct. [New NCERT/XI/168, 169, 175]
𝟐(𝐂𝟓𝟏 𝐇𝟗𝟖 𝐎𝟔 ) + 𝟏𝟒𝟓𝐎𝟐 ⟶ 𝟏𝟎𝟐𝐂𝐎𝟐 + 𝟗𝟖𝐇𝟐 𝐎 + (i) In elution, the separated bands of DNA are cut
Energy out from agarose gel and extracted from the gel
The R.Q of above reaction is piece.
[New NCERT/XI/164] (ii) E. coli cloning vector pBR 322 shows several
(1) 1 (2) 0.7 restriction Ori, antibiotic resistance genes and
(3) 1.45 (4) 1.62 rop.
148. Select the hormones produced in women only (iii) The downstream processing and quality
during pregnancy control testing vary from product to product.
[New NCERT/XII/37] (iv) Competent bacterial cell cannot take up the
(i) Estrogen plasmid.
(ii) Human chronic gonadotroph (1) All of the above (2) None of the above
(iii) Progesterone (3) (i), (ii), and (iii) (4) Only (iv)
(iv) Human placental lactogen 153. C-peptide of human insulin is
(v) Relaxin [New NCERT/XII/182]
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) a part of mature insulin molecule
below: (2) responsible for the formation of disulphide
(1) (ii) and (iv) only (2) (ii) and (v) only bridges
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (ii), (iv) and (v) only (3) removed during maturation of pro-insulin to
 insulin (2) A-I; B-IV; C-III, D-II
(4) responsible for its biological activity (3) A-I; B-IV; C-II, D-III
154. Which of the following statement (s) is/are (4) A-IV; B-I; C-III, D-II
correct? [Old NCERT/XI/103-104] 158. Which one of the following is used as vector
(i) Loose connective tissue contains fibroblasts, for cloning genes into higher organisms?
macrophages and mast cells. [New NCERT/XIL/170]
(ii) Adipose tissue is a type of dense connective (1) Baculovirus
(2) Salmonella typhimurriam
tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
(3) Rhizopnes nigricans
(iii) Tendons and ligaments are examples of dense (4) Retrovirus
irregular connective tissue. 159. Elbow joint is an example of
(iv) Cartilage, bones and blood are various types [New NCERT/XI/227]
of specialized connective tissue. (1) hinge joint
(1) Only (i) (2) Both (ii) and (iv) (2) gliding joint
(3) Both (i) and (iii) (4) (i), (iii) and (iv) (3) ball and socket joint
155. Adaptive radiation refers to: (4) pivot joint
160. Assertion (A): Organ transplantation patients
[New NCERT/XII/117]
are given immunosuppressive drugs.
(1) power of adaptation in an individual to a Reason (R): Transplanted tissue has antigens
variety of environments. which stimulate the specific immune response
(2) adaptations due to Geographical isolation. of the recipient. [New NCERT/XIL/136]
(3) evolution of different species from a common (I) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
ancestor. correct explanation of (A)
(4) migration of members of a species to different (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
geographical areas. (3) (A) is not correct but ( 𝑅 ) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
156. Amoebiasis is caused by
correct explanation of (A)
[New NCERT/XII/132] 161. Tying up or removing a small part of fallopian
(1) Plasmodium vivax duct is called [New NCERT/XIL/45]
(2) Entamoeba gingivalis (1) vasectomy
(3) Trypanosoma gambiense (2) ductus arteriosus
(4) Entamoeba histolytica (3) archidectomy
157. Match the following columns. (4) tubectomy
[New NCERT/XI/187] 162. In a frog, if a hole is punched in the floor of its
buccal cavity, then the frog will not die as
Column-I Column-II
[New NCERTIXI/80]
(Respiratory Capacity) (Description) (1) buccal respiration does not stop
A. Inspiratory I. Total air, a person can (2) respiration other than lungs will continue
Capacity (IC) inspire after normal (3) it can store oxygen for future use
expiration (4) pulmonary respiratory occurs
B. Expiratory Capacity II. Maximal volume of
(EC) the air, a person can 163. Statement I: GMO reduces the nutritional
Breathe in after a forced value of food.
Expiration Statement II: GMO increases the post
C. Functional Residual III. Volume of the air harvesting losses. [New NCERT/XII/179]
Capacity (FRC) remain in lungs after (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
a normal expiration incorrect
D. Vital Capacity (VC) IV. Total volume of air, (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
a person can expire incorrect
after a normal (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
inspiration correct
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III, D-IV (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
164. Which of the following is acting as an artificial Pneumonia Streptococcus
kidney in haemodialysis? (2) Droplet
pneumoniae Infection
[New NCERT/XII/213]
(1) dialysing liquid (2) dialyser Infected
Wuchereria
(3) bubble trap (4) blood pump (3) Elephantiasis water and
bancrofti
165. An enzyme catalysing the removal of food
nucleotides from the ends of DNA is
[New NCERT/XII/166] Bite of
Plasmodium male
(1) endonuclease (2) exonuclease (4) Malaria
(3) DNA ligase (4) Hind II vivax Anopheles
mosquito
166. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
correct regarding class aves? 169. Which phase of menstrual cycle is also called
[New NCERT/XI/49] secretory phase? [New NCERT/XII/34]
(i) The forelimbs are modified into wings and the (1) Luteal (2) Ovulatory
hindlimbs generally have scales and are modified (3) Follicular (4) Menstruation
for walking, swimming or clasping the tree 170. Which of the following is/are involved in
branches. limbic system? [New NCERT/XI/236]
(ii) Heart is completely four-chambered. (1) Inner part of cerebral hemisphere
(iii) They are warm- blooded (homoiothermous) (2) Amygdala
animals i.e., they are able to maintain a constant (3) Hippocampus
body temperature. (4) All of the above
(iv) They are oviparous and development is direct. 171. Statement I: The uterine cells divide rapidly
(1) Both (i) and (iii) (2) Both (i) and (iv) and covers the blastocyst.
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) All of these Statement II: The blastomeres continues to
167. Assertion (A): Nicotine stimulates adrenal divide and transforms into blastocyst.
gland to release adrenaline. [New NCERT/XII/36]
Reason (R): Adrenaline raises blood pressure (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
and increases heart rate. incorrect
[New NCERT/XII/144] (2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the incorrect
correct explanation of (𝐴) (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct (4) Statement II is correct but statement I is
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the incorrect.
correct explanation of (𝐴) 172. A file like rasping organ for feeding, called
168. Which one of the following option gives the radula, present in the phylum ⁡ .
correct matching of a disease with its [New NCERT/XI/44]
causative organism and mode of infection. (1) arthropoda (2) mollusca
[New NCERT/XII/130-131] (3) echinodermata (4) chordata
173. Match the name of scientists listed under
Causative Mode of
Disease column I with the ideas listed under column
Organisms Infection
II. [New NCERT/XII/111, 119]
With Column I Column II
Salmonella
(1) Typhoid inspired A. Darwin I. Abiogenesis
typhii
air B. Oparin II. Use and disuse of organs
C. Lamarck III. Worked in Malay Archipelago
D. Wallace IV. Evolution by natural selection
(1) A − I, B − IV, C - II, D - III
 (2) A - IV, B-I, C - II, D - III II. Recognition sites commonly used for
(3) A - II, B-IV, C - III, D-I restriction enzymes
(4) A - IV, B - III, C - II, D – I III. Sequence from where replication starts
174. Sympathetic nervous system IV. DNA staining
[New NCERT/XI/202] Choose the correct answer from the options given
(1) controls heartbeat below
(2) increases heartbeat (1) A-IV, B - III, C - II, D - I
(3) decreases heartbeat (2) A − I, B − II, C - III, D - IV
(4) not related to heartbeat (3) A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV
175. Identify the incorrect statements. (4) A - III, B - I, C - II, D – IV
[New NCERT/XI/209] 178. Dissociation curve shifts to the right when
(i) Reabsorption of water occurs passively in the [New NCERT/XI/189]
initial segment of nephron. (1) pH increases.
(ii) Nitrogenous waste are absorbed by active (2) CO2 concentration increases.
transport. (3) O2 concentration decreases.
(iii) Conditional reabsorption of Na + and water (4) 2, 3 D-P-G decreases.
takes place in DCT. 179. Assertion (A): Lipids are generally insoluble in
(iv) DCT reabsorbs glucose. water.
(v) DCT is capable of selective secretion of Reason (R): Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon
H + , K + and NH3 to maintain pH and Na+ K + , balance atoms including the carboxyl carbon.
in blood. [New NCERT/XI/106]
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (iii) and (iv) (1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
(3) (iv) and (v) (4) (ii) and (iv) correct explanation of (A)
176. Which of the following has the ability to (2) (A) is correct but (𝑅) is not correct
transform normal cells into cancerous cells in (3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
animals? [New NCERT/XII/170] (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(1) Agrobacterium tumefaciens correct explanation of (A)
(2) Retroviruses 180. Which of the following statements are
(3) DNA-viruses correct? [New NCERT/XI/231]
(4) Plasmids (i) Somatic nervous system- Conducts impulses
177. Match the features that are required to from CNS to skeletal muscles.
facilitate cloning of alien DNA into a vector (ii) Autonomic nervous system- Conduct
[New NCERT/XII/169] impulses from CNS to internal organ muscles.
Column - I (iii) Central nervous system- Consists of brain
(Features to facilitate) and spinal cord
A. Origin of replication (ori) (iv) Visceral nervous system-Consists of nerves
B. Selectable Marker carrying impulses to brain and spinal cord only
C. Vectors for cloning genes in plants (1) Only (ii) and (iii)
D. Ethidium bromide (2) Only (iii) and (iv)
Column - II (3) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(Cloning Vector) (4) All of these
I. Agrobacterium tume faciens
 KEY ANSWERS
TEST BOOKLET CODE T 3
PHYSICS
1 (2) 6 (3) 11 (4) 16 (2) 21 (3) 26 (3) 31 (1) 36 (3) 41 (4)
2 (1) 7 (2) 12 (1) 17 (1) 22 (3) 27 (1) 32 (4) 37 (1) 42 (1)
3 (3) 8 (2) 13 (1) 18 (3) 23 (2) 28 (1) 33 (1) 38 (1) 43 (4)
4 (1) 9 (1) 14 (4) 19 (1) 24 (2) 29 (4) 34 (1) 39 (2) 44 (3)
5 (1) 10 (3) 15 (3) 20 (1) 25 (1) 30 (2) 35 (2) 40 (3) 45 (3)
CHEMISTRY
46 (3) 51 (4) 56 (3) 61 (3) 66 (4) 71 (1) 76 (3) 81 (4) 86 (1)
47 (3) 52 (2) 57 (2) 62 (3) 67 (4) 72 (2) 77 (3) 82 (1) 87 (2)
48 (3) 53 (4) 58 (2) 63 (4) 68 (1) 73 (4) 78 (1) 83 (1) 88 (2)
49 (1) 54 (2) 59 (4) 64 (1) 69 (3) 74 (1) 79 (2) 84 (2) 89 (2)
50 (1) 55 (2) 60 (3) 65 (3) 70 (1) 75 (3) 80 (3) 85 (3) 90 (4)
BIOLOGY
91 (2) 100 (1) 109 (3) 118 (4) 127 (3) 136 (1) 145 (2) 154 (1) 163 (1) 172 (2)
92 (4) 101 (1) 110 (2) 119 (2) 128 (4) 137 (4) 146 (3) 155 (3) 164 (2) 173 (2)
93 (3) 102 (2) 111 (2) 120 (4) 129 (4) 138 (3) 147 (2) 156 (4) 165 (2) 174 (2)
94 (4) 103 (4) 112 (3) 121 (2) 130 (2) 139 (1) 148 (4) 157 (2) 166 (4) 175 (4)
95 (1) 104 (2) 113 (2) 122 (1) 131 (4) 140 (2) 149 (3) 158 (4) 167 (1) 176 (2)
96 (4) 105 (4) 114 (4) 123 (1) 132 (4) 141 (4) 150 (4) 159 (1) 168 (2) 177 (3)
97 (1) 106 (4) 115 (2) 124 (2) 133 (3) 142 (3) 151 (4) 160 (1) 169 (1) 178 (2)
98 (2) 107 (1) 116 (3) 125 (1) 134 (3) 143 (4) 152 (3) 161 (4) 170 (4) 179 (1)
99 (4) 108 (2) 117 (1) 126 (3) 135 (4) 144 (2) 153 (3) 162 (4) 171 (2) 180 (3)

DETAILED SOLUTIONS

1. (2)
2. (1) Current flowing through the conductor, I =
4 nevd1 𝜋(1)2 vd1 4×1 16
nevA. Hence = or = = .
1 nevd2 𝜋(2)2 vd2 1 1

3. (3) Net E F I at G ≠ 0
Net Potential at G
K2Q KQ KQ
V= − − =0 4. (1) Impulse = change in momentum = 𝑚v
⃗ 2 − mv
⃗1
r r r
u2 sin⁡ 2𝜃
5. (1) R = ⁡ If 𝜃 = 45∘ + 𝛼
g
𝑢2 sin⁡ 2(45∘ +𝛼) 𝑢2 sin⁡(90∘ +𝛼) 𝑢2 cos⁡ 𝛼
then 𝑅1 = = = If 𝜃 =
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔
 45∘ − 𝛼 then 𝑅2 =
𝑢2 sin2 ⁡(45∘ −𝛼)
=
𝑢2 sin⁡(90∘ −𝛼)
= 18. (3) In uniform circular motion, the body move
𝑔 𝑔
with 𝑣𝑇 (tangential velocity) & a C . If a C = 0 then it
𝑢2 cos⁡ 𝛼
𝑔
⁡ ∴ 𝑅1 = 𝑅2 implies that the body is no longer bound to rotate
6. ⃗⃗⃗⃗ = (−𝑥𝑖ˆ + 𝑦𝑗ˆ) ⋅ (𝑑 × 𝑖ˆ +
(3) Work done, 𝑊 = ∫ 𝐹 ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 in circle & so no change in the direction of
𝑑𝑦𝑗ˆ) velocity. Hence it move tangentially to the circle
0 1
1 1 outward with velocity vT .
⇒ 𝑊 = − ∫ 𝑥𝑑𝑥 + ∫ 𝑦𝑑𝑦 = (0 + ) + = 1𝐽
1 0 2 2
𝜇0 2I1 I2
7. (2) F = × ℓ
4𝜋 r
−7
10 × 2 × 10 × 2
= × 2 = 8 × 10−5 N
0.1
8. (2) 19. (1) Energy required to charge the capacitor is
9. (1) 𝑊 = 𝑈 = 𝑄𝑉
10. (3) As 𝐵 = 0
𝜇 𝑖 𝜀0 𝐴 2 𝜀0 𝐴𝑑 2
2𝜋𝑟 ⁡⇒ 𝑈 = 𝐶𝑉 2 = ⋅ 𝑉 = 2 ⋅ 𝑉 = 𝜀0 𝐸 2 Ad
𝐵 × 2𝜋𝑟 𝑁 𝑚 𝑁 𝑑 𝑑
[𝜇0 ] = [ ]=[ × ] = [ 2 ] = 𝑀𝐿𝑇 −2 𝐴−2
𝐼 𝐴𝑚 𝐴 𝐴 𝑉
Clearly, m0 is not a dimensionless quantity. [∵ 𝐸 = ]
𝑑
𝑣2 202 1
11. (4) Angle of banking is tan⁡ 𝜃 = = = 20. (1) 𝑢
⃗ = 3𝑖ˆ + 4𝑗ˆ ⇒ 𝑢𝑥 = 3 and 𝑢𝑦 = 4
𝑟𝑔 40√3×10 √3
12. (1) In an elastic collision 𝑎 = 0.4𝑖ˆ + 0.3𝑗ˆ ⇒ 𝑎𝑥 = 0.4 and 𝑎𝑦 = 0.3
(𝑚1 − 𝑚2 ) So, 𝑉𝑥 = 𝑢𝑥 + 𝑎𝑥 𝑡 = 3 + 0.4 × 10 = 3 + 4 = 7
𝑉1 = 𝑢 𝑉𝑦 = 𝑢𝑦 + 𝑎𝑦 𝑡 = 4 + 0.3 × 10 = 4 + 3 = 7
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 1
2𝑚1 𝑢1 ⃗ = 7𝑖ˆ + 7𝑗ˆ ⇒ |𝑉
𝑉 ⃗ | = √72 + 72 = 7√2 units
𝑉2 =
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 21. (3) Internal resistance = 𝑟, External resistance =
2𝑚1 𝑣1
∴ if 𝑚1 = 𝑚2 , then 𝑉1 = 0; and 𝑉2 = = 𝑢1 𝑛𝑟.
2𝑚1
𝐿 Let terminal voltage = V
𝐿 (𝑑𝑚)𝑥 ∫0 (𝜆𝑥𝑑𝑥)𝑥 2𝐿
13. (1) 𝑋cm = ∫0 𝐿 = 𝐿 = 𝐸𝑟
then 𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟 ⇒ 𝑉 = 𝐸 − (𝑛+1)𝑟
∫0 (𝑑𝑚) ∫0 (𝜆𝑥𝑑𝑥) 3

14. (4) Angular momentum of the planet about 𝑆 is nE V n

V=
⇒ =
conserved. So, 𝑚𝑣𝑟 = constant. n+1 E n+1
𝑣 is maximum when 𝑟 is minimum. 22. (3) Field at the center of a circular coil of radius 𝑟
So, 𝑣 is maximum at point 𝑃4 . Hence K.E. is is
maximum at 𝑃4 . 𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵=
15. (3) Liquid pressure depends upon the height of 2𝑟
N2
liquid column and is independent of the shape of 23. (2) L = 𝜇0 A
𝑙
liquid surface and the area of liquid surface. The (2 N) 2
N2
liquid at rest exerts equal pressure in all L′ = 𝜇0 A = 2𝜇0 A=2L
2𝑙 𝑙
directions. 24. (2) Wattless current flow in a circuit only when
𝐺𝑀 circuit is resistanceless i.e. circuit is purely
16. (2) Since 𝑣0 ( orbital velocity ) = √
𝑟 capacitive or inductive.
𝑣01 𝑟
So = √ 2 ⇒ 𝑣01 < 𝑣02 ∵ 𝑟1 > 𝑟2 25. (1) 𝐴 + 𝐴 + 𝐵 + 𝐵 = 𝐴‾ + 𝐵‾ = 𝐴‾ ⋅ 𝐵‾ = 𝐴 ⋅ 𝐵 ⇒ AND
𝑣02 𝑟1
Gate
17. (1)

Q1 𝑄2 force in the charges in the air is

1 Q1 Q 2
F′ = = KF = 5 F
4𝜋𝜀0 r 2
26. (3) 𝑇 × 2𝜋𝑟 + 𝑚𝑔 = 𝐹b 40. (3)
4
4 3
𝜋𝑟 41. (4) All other statements except (iv) are in correct.
or 𝑇 × 2𝜋𝑟 + 𝜌 𝜋𝑟 3 𝑔 = [ 3
] 𝜎𝑔
3 2 The electric field over the Gaussian surface
remains continuous and uniform at every point.
3𝑇
∴ ⁡𝑟 = √ 𝑞1 𝑟12
𝑔(2𝜌 − 𝜎) 42. (1) = ⁡ [Let 𝑟1 and 𝑟2 be two different radii] so,
𝑞2 𝑟22
E1 q1 4𝜋𝜀0 r2
2 q1 r2
2
= ⋅ ⇒ × =1
E2 4𝜋𝜀0 r2
1 q2 q2 r2
1
so 𝐸1 = 𝐸2
43. (4) We know that critical angle is given by
𝜇
sin⁡ 𝐶 = 𝑟 and
𝜇𝑑
1 𝜇𝑟 𝑣𝑑 1.5 × 1010 3
𝜇∝ ⇒ = = =
27. (1) 𝑉 + Δ𝑉 = (𝐿 + Δ𝐿)3 = (𝐿 + 𝛼𝐿Δ𝑇)3 𝑉 𝜇𝑑 𝑣𝑟 2 × 1010 4
= 𝐿3 + (1 + 3𝛼Δ𝑇 + 3𝛼 2 Δ𝑇 2 + 𝛼 3 Δ𝑇 3 ) 3
So, sin⁡ 𝐶 = ⇒ 𝐶 = sin−1 ⁡ ( )
3
4 4
⇒ 𝛼 2 and 𝛼 3 terms are neglected.
Therefore, for TIR
∴ ⁡𝑉(1 + 𝛾Δ𝑇) = 𝑉(1 + 3𝛼Δ𝑇)
3
1 + 𝛾Δ𝑇 = 1 + 3𝛼Δ𝑇 𝜃 > 𝐶 ⇒ 𝜃 > sin−1 ( )
4
∴ 𝛾 = 3𝛼. 44. (3) (i) An ammeter is made by connecting a low
28. (1) As we know, resistance 𝑅2 in parallel with the galvanometer 𝐺2 .
ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW⁡ (Ist law of thermodynamics)
⇒ ⁡ΔQ = ΔU + PΔV
or 150 = ΔU + 100(1 − 2) = ΔU − 100
∴ ⁡ΔU = 150 + 100 = 250 J
29. (4) For a p-type semiconductor, the acceptor
energy level, as shown in the diagram, is slightly
(ii) A voltmeter is made by connecting a high
above the top 𝐸𝑣 of the volume band. With very
resistance 𝑅1 in series with the galvanometer 𝐺1 .
small supply of energy an electron from the
valence band can jump to the level EA and ionise
acceptor negatively.
30. (2) A → (2); B → (3); C → (4); D → (1) (iii) Voltmeter is connected in parallel with the
31. (1) test resistor 𝑅𝑇
32. (4) Isobaric compression is represented by curve (iv) Ammeter is connected in series with the test
𝐴𝑂 resistor 𝑅𝑇
Work done = area under AD (v) A variable voltage source 𝑉 is connected in
= 2 × 102 × (3 − 1) = 4 × 102 = 400 J. series with the test resistor 𝑅𝑇
33. (1) ℎ ℎ 𝑣𝑝 𝑚𝑒
45. (3) 𝜆 = = ; then 𝑚𝑝 𝑣𝑝 = 𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑒 or =
34. (1) 𝑚𝑝 𝑣𝑝 𝑚𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑣𝑒 𝑚𝑝

35. (2) According to principle of diffraction, a sin⁡ 𝜃 = 1 2 2

𝐸𝑝 2 𝑚𝑝 𝑣𝑝 𝑚𝑝 𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑒
n𝜆 where, n = order of secondary minimum = = ×( ) = <1
𝐸𝑒 1 𝑚 𝑣 2 𝑚𝑒 𝑚𝑝 𝑚𝑝
or, a sin⁡ 30∘ = 1 × (6500 × 10−10 ) 2 𝑒 𝑒

or, a = 1.3 × 10−6 m, or, a = 1.3 micron. ∴ ⁡ 𝐸𝑝 < 𝐸𝑒

(𝜆 ) (W0 )2
36. (3) hc/𝜆0 = W0 ; (𝜆0)1 = ( =
4.5
= 2: 1. 46. (3) Since the energy difference between two
0 2 W0 )1 2.3
consecutive Bohr orbits is quantized and the
37. (1)
energy of higher orbit is more than that of lower
38. (1) For 𝑥 = (−A), we have
𝜋 orbit, so an electron from one Bohr stationary
−A = Asin⁡(𝜔 × 0 + 𝜙0 ) or 𝜙0 = − .
2 orbit can go to next higher orbit by absorption of
So for 𝑥 < (−𝐴), 𝜙0 < (−𝜋/2). electromagnetic radiation of particular
39. (2) wavelength or frequency.
47. (3) For an ideal solution, Δ𝐻 = 0, Δ𝑉 = 0
Hence, option (3) is incorrect.
48. (3) Grignard reagents are soluble in ether but not
in benzene.
49. (1) Each 𝑠𝑝3 -hybrid orbital has 25%𝑠-character
and 75% 𝑝-character.
50. (1) Anode has negative polarity.
51. (4)
59. (4) HNO2 is a weak acid and NaNO2 is salt of that
weak acid and strong base (NaOH).
60. (3) Bond angle of H2 S(92∘ ) < H2 O(104∘ 31). As the
electronegativity of the central atom decreases,
bond angle decreases. In the present case, 𝑆 is
less electronegative than oxygen. Thus, bond
52. (2) Down the group basic character of oxides
pairs in H2 S are more away from the central atom
increases.
than in H2 O and thus repulsive forces between
bond pairs are smaller, producing smaller bond
B2 O3 -Acidic, Al2 O3 -Amphoteric,
Ga 2 O3 -Amphoteric, In2 O3 − Basic, ⁡Tl2 O3 − Basic angle.
53. (4) 61. (3)
54. (2) Non superimposable mirror images are called
optical isomers and may be described as "chiral'.
They are also called enantiomers and rotate plane
polarised light in opposite directions.

62. (3) Catalytic hydrogenation of ethyne in the

presence of hydrogen gas forms ethene.
63. (4) Magnesium (s-block element) is a metal and
55. (2) 2 g of H2 means one mole of H2 , hence contains forms basic oxide. Aluminium is also metal but
6.023 × 1023 molecules. Others have less than one forms amphoteric oxide which C and N form
mole, so have less no. of molecules. acidic oxide.
56. (3) It may involve increase or decrease in 64. (1) Hinsberg's method is based on the use of
temperature of the system. Systems in which benzene sulphonyl chloride.
such processes occur, are thermally insulated 65. (3) Na+ is not a ligand.
from the surroundings. 66. (4) The compound is an ester. Its IUPAC name is
57. (2) Reaction path follows the path of carbocation derived from alkyl alkanoate.
formation. (1)
67. (4) A ⇌ B + C; 𝐾eq
58. (2) To explain the properties which can not be (2)
explained by open chain structure of glucose it B + C ⇌ P; 𝐾eq
was proposed that one of the -OH groups may add On adding equations (i) and (ii), we get
to the -CHO group and forms a cyclic hemiacetal A⇌P
(1) (2)
structure as shown below. 𝐾eq ( overall ) = 𝐾eq ⋅ 𝐾eq
68. (1) Atomic mass of Hf is greater than that of Zr, Hf
is a series 3 metal, so for almost similar radius Hf
has greater density, Lanthanoid contraction is
responsible for almost similar radii.
69. (3) Brown ring test is not preliminary test. It is Ti = [Ar]3𝑑 2 4𝑠 2 ; Ti4+ = 3𝑑 0
confirmatory test. 5
Cr = [Ar]3𝑑 4𝑠 ; 1
Cr 3+ = 3𝑑 3
70. (1) Rate of esterification is, Zn = [Ar]3𝑑10 4𝑠 2 ; Zn2+ = 3𝑑10
1∘ alc > 2∘ alc > 3∘ alc Sc = [Ar]3𝑑1 4𝑠 2 ; Sc 3+ = 3𝑑 0
So, CH3 COOH will be esterified most readily. 80. (3) Only aldehydes and ketones react with 2,4-
71. (1) The possible quantum numbers for 4𝑓 dinitrophenylhydrazine.
electron are 𝑛 = 4, ℓ = 3, 𝑚 = −3, −2 − 1,0,1,2,3 and +7
𝑠=±
1
81. (4) 8MnO4− + 3 S2 O2−
3 + H2 O →
2 +4
Of various possiblities only option (1) is possible. 8MnO2 + 6SO2−
4 + 2OH
−

72. (2) The order of a reaction can have fractional Change in oxidation state of Mn is from +7 to +4
value. The order of a reaction can not be written i.e., 3 .
from balanced equation of a reaction because its 82. (1)
value changes with pressure, temperature and 83. (1)
concentration. It can only be determined
experimentally.
73. (4) Due to inter-molecular hydrogen bonding in
alcohols boiling point of alcohols is much higher
84. (2) According to Arrhenius equation, 𝑘 = 𝐴e−𝐸𝑎/𝑅𝑇
than ether.
∴⁡ when 𝐸𝑎 = 0, 𝑘 = 𝐴
74. (1) (i) Oxidation state of element in its free state
Also ln⁡ 𝑘 us 1/𝑇 is a straight line with slope =
is zero.
−𝐸𝑎 /𝑅.
(ii) Sum of oxidation states of all atoms in
∴ Statements (ii) and (v) are correct.
compound is zero.
85. (3) Co(BO2 )2 blue bead
O.N. of 𝑆 in 𝑆8 = 0; 𝑂. 𝑁. of 𝑆 in 𝑆2 𝐹2 = +1;
86. (1)
O.N. of 𝑆 in H2 S = −2;
75. (3) According to Raoult's law Number Number of
ion /
𝑝∘ − 𝑝 of 𝐞− e− Bond order
molecule
𝑝∘ in BMO in ABMO
.2 1
𝑥 = Mole fraction of solute = = O+ 10 5 2.5
= 𝑥𝐵 [ 𝐵 . 2 + .8 5] 2
𝑝 = 60 mm of Hg
𝑝∘ −𝑝 1
O2 10 6 2
= or 4𝑝 ∘ = (𝑝) × 5
𝑝∘ 5
60×5 O−
2 10 7 1.5
⇒ 𝑝∘ = = 75 mm of Hg
4
76. (3) O2−
2 10 8 1
77. (3) W = −PΔV = −105 (1 × 10−2 − 1 × 10−3 ) = −900 J Bond order: O2− − +
2 < O2 < O2 < O2
78. (1) While the lone pairs are localised on the 87. (2) Since doubling the concentration of 𝐵 does not
central atom, each bonded pair is shared between change half life, the reaction is of 1 st order w.r.t.
two atoms. As a result, the lone pair electrons in 𝐵.
a molecule occupy more space as compared to the Order of reaction with respect to 𝐴 = 1 because
bonding pairs of electrons. This results in greater rate of reaction doubles when concentration of 𝐴
repulsion between lone pairs of electrons as is doubled keeping concentration of 𝐵 constant.
compared to the lone pair -bond pair and bond ∴ Order of reaction = 1 + 1 = 2 and units of
pair - bond pair repulsions. second order reaction are Lmol−1 sec −1 .
79. (2) Since Cr 3+ in the complex has unpaired 88. (2) A − (r), B − (p), C − (q), D − (s)
electrons in the 𝑑 orbital, hence it will absorb 89. (2) Among the given compounds naphthelene is
visible light and will be coloured. volatile but benzoic acid is non-volatile (it forms a
dimer). So, the best method for their separation
 is sublimation, which is applicable to compounds 98. (2) The first formed primary xylem elements are
which can be converted directly into the vapour called protoxylem and the later formed primary
phase from its solid state on heating and back to xylem is called metaxylem. Phloem fibres (bast
the solid state on cooling. Hence it is the most fibres) are made up of sclerenchymatous cells.
appropriate method. 99. (4) Gross primary productivity of an ecosystem is
90. (4) the rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis.
100. (1) A-I; B-IV; C-III; D-II
101. (1) The shape of exponential growth is 𝐽-shaped.
102. (2) Neurospora belongs to class ascomycetes in
which ascospores are produced in sac like 'asci' .
Neurospora is commonly called as pink or red
bread mould. It can be grown easily in laboratory
conditions so, used in genetics experiments.
103. (4) A sacred grove or sacred wood is a grove of
trees of special religious importance to a
91. (2) In a DNA strand the nucleotides are linked particular culture.
together by 3'-5' phosphodiester linkage (bonds) 104. (2) Grass is a member of family graminae.
to form a dinucleotide. To form a polynucleotide 105. (4) Meiosis is a reduction division in which the
chain, more nucleotides can be joined. chromosomes number is reduced to half in
92. (4) A − II; B − III; C − I; D − IV gametes. It is a special kind of cell division in
93. (3) Thalassemia-autosomal-linked resessive which exchange of genetic material takes place,
AA-Normal that brings about variation in next generations.
Aa-Carrier Thus all the given options are characteristic
aa-Disease features of meiotic cell division.
Affected = 1/4 = 25% 106. (4)
94. (4) Both statements are correct. A. Saccharomyces Commercial
95. (1) Chlorophyll-a directly acts to convert light cerevisial production of ethanol
energy to chemical energy.
Production of blood
The other pigments chlorophyll-b, xanthophyll
B. Monascus purpureus cholestrol lowering
and carotenoids are accessory pigments
agents.
associated with the main pigment, i.e.,
chlorophyll-a harvest the light energy. Production of
96. (4) Meiosis II is known as equational or C. Trichoderma
immuno- suppressive
homotypic division like mitosis. It ensures the polysporum
agents.
maintenance of constant number of
chromosomes from generation to generation of a D. Propionibacterium- Ripening of swiss
species. 107. (1) Elaioplasts are a type of leucoplast that is
97. (1) Catabolism - breakdown of substances eg., specialized for the storage of lipids in plants.
Respiration Elaioplasts house oil body deposits as rounded
Anabolism - Formation of substances. eg., plastoglobuli, which are essentially fat droplets.
Photosynthesis. 108. (2) The root apex, shoot apex and many other
Catabolism + Anabolism = Metabolism. regions consists meristematic tissue. By mitotic
These are defining features of all life forms. divisions of the meristematic cells, new cells are
Simultaneous Catabolism and Anabolism called produced. These cells have cellulosic cell wall,
as Amphibolism. contain large nucleus and rich in protoplasm. It
 is called the phase of cell formation or cell 123. (1)
division. • Thylakoids - Flat membranous sacs in stroma
109. (3) Hilum is the scar on a seed marking the point • Cristae - Infoldings in mitochondria
of attachment of the developing seed vessel to the • Cisternae - Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus
fruit. • Chromatin - Condensed structure of DNA
110. (2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I 124. (2)
111. (2) 125. (1) The okazaki fragments are finally joined by the
112. (3) enzyme DNA ligase.
• RuBisCO has a much greater affinity for CO2 than 126. (3)
for O2 . This binding is competitive. 127. (3) 𝐴𝐵𝐴 acts antagonistic to gibberellic acid.
• It is the relative concentration of O2 and CO2 that 128. (4) All the statements regarding splitting of water
determines which of the two will bind to the is correct.
enzyme. In photosynthesis, water splitting donates
113. (2) The point at which funiculus touches the electrons to power the electron transport chain in
ovule is called hilum. Thus, hilum represents the photosystem II.
junction between the ovule and funiculus. 129. (4) AUG is the initiation codon of protein
114. (4) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I synthesis in eukaryotes. AUG always codes for
115. (2) The presence of vessels is a characteristic methionine in eukaryotes.
feature of angiosperm. 130. (2)
116. (3) 131. (4) When cells are not to divide after 𝐺1 phase and
117. (1) When the placenta is axial and the ovules are start undergoing differentiation into specific
attached to it in a multilocular ovary, the types of cells such cells are said to be in
placentation is said to be axile, as in china rose, 𝑮0 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒/𝐺0 state.
tomato and lemon. In parietal placentation, the 132. (4) Haemophilia is a sex-linked disease, which is
ovules develop on the inner wall of the ovary or marked in heterozygous condition. It is a
on peripheral part. Ovary is one-chambered but recessive character. Down's syndrome is due to
it becomes two chambered due to the formation aneuploidy which arises because of non-
of the false septum, e.g., mustard and Argemone. disjunction of two chromosomes of homologous
118. (4) A-III; B-I, C - II, D - IV pair. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive
119. (2) Crossing over is exchange of chromosomes disorder in which the homozygous recessive
segments between non-sister chromatids of individuals lacks the enzyme phenylalanine
homologous pair. It brings about gene hydroxylase needed to change phenylalanine to
recombination and also produces genetic tyrosine. Sickle cell anaemia is an autosome
variation. The chromatids are the unit of crossing linked recessive trait that can be transmitted
over. from parents to the offsprings when both the
120. (4) Change in single base pair of DNA is also a partners are carrier for the gene (or
type of mutations called point mutations. It is a heterozygous).
type of mutation that causes the replacement of 133. (3) Number of carbons in the primary CO2 fixation
a single base nucleotide with another nucleotide product of C4 plant is 4 . The C4 acid, oxaloacetic
of the genetic material, DNA or RNA. For example, acid (𝑂𝐴𝐴) is formed in the mesophilic cells.
a point mutation is the cause of sickle cell 134. (3) The figure A represents late anaphase while
disease. figure 𝐵 represents prophase stage of mitosis.
121. (2) Mitochondria & chloroplast are semi- 135. (4) A category is a rank or level in the hierarchial
autonomous cell organelle which are formed by classification of organisms. Taxon is a unit in
division of pre-existing organelle & contain DNA classification which may represent any level of
but they also contain protein synthesizing grouping of organisms based on certain common
machinery, thus (I) is true & (II) is false. characteristics. There is some confusion in the
122. (1) Mustard belong to family brassicaceae.
 use of taxon and category, for example Bryophyta 147. (2) The ratio of the volume of CO2 liberated to the
is a taxon while division is a category. volume of oxygen absorbed per molecule during
136. (1) respiration is called Respiratory Quotient (RQ).
137. (4) Aromatic amino acid possess cyclic structure The value of RQ indicates the types of respiratory
with a straight side chain bearing carboxylic and substrate.
amino group. Valine is a neutral amino acid. It Volume of CO2 evolved
RQ =
contains equal number of amino and carboxylic Volume of O2 consumed
groups. 102
𝑅𝑄 = = 0.7
138. (3) Cartilaginous rings in respiratory passage are 145
present in trachea, bronchi and initial 148. (4) Estrogen is produced at the time of puberty,
bronchioles only. human chorionic gonadotropin and human
139. (1) A-IV; B-II; C-III; D-I placental lactogen are
140. (2) IVF (In vitro Fertilization) is the process of produced only during pregnancy. Progesterone
fertilization by manually combining an egg and and oxytocin are produced at the time of puberty.
sperm in a laboratory dish. The process involves Human placental lactogen, human chorionic
monitoring and stimulating a woman's ovulatory gonadotropin and relaxin are produced only in
process, removing ovum or ova (egg or eggs) from pregnancy. Thyroxine is secreted by the thyroid
the woman's ovaries and letting sperm fertilise gland. So, the correct answer is 'human placental
them in a fluid medium in a laboratory. The lactogen, human chorionic gonadotropin and
fertilised egg relaxin. Hence, option D is correct.
(zygote) is cultured for 2-6 days in a growth 149. (3) The kidneys control plasma volume by
medium and is then transferred to the mother's controlling how much water a person excretes.
uterus with the intention of establishing a The plasma volume has a direct effect on the total
successful pregnancy. blood volume, which has a direct effect on one's
141. (4) The cortical region of the kidney has blood pressure. Salt (NaCl) will lead to osmosis;
malpighian corpuscle, PCT, DCT. the diffusion of water into the blood. When a
142. (3) In order for the foetus to be Rh positive, the person is suffering from poor renal reabsorption,
father must also be Rh positive. As a result, when increased arterial pressure in kidneys will not
the mother is Rh negative and the father is Rh help to maintain the blood volume.
positive (or his Rh type is unknown), doctors 150. (4) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II
usually assume that there will be a serious 151. (4) Cancer cells are more easily damaged by
medical problem. radiation than normal cells because they are
143. (4) Both the statements are correct. undergoing rapid division. Radiation is energy
144. (2) Testes are paired, 3-4 lobed, situated that's carried by waves or a stream of particles.
dorsolaterally in the 4th , 5th , 6th abdominal Radiation works by damaging the genes (DNA) in
segments. cells which control how cells grow and divide.
145. (2) A-III; B-I; C-IV; D-II When radiation damages the genes of cancer
146. (3) SA (sino-atrial) node is called the natural cells, they can't grow and divide any more. Over
pacemaker of the heart. It controls the heart rate time, the cells die. This means radiation can be
by generating electrical impulses and then used to kill cancer cells and shrink tumors.
sending them through the heart muscle, causing Radiation therapy is always a balance between
the heart to contract and pump blood throughout destroying the cancer cells and minimizing
the body. It is made up of a group of cells (called damage to the normal cells.
myocytes) and positioned on the wall of the right 152. (3) In order to force bacteria to take up the
atrium, at the centre of the heart and near the plasmid, the bacterial cells must first be made
entrance of the superior vena cava. These cells 'competent' to take up DNA.
contract at a rate of about 70-80 times per 153. (3) C-peptide or the connecting peptide is a short
minute, which make up the natural heartbeat. street of protein contains 31 amino acids. It
 connects the 𝐴 and 𝐵 chain of proinsulin hole is punched in the floor of its buccal cavity,
molecule. After the processing of proinsulin then the frog will not die.
molecule, C -peptide is removed leaving behind 𝐴 163. (1) GMO enhanced the nutritional value of food.
and 𝐵 chains which later bound together by It also help to reduces post harvesting losses.
disulphide bonds to constitute a mature insulin 164. (2) Haemodialysis is a method for removing waste
molecule. products such as creatinine and urea, as well as
154. (1) free water from the blood when the kidneys are in
155. (3) Adaptive radiation refers to evolution of kidney failure. The mechanical device used to
different species from a common ancestor. The clean the patient's blood is called a dialyser, also
mammals are adapted for different mode of life known as an artificial kidney.
i.e. they show adaptive radiation. They can be 165. (2) Restriction enzymes belong to a class of
aerial (bat), aquatic (whale and dolphins), enzymes called nucleases, which are of two types
burrowing or fossorial (rat), cursorial (horse), (i) Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the
scantorial (squarrel) or arboreal (monkey). The ends of the DNA.
adaptive radiation, the term by Osborn, is also (ii) Endonucleases cuts at specific position within
known as divergent evolution. the DNA.
156. (4) Amoebiasis (amoebic dysentery) is caused by DNA ligase is a sealing enzymes which is also
intestinal endoparasitic protozoan, Entamoeba called as genetic gums, which is responsible for
histolytica. Infection is transmitted by joining of two individual fragments of DNA,
contamination whereas Hind II is first discovered restriction
157. (2) A − I, B − IV, C − III, D – II endonuclease enzyme.
158. (4) Retrovirus has the ability to transform normal 166. (4) Aves are warm blooded, oviparous, bipedal
cells into cancerous cells. Hence, it can used as a flying vertebrates with an exoskeleton of feathers.
vector for cloning desirable genes into animal Forelimbs are modified as wings for flying and
cells. hind limbs are adapted for walking, perching and
159. (1) Elbow joint is an example of hinge joint. The swimming.
elbow is a hinge joint; it can open and close like 167. (1)
a door. Hinge joint is a form of diarthrosis (freely 168. (2) Pneumonia disease is spread by the organism
movable joint) that allows angular movement in Streptococcus pneumoniae and the mode of
one plane only, increasing or decreasing the angle infection is by droplet infection.
between the bones e.g. elbow joint, knee joint etc. 169. (1) Luteal phase of menstrual cycle is also known
160. (1) Success of organ transplant depends on as secretory phase.
proper matching of histocompatibility of antigens 170. (4) The inner parts of cerebral hemisphere and a
that occur in all cells of the body. As there are group of associated deep structures like
antigens which are likely to be attacked by amygdala, hippocampus form a complex
recipient's T-cells and antibodies, the recipient of structure and known as limbic system. So option
organ transplant is always given (4) is correct.
immunosuppressants to prevent immune 171. (2) After attachment, the uterine cells divide
rejection of the transplanted tissue. rapidly and cover the blastocyst. As a result, the
161. (4) In females, tubectomy's consider as the blastocyst becomes
permanant method for present of fortilization. embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. The
Eggs continuen to be produce but they fail to pass morula continues to divide and transforms into
into the uterus. In tubectomy, a small part of the blastocyst.
fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a 172. (2) The radula is an anatomical structure that is
small incision in the abdomen or through vagina. used by molluscs for feeding, sometimes
162. (4) In addition to buccopharyngeal respiration, compared rather inaccurately to a tongue. It is a
frog also respires through lungs (pulmonary minutely toothed, chitinous ribbon, which is
respiration). So, if a typically used for scraping or cutting food before
 the food enters the oesophagus. The radula is
unique to the molluses, and is found in every
class of mollusc except the bivalves.
173. (2) Darwin is related with evolution by natural
selection. According to the theory in the struggle
for existence, the individuals which have more
favourable variations will survive and reproduce,
while others, which have less favourable or
unfavourable variations will not puripetuate.
Oparin : Put forth abiogenesis theory.
According to abiogenesis : Life is originated from
the non-living things spontaneously.
Lamarck: Use and disuse of organs is one of the
important principle of Lamarckism.
Wallace : Worked in Malay Archipelago.
174. (2) Sympathetic nervous system increases
hearbeat.
175. (4) Nitrogenous waste are absorbed by passive
transport. Reabsorption of water also occurs
passively in the initial segment of nephron. DCT
reabsorbs Na+ , K + , H + , NH3 and water.
176. (2) Retrovirus is a virus composed of RNA.
Retroviruses have an enzyme, called reverse
transcriptase that gives them the unique property
of transcribing their RNA into DNA after entering
a cell. The retroviral DNA can then integrate into
the chromosomal DNA of the host cell, to be
expressed there. Most retroviruses can cause
cancer also.
177. (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
178. (2) When the relationship between the pO2 and
the percent saturation of haemoglobin is
represented on a graph, then it is termed as
oxygen - haemoglobin dissociation curve. A rise
in pCO2 , H + ions (fall in pH), temperature and
diphosphoglyceric acid raises the 𝑝50 value and
shifts the oxygen - dissociation curve to right or
vice versa.
179. (1) Both assertion and reason are correct but
reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
180. (3) The statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct while
the statement (iv) is incorrect.