JEE Advanced Sample Booklet PCM
JEE Advanced Sample Booklet PCM
INDEX
(i)
Physics
[Link]. Chapter Name
Booklet-1 Booklet-6
Booklet-5 Booklet-10
Solutions XII
Solutions XI
(ii)
Chemistry
[Link]. Chapter Name
Booklet-1 Booklet-6
(iii)
Mathematics
[Link]. Chapter Name
Booklet-1 Booklet-6
Booklet-2 Booklet-7
Booklet-3 Booklet-8
Booklet-4 Booklet-9
Solutions XI
Booklet-10
Solutions XII
(iv)
18 Current Electricity
This is called the law of quantisation of electric charge. experience repulsive force between them and conductor
Number of electrons flowing through a conductor in t allows movement of free electrons. Thus, free electrons are
I ´t evenly scattered throughout the volume of conductor. These
second is n =
e free electrons, transport electric charge so are called as
1 conduction electrons.
For 1 ampere of current, n = = 6.25 × 1018
1.6 ´ 10-19
electrons / second Behaviour of Conductors in Absence of Applied
Current density : It is defined as current flowing per unit Potential Difference
area held normal to direction of flow of current.
r ® ® (1) The free electrons present in a conductor gain energy
I nq
Current density J = = and current Ι = ò J . da from temperature of surrounding and move randomly
A At r
The direction of current density J is same as that of electric in a conductor.
r r
field E . J is a vector with S.I. unit amp/m2 and dimensions
[M0 L–2 T0 A]
If there are n particles per unit volume of a conductor, each
having a charge q and moving with velocity v then current (2) The speed gained by virtue of temperature is called as
through cross-sectional area A is I = Dq = nqvA thermal speed of an electron.
Dt
1 3
mv2rms = kT so thermal speed, of an electron,
Types of Electric Current 2 2
(a) Direct current : The current whose magnitude and
direction does not vary with time is called direct current 3kT
vrms = where m is mass of electron
(dc). The various sources of direct current m
are cells, dc dynamo etc.
At room temperature T = 300 K ; vrms = 105 m/sec.
It’s symbol is + –
(3) The average distance travelled by a free electron
(b) Alternating current : The current whose magnitude between two consecutive collisions is called as mean
continuously changes with time and periodically free path l.
changes its direction is called alternating current. It
(l ~ 10 Å)
has constant amplitude and has alternate positive and
negative halves. It is produced by ac dynamo. Total distance travelled
Mean free path =
It’s symbol is Number of collisions
The current (ac)-time graph
(4) The time taken by an electron between two successive
collisions is called as relaxation time t. (t ~ 10–14 s)
Time
Current
+
Total time taken
O T T Relaxation time t =
2 – Number of collisions
I = I0sin t
(5) The thermal speed can be written as
The current (dc) -time graph
l (mean free path)
vT =
t (relaxation time)
Current
This produces an electric field inside the conductor Relation Between Current and Drift Velocity
from point of higher to lower potential. Let n be the number density of free electrons and A be the
V area of cross-section of conductor.
i.e., E=
L Number of free electrons in conductor of length L = nAL
L Total charge on these free electrons, Dq = neAL
HP LP
Time taken by drifting electrons to cross the conductor Dt
E = L/vd
Dq v
\ Current I = = neAL d = neAv d or I = neAvd.
V Dt L
(2) The field exerts an electric force on free electrons The current flowing through a conductor is directly
causing acceleration of each electron. proportional to the drift velocity (I µ vd)
®
® ® ® ®
-e E The drift velocity depends on nature of metal, relaxation
F = m a = -e E so acceleration, a = time applied potential difference and length of conductor.
m
(3) The average velocity with which the free electrons are eE eV
vd = t= t
drifted towards the positive end of a conductor under m mL
the influence of an external electric field is called drift It (vd) is independent of radius or area of cross-section of a
velocity vd. conductor.
® ® ® ILLUSTRATION 1
Using v = u + a t we have,
The current in a wire varies with time according to the
® relation i = 4 + 2t2
® -e E
vd = t (vd ~ 10–4 m/sec) How many coulomb of charge pass a cross-section of
m wire in time interval t = 5s to t = 10s?
The direction of drift velocity for electrons in a metal dq
Sol. i = Þ dq = i dt Þ dq = (4 + 2 t2 ) dt
is opposite to that of applied electric field E. dt
10
(4) The current density
10 é t3 ù
r I æ eE ö æ ne² t ö On integrating q = ò (14 + 2t 2 )dt = ê14t + 2 ú
J = = nevd = ne ç ÷ t = ç E
è m ÷ø êë 3 úû
A è mø 5 5
= 603.33 C
so, J µ E or J = s E
ILLUSTRATION 2
ne 2 t r
The current density at a point is J = æç 2×104 2 ö÷ ˆj . Find
where s = is specific conductivity of conductor A
m
è m ø r
which depends on temperature and nature of material. the rate of charge flow through a cross-sectional area S
® ®
such that
r
J = s E is microscopic form of ohm’s law. (i) S = (2cm 2 )jˆ
r r
(5) The rise of temperature causes increase in vrms and (ii) S = (4cm 2 ) ˆi and (iii) S = (2iˆ + 3jˆ cm 2 )
hence a decrease in l. And relaxation time t causing a Sol. The rate of charge flow = current
decrease in drift velocity. r r
i = JdS
(6) Mobility of a charge carrier is defined as drift velocity (i) Current i = (2 ´ 104 A / m 2 ) ˆj.(2 ´ 10 -4 m 2 )ˆj = 2A
acquired per unit electric field.
[using ˆj.jˆ = 1]
vd et e ms s (ii) Current i = (2 ´ 104 A / m 2 ) ˆj.(4 cm 2 ) iˆ = 0
Mobility µ = = = =
E m m ne 2 ne [using ˆj.iˆ = 0]
The SI unit of mobility is m2 V–1 s–1 and dimensions 4 2 ˆ ´ 10 -4 m 2 = 6A
(iii) Current i = (2 ´ 10 A / m ) ˆj.(2iˆ + 3j)
are [M–1L0 T2 A] ILLUSTRATION 3
The mobility depends on applied potential difference, A typical wire for laboratory experiments is made of
length of conductor, number density of charge carriers, copper and has a radius 0.815 mm. Calculate the drift
current in conductor and area of cross-section of velocity of electrons in such a wire carrying a current of
conductor. 1A, assuming one free electron per atom.
P-4 Physics
r I æ J ö
density of charge carriers : vd = nqA ç v = nq ÷ I
I
è ø Non-linear
If there is one free electron per atom, the number density DI
of free electrons equals the number density of atoms
q DV
n = na. O
O V V
The number density of atoms na is related to the mass
density rm, Avogadro’s number NA, and the molar mass The substances which do not obey ohm’s law are called non-
M. ohmic or non-linear conductors. The I–V curve is not a
For copper r = 8.93 g/cm3 and M = 63.5 g/mol. straight line. e.g., p-n jn diode, transistors, thermionic valves,
rectifiers [Link] is the limitation of Ohm’s law.
rm N A (8.93 g / cm3 ) (6.02 ´ 1023 atoms / mol)
na = = VERIFICATION OF OHM'S LAW USING
M 63.5 g / mol
VOLTMETER AND AMMETER
n a = 8.47 ´ 1022 atoms / cm3 = 8.47 ´ 1028 atoms / m3
If V is the potential difference between the two ends of a
The magnitude of the charge is e, and the area is A
conductor and I be the current flowing through it, then
\q=e
V µ I or V = IR
Area is related to the radius r of the wire as A = pr2
where R is the resistance of the conductor.
Substituting numerical values yields
+ – (K)
vd =
I
=
I – A +
nqA n a epr 2 Rh I
I
R
1C/s + –
Þ vd = V
28 -3 -19 2
(8.47 ´ 10 m ) (1.6 ´ 10 C) p (0.000815m) If we plot a graph of potential difference (V) along Y-axis
and current (I) along X-axis then we get a straight line passing
= 3.54 ´ 10 -5 m / s
through the origin. From the slope of the graph we can
OHM’S LAW calculate the resistance of the wire.
It states that if the physical state i.e. temperature, nature of
material and dimensions of a conductor remain unchanged Observations:
then the ratio of potential difference applied across its ends AC V2,V1
Slope = = =R
to current flowing through it remains constant. BC I 2 , I1
V
i.e., V µ I or V = I R, where R = is the resistance of
I Y
conductor.
A
eE æ ne 2 t ö æ ne2 t ö V V2
I = n e A vd = n e A t=ç ÷ AE = ç ÷ A
m è m ø è m ø L V
B
V1 C
V æ m ö L
so R= =ç , R is resistance of conductor..
I è ne 2 t ÷ø A
The substances which obey ohm’s law are called ohmic or
I1 I2 X
linear conductors e.g., silver, copper, mercury, carbon, mica I
Current Electricity P-5
Factors Affecting the Resistance of a Conductor (b) When change in radius is small (£ 5%) fractional change
The resistance of a conductor depends on the following DR -4Dr
in R is, = .
factors : R r
1. Temperature : The temperature dependence of (c) When change in area is small (£ 5%) fractional change
resistance is given by R = R0 (1 + a Dq), where a is DR - 2 D A
in R is, = .
temperature coefficient of resistance and Dq is change R A
in temperature. The variation is graphically represented 4. Nature of the material of the wire : The resistance
as follows. is less for conductors and more for semiconductors
and insulators.
Conductance (G)
Resistance (R)
Temperature r l ´l d r l2 d æ r d ö 2
Temperature \ R= = =ç ÷´ l
m m èmø
Taking log, of both sides, we get
Superconductor
æ rd ö
loge R = log e ç ÷ + 2e loge l
TC = Critical è mø
Resistivity
TC temperature
dR 2 dl æ rd ö
Differentiating = çèQ = constant÷
Temperature R l m ø
R1 R 3
R13 = R1 + R 3 +
R2
ILLUSTRATION 7
Determine the equivalent resistance of the arrangement
of resistances shown in fig between the points A and B.
Sol.
3
The equivalent resistance between a and b, R eq = r
2
If not able to reduce the given network in series and parallel through simple successive reduction follow the steps.
(1) Find same potential points in network and considering same potential point as a single point.
(2) Redraw the circuit you will find resistance in series and parallel combination.
(3) If not able to see same potential point try to observe if network contains balanced wheatstone bridge.
Current Electricity P-9
Topic 18.3 KIRCHHOFF'S LAWS & THEIR APPLICATIONS AND GROUPING OF CELLS
a + – b
I +
R2
– Changes in potential
– c a b Drop IR1
r1 + b c Drop IR2
Battery c d Drop E2
1 + E
g + – d 2 d e Drop Ir2
+ Battery e f Drop IR3
– E1 r2 2 f g Increase E1
–
– +
f e
P-10 Physics
Assume that I is clockwise, as indicated in figure, and apply potential difference between its two terminals, independent
Kirchholff’s loop rule as we traverse the circuit in the of the rate of flow of charge between them. The potential
assumed direction of the current, beginning at point a. The difference between the terminals of an ideal battery is equal
potential decreases and increases are given in the figure. in magnitude to the emf of the battery.
Note that we encounter a potential difference as we traverse We can consider a real battery consist of an ideal battery of
the source of emf between points c and d and a potential emf E plus a small resistance r, called the internal resistance
increase as we traverse the source of emf between f and g. of the battery.
Beginning at point a, we obtain from Kirchhoff’s loop rule. The internal resistance of cell depends on-
-IR1 - IR12 - E 2 - Ir2 - IR 3 + E1 - Ir1 = 0 (1) Distance between electrodes (r µ d) larger is the
You can use opposite sign convention also. separation between electrodes more is the length of
electrolyte through which ions have to move so more is
Solving for the current I, we obtain
internal resistance.
E1 - E 2 (2) Conductivity or nature of electrolyte (r µ 1/s).
I=
R1 + R 2 + R 3 + r1 + r2 (3) Concentration of electrolyte (r µ c).
If E2 is greater than E1, we get a negative value for the (4) Temperature of electrolyte (r µ 1/T).
current I, indicating that we have assumed the wrong (5) Nature and area of electrodes dipped in electrolyte
direction for I. (r µ 1/A).
Terminal Potential Difference :
Multi-loop Circuit
The potential difference between the two electrodes of a
To analyze circuits containing more than one loop, we need
cell in a closed circuit i.e. when current is being drawn from
to use both of Kirchhoff’s rules, with Kirchhoff’s junction
the cell is called terminal potential difference.
rule applied to points where the current splits into two or
more parts. (a) When cell is discharging :
The general methods for the analysis of multiloop When cell is discharging current inside the cell is from
circuits: cathode to anode.
1. Draw a sketch of the circuit. E
2. Choose a direction for the current in each branch of Current I = or E = IR + Ir = V + Ir
r+R
the circuit, and label the currents in the circuit diagram. or V = E – Ir
Add plus and minus signs to indicate the high and low E r
potential sides of each resistors, capacitor, or source
of emf. I I
3. Replace any combination of resistors in series or parallel R
with its equivalent resistance.
When current is drawn from the cell potential difference is
4. Apply the junction rule to each junction where the current less than emf of cell. Greater is the current drawn from the
divides. cell smaller is the terminal voltage. When a large current is
5. Apply the loop rule to each loop until you obtain as drawn from a cell its terminal voltage is reduced.
many equations as unknowns. (b) When cell is charging :
6. Solve the equations to obtain the values of the unknowns When cell is charging current inside the cell is from anode
7. Check your results by assigning a potential of zero to to cathode.
one point in the circuit and use the values of the currents V-E
found to determine the potentials at other points in the Current I = or V = E + Ir
r
circuit. E r
(c) When cell is in open circuit : The combination can be replaced by a single cell of emf nE
E and internal resistance nr.
In open circuit R = ¥ \ I= =0
R+r nE
The current flowing through load, I =
So V = E R + nr
In open circuit terminal potential difference is equal to emf nE
(1) If nr << R then I = . If equivalent internal resistance
and is the maximum potential difference which a cell can R
provide. nr is less than external resistance R then current in
(d) When cell is short circuited : circuit is equal to n times circuit current due to single
In short circuit R = 0 cell.
E E (2) If nr >> R then I = E/r. If equivalent internal resistance
so I= = and V = IR = 0
R+r r nr is greater than external resistance R then current in
In short circuit current from cell is maximum and terminal circuit is equal to short circuited current obtained from
potential difference is zero.
one cell.
(e) Power transferred to load by cell :
(3) Maximum current can be drawn from series
E2R
P = I2R = combination of cells if external resistance is very large
(r + R)2 as compared to equivalent internal resistance.
dP
so, P = Pmax if = 0 and P = Pmax if r = R (4) If in series combination of n cells p cells are reversed
dR
than equivalent emf
E2 Eeq = (n – p) E – pE = (n – 2p)E and req = nr
Pmax =
4r
(n - 2p)E
so current I=
P nr + R
(5) If unidentical cells are connected in series then
r=R Eeq = E1 + E2 + ..... = S Ei and req = r1 + r2 + ..... = Sri.
R
so current I = SE i .
Power transferred by cell to load is maximum when r = R R + Sri
E 2 E2
and Pmax = = Parallel Grouping of Cells
4r 4R
The cells are said to be connected in parallel if positive
GROUPING OF CELLS terminals of all the cells are connected together at one point
and their negative terminals at another point. The external
Series Grouping of Cells resistor is connected between these two points.
The cells are said to be connected in series, if negative E r/m
terminal of first cell is connected to positive of second whose
negative terminal is connected to positive of third cell and
so on. The external resistance is connected between free
I
terminals of first and last cells. R
A B
Let m identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance
E r E r r
E r be connected in parallel.
I
The combination can be replaced by a single cell of emf E
R
and internal resistance r/m.
E
nE nr The current I =
R+r/m
Þ I
E
R (1) If r/m << R then I = . If equivalent internal resistance
R
Let n identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance r r/m is less than external resistance R then current in
be connected in series. circuit is equal to current produced by a single cell.
P-12 Physics
mE divide the circuit in two equal parts and double the resistance
(2) If r/m >> R then I = . If equivalent internal
r of one part.
resistance r/m is greater than external resistance then Mixed Grouping of Cells
current in circuit is equal to m times the current Let there be n identical cells each of emf E and internal
produced by a short circuited cell. resistance r, in one row and m rows of cells in parallel.
Thus maximum current can be drawn from parallel E E E
combination of cells if external resistance is small as r r r
compared to net internal resistance of cells.
Dissimilar cells in parallel A B
1 per second equals heat lost per second due to radiation from
Brightness µ Power consumed by bulb µ V µ R µ the surface of wire.
Prated
In series combination, bulb of lesser wattage will shine more. æ rl ö
I2 ç = H ´ 2 prl ; I2 µ r3
For same current P = I2R è pr 2 ÷ø
i.e., P µ R ; R Þ P H = heat lost per second per unit area due to radiation.
Parallel combination : Domestic appliances like-bulbs, fans, ILLUSTRATION 11
TV etc. are connected in parallel. What will happen when 40 W, 220 V lamp and 100 W,
Total power consumed, Ptotal = P1 + P2 220 V lamp are connected in series across 440V
If n identical bulbs are connected in parallel then, Ptotal = nP lamp?
Sol: Resistance of first lamp,
P1, V
R1 = 220 × 220 / 40 = 1210 W.
Resistance of second lamp,
R2 = 220 × 220 /100 = 484 W.
Total resistance in series = 1210 + 484 = 1694 W.
P2, V Current in the circuit when supply voltage is 440 V
440
will be, I = = 0.26 A
1694
Voltage drop across R1 = 0.26 × 1210 = 314.6 V
~ Voltage drop across R2 = 0.26 × 484 = 112.84V
A. C. source Therefore 40 W bulb will fuse because lamp can
tolerate only 220 V.
In parallel combination of bulbs,
ILLUSTRATION 12
1
Brightness µ Power consumed by bulb µ I µ A 1000 W immersion heater is placed in a pot containing
R 1 litre of water at 20ºC. How long will it take to heat the
Bulb of greater wattage will shine more water to boiling temperature, if 20% of the available
For same V more power will be consumed in smaller energy is lost to surroundings?
1 Sol: Mass of water, m = volume × density = 1000 × 1 = 1000
resistance, P µ g
R
Fuse-wire : Its working is based on heating effect of electric Heat required to heat the water,
current. H = mc (q2 – q1) = 1000 × 1 × (100 – 20) = 1000 × 80
The fuse wire for an electric circuit is chosen keeping in cals
view the value of safe current through the circuit. = 4200 × 80 J
The fuse wire should have high resistance per unit length Let t minutes be taken for heating the water.
and low melting point. However the melting point of the Electric energy spent in heater = Pt = 1000 t
material of fuse wire should be above the temperature that Useful heat produced = 800 t
will be reached on the passage of the current through the 4200 × 80 = 800 t
circuit. A fuse wire is made of alloys of lead (Pb) and tin 4200 ´ 80
(Sn). Length of fuse wire is immaterial. The temperature of Þ t= = 7 minutes
800
the wire increases to such a value at which, the heat produced
WHEATSTONE BRIDGE This condition occurs when the potential difference from
point c to point a, equals the potential difference from point
Figure shows the fundamental diagram of wheatstone bridge.
d to point a; or by referring to the other battery terminal,
The bridge has four resistive arms, together with a source
when the voltage from other point c to point b equals the
of emf (a battery) and a galvanometer. The current through
voltage from point d to point b. Hence, the bridge is balanced
the galvanometer depends on the potential difference between
the point c and d. The bridge is said to be balanced when the when
potential difference across the galvanometer is 0 V so that I1R1 = I2R2 …(i)
there is no current through the galvanometer.
Current Electricity P-15
If the galvanometer current is zero, the following conditions The galvanometer is connected with the help of jockey across
also exist: BD and the cell is connected across AC. After making
ε connections, the jockey is moved along the wire and the null
I1 = I 3 = …(ii) point is obtained.
R1 + R 3
The resistance can be found with the help of the following
ε relation :
and I 2 = I 4 = R + R …(iii) R sl1 R l1
2 4 = or =
a S s (100 - l1 ) S 100 - l1
I1 I2 l1
or R = S
R1 R2 100 - l1
c G d where σ is the resistance per unit length of the wire and l1
e
R4 Unknown
is the length of the wire from one end where null point is
R3
obtained. The bridge is most sensitive when null point is
I3 I4
Standard somewhere near the middle point of the wire. This is due to
arm b end resistances.
Combining eqs. (i), (ii) and (iii) and simplifying, we obtain ILLUSTRATION 13
R1 R2 In a metre - bridge when a resistance in the left gap is
= …(iv) 2W and unknown resistance in the right gap, the balance
R1 + R 3 R 2 + R 4
length is found to be 40 cm. On shunting the unknown
1 3 R R resistance with 2W, the balance length changes by:
Þ R1R4 = R2R3 or R = R …(v) Sol :
2 4 2W R
Equation (v) is the well known expression for balanced
wheatstone bridge. If three of the resistances have known
G
values, the fourth may be determined from equation (v).
Hence, if R4 is the unknown resistor, its resistance can be
l 100 – l
expressed in terms of remaining resistors
R1 l
Condition for Wheatstone Bridge is, =
R R 2 100 - l
R4 = R3 2 …(vi) 2 40
R1 In Ist case = Þ R = 3W
R 60
METRE BRIDGE on shunting with 2W resistance R ' = 2 ´ 3 = 1.2W
2+3
This is the simplest form of wheatstone bridge and is specially Applying condition of Wheatstone Bridge
useful for comparing resistances more accurately. The 2 l 200
= Þl= = 62.5cm
construction of the metre bridge is shown in the Figure. It 1.2 100 - l 3.2
consists of one metre resistance wire clamped between two Balance length changes by 62.5 – 40 = 22.5 cm
metallic strips bent at right angles and it has two points for ILLUSTRATION 14
connection. There are two gaps; in one of them a known
resistance and in second an unknown resistance whose value Resistances are connected in a meter bridge circuit as
is to be determined is connected. shown in the figur e. The balancing length l1 is 40 cm.
R S Now an unknown resistance x is connected in series with
B P and new balancing length is found to be 80 cm
G measured from the same end. Then the value of x will
A C be ______ W.
l1 100–l1
Metre scale
e K1
P-16 Physics
Points to Remember
1. The number of electrons crossing when 1A of current flows through a conductor is 6.25 × 10 18 per second.
2. According to ohm's law, V µ I or V = IR
where V is the potential difference in volt, I is the current in ampere, R is the resistance in ohm.
3. One way of writing Ohm’s law is J = sE, where j is current density, s conductivity and E electric field.
4. Ohm’s law cannot be applied to circuits which contain diodes, transistors, capacitors etc.
Ohm’s law and Kirchhoff’s loop theorem can be applied to AC voltages only for their instantaneous values. They
cannot be applied to rms values.
rl RA
5. Resistance, R = or r =
A l
where r is the resistivity of the material of the conductor in ohm-meter, l is the length in meter and A is the area of
cross-section of the wire in m2.
6. If length of a wire increases by n times, then resistance will increase by n2 times i.e., R1 = n2R.
1
7. If radius of a wire is reduced to times, then new resistance becomes n4 times i.e., R1 = n4R.
n
8. When a uniform wire conductance ‘c’ is stretched to n times the original length, its conductance becomes c/n2.
9. Two important properties of a metal to make a standard resistor are low temperature coefficient and low linear
expansivity.
10. Resistance is a property of object, resistivity is a property of material.
11. In series grouping RS = R1 + R2 + R3 + .....
1 1 1 1
In parallel grouping = + + .....
R P R1 R 2 R 3
where RS and RP are the total resistance of the various resistances R1, R2, R3, ..... connected in series and parallel
combination.
12. The number of possible combination of n conductors of equal resistance = 2 n–1.
13. The number of possible combination of n conductors of totally different resistance = 2n.
14. The cells are connected in series to get more voltage, in parallel to get more current and in mixed group to get more
power.
Current Electricity P-17
ne me mne
15. Cells in series, I = Cells in parallel, I = Cells in mixed grouping, I =
R + nr mR + r mR + nr
where n = no. of cells in series in each row, m = no. of rows of cells in parallel.
E1 l1 æl -l ö
18. = and r = ç 1 2 ÷ R where, E1, E2 = E.M.F.s of two cells,
E2 l 2 è l2 ø
19. The meter bridge cannot be used to measure very high or very low resistances.
20. When current I flows through a conductor of resistance R for time t, then heat generated in it is given by
according to joule's heating law.
V2 t
H = I 2 Rt joule or H =
R
V2
Electric power P = VI = I2 R =
R
21. A fuse wire should have low melting point and high resistivity.
22. In absence of radiation loss, the time in which a fuse will melt does not depends on its length but varies with radius
as t µ r4
23. 1 kwh (BOT) unit = 1000 watt × 1 hour = 3.6 × 106 J
P-18 Physics
15. With increase in temperature the conductivity of 22. The graph shows the variation
(a) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases. of resistivity with temperature r
(b) semiconductors increases and metals decreases. T. The graph can be of
(c) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
(a) copper (b) chromium
(d) in both metal and semiconductor decreases. T
16. Two metal wires of same length, same area of cross– (c) germanium (d) silver
23. If a wire of resistance R is melted and recasted to half
section have conductivities of their material s1 and s2.
of its length, then the new resistance of the wire will
If they are connected in series, the effective
be
conductivity is (a) R / 4 (b) R / 2 (c) R (d) 2R
s1s2 2s1s 2 24. The resistance of a bulb filmanet is 100W at a
(a) s + s (b) s + s temperature of 100°C. If its temperature coefficient be
1 2 1 2
0.005 per °C, its resistance will become 200 W at a
s1s 2 2s1s 2 temperature of
(c) s - s (d) s - s (a) 300°C (b) 400°C (c) 500°C (d) 200°C
1 2 1 2
25. If the resistance of a conductor is 5 W at 50ºC and 7W
17. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If at 100ºC, then the mean temperature coefficient of
its length and radius are both doubled, then resistance (of the material) is
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both (a) 0.013/ºC (b) 0.045/ºC
remain unchanged (c) 0.006/ºC (d) 0.008/ºC
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific 26. A uniform wire of length l and radius r has a resistance
resistance will be halved r
of 100 W. It is recast into a wire of radius . The
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific 2
resistance will remain unchanged resistance of new wire will be :
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific (a) 1600 W (b) 400 W
resistance will be doubled (c) 200 W (d) 100 W
18. The resistance of a metal increases with increasing 27. The resistance of a wire at room temperature 30°C is
temperature because found to be 10 W. Now to increase the resistance by
(a) collisions between the electrons and positive 10%, the temperature of the wire must be [The
metal ions becomes more frequent temperature coefficient of resistance of the material of
(b) the number of conduction electrons decreases the wire is 0.002 per °C]
(c) the number of conduction electrons increases (a) 36°C (b) 83°C (c) 63°C (d) 33°C
(d) None of these 28. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten
19. When a current I is set up in a wire of radius r, the per cent. Its new resistance and specific resistance
drift velocity is vd. If the same current is set up through become respectively:
a wire of radius 2 r, the drift velocity will be (a) 1.2 times, 1.3 times (b) 1.21 times, same
(a) 4 vd (b) 2 vd (c) vd/2 (d) vd/4 (c) both remain the same (d) 1.1 times, 1.1 times
20. The amount of charge Q passed in time t through a 29. The resistance of a wire is 5 ohm at 50°C and 6 ohm
cross-section of a wire is Q = (5 t2 + 3 t + 1) coulomb at 100°C. The resistance of the wire at 0°C will be
The value of current at time t = 5 s is (a) 3 ohm (b) 2 ohm (c) 1 ohm (d) 4 ohm
(a) 9 A (b) 49 A 30. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by
(c) 53 A (d) None of these 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in diameter the
21. The relaxation time in conductors change in the resistance of the wire will be
(a) increases with the increases of temperature (a) 200% (b) 100% (c) 50% (d) 300%
(b) decreases with the increases of temperature 31. The resistance of a wire at 20°C is 20W and at 500°C
(c) it does not depends on temperature is 60 ohm. At which temperature its resistance will be
(d) None of these 25 ohm?
(a) 80°C (b) 70°C (c) 60°C (d) 50ºC
P-20 Physics
32. The plot represent the flow (a) copper (b) nichrome
I
of current through a wire at 2 (c) silicon (d) mercury
three different time intervals. 1 37. If a negligibly small current is passed through a wire
The ratio of charges flowing 1 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 of length 15 m and of resistance 5W having uniform
through the 2 Time in seconds
T
cross-section of 6 × 10 –7 m2 , then coefficient of
wire corresponding to these resistivity of material, is
time intervals is (Fig.) (a) 1 × 10–7 W-m (b) 2 × 10–7 W-m
(a) 2 : 1 : 2 (b) 1 : 3 : 3 (c) 3 × 10–7 W-m (d) 4 × 10–7 W-m
(c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) 2 : 3 : 4 38. A wire of a certain material is stretched slowly by ten
33. Suppose the drift velocity nd in a material varied with per cent. Its new resistance and specific resistance
become respectively:
the applied electric field E as nd µ E . Then V – I (a) 1.2 times, 1.3 times (b) 1.21 times, same
graph for a wire made of such a material is best given (c) both remain the same (d) 1.1 times, 1.6 times
by :
Topic - 18.2 : Grouping of Resistors & Methods to
V V Find Equivalent Resistance
(a) (b) 39. The ratio of resistances of two copper wires of the
same length and of same cross sectional area when
I I connected in series to that when connected in parallel
is
V V (a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
40. n equal resistors are first connected in series and then
(c) (d) connected in parallel. What is the ratio of the equivalent
I resistances in series to parallel connections?
I
(a) n (b) 1/n2 (c) n 2 (d) 1/ n
34. Express which of the following set ups can be used to 41. You are given two resistances R1 and R2. By using
verify Ohm’s law? them singly, in series and in parallel, you can obtain
four resistances of 1.5 W, 2 W, 6 W and 8 W. The
values of R1 and R2 are
(a) (b) (a) 1 W, 7 W (b) 1.5 W, 6.5 W
(c) 3 W, 5 W (d) 2 W, 6 W
42. When a wire of uniform cross–section a, length l
and resistance R is bent into a complete circle,
equivalent res istance between any two of
(c) (d)
diametrically opposite points will be
R
35. The electric resistance of a certain wire of iron is R. If (a) (b) 4R
4
its length and radius are both doubled, then
(a) the resistance and the specific resistance, will both R R
(c) (d)
remain unchanged 8 2
(b) the resistance will be doubled and the specific 43. The equivalent resistance between points A and B is
resistance will be halved
R R
(c) the resistance will be halved and the specific A B
resistance will remain unchanged R R
(d) the resistance will be halved and the specific
resistance will be doubled
36. The graph between resistivity and temperature for a
(a) 2R (b) (3/4) R
limited range of temperatures, is a straight line for a
(c) (4/3) R (d) (3/5) R
material like
Current Electricity P-21
44. The current in the 1W resistor shown in the circuit is 51. The resistance between points A and C in the given
network is
4W
1W 6V
R
4W R
A C
2 R B R D
(a) A (b) 3 A (c) 6 A (d) 2 A
3
45. Four resistance of 100 W each are connected in the
form of square. Then, the effective resistance along R
the diagonal points is
(a) 200 W (b) 400 W R R
(c) 100 W (d) 150 W (a)
4
(b)
2
(c) 2R (d) R
46. Two resistors of resistance R1 and R2 having R1 > R2
52. A uniform metallic wire has a resistance of 18 W and
are connected in parallel. For equivalent resistance R,
is bent into an equilateral triangle. Then, the resistance
the correct statement is
between any two vertices of the triangle is:
(a) R > R1 +R2 (b) R1 < R < R2 (a) 4 W (b) 8 W (c) 12 W (d) 2 W
(c) R > R2 (d) R < R1 53. Two wires of the same material and equal length are
47. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery joined in parallel combination. If one of them has half
is the thickness of the other and the thinner wire has a
2W
resistance of 8 ohms, the resistance of the combination
6V
6W 3W is equal to
1.5W 8 5 3 8
(a) ohm (b) ohm (c) ohm (d) ohm
5 8 8 3
(a) 4 A (b) 2 A (c) 1 A (d) 6 A 54. The effective resistance between points P and Q of
48. Twelve wires, each having equal resistance r, are joined the electrical circuit shown in the figure is
to form a cube. The equivalent resistance between the
diagonally opposite points is 2 Rr
(a) 2R 2R
(a) 5r/6 (b) 4r/9 (c) 3r/8 (d) 6r/7 R+r
49. Find the equivalent resistance between A and B. Each 8R( R + r ) Q
(b) P
resistor has same resistance R. r r
3R + r 2R 2R
C E (c) 2r + 4R
O 5R
A B (d) + 2r
2
D F 55. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is
connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
8 6 7 4
(a) R (b) R (c) R (d) R current I, in the circuit will be
5 5 5 5
(a) 1 A
50. The resistance of all the wires between any two
adjaccent dots is R. The equivalent resistance between (b) 1.5 A 3W
3W
3V
A and B as shown in Fig is (c) 2 A
A
7 7 (d) 1/3 A 3W
(a) R (b) R
3 6
56. In the circuit shown, the current through the 5 W
14 B resistor is
(c) R (d) none of these
8
P-22 Physics
2V 2W
8 9
(a) Parallel
(a) A (b) A (b) Series
3 13 + – (c) Mixed grouping
2V 2W
(d) Depends upon the relative values of internal and
4 1
(c) A (d) A 5W external resistances.
13 3
62. A cell of internal resistance r is connected to an external
57. The value of current through the 5W resistor of the resistance R. The power dissipated will be maximum
given circuit is in R, if
1
(a) R = r (b) R < r
(a) A (c) R > r (d) R = r/2
25
63. If n cells each of emf e and internal resistance r are
2 connected in parallel, then the equivalent emf and
(b) A
25 equivalent internal resistance will be
r r
2 (a) e, (b) e, nr (c) ne, (d) ne, nr
(c) A n n
23
64. A primary cell has an e.m.f. of 6. volt, when short-
1 circuited it gives a current of 3 ampere. The internal
(d) A
23 resistance of the cells is
(a) 4.5 ohm (b) 2 ohm
Topic - 18.3 : Kirchhoff's Laws & Their (c) 0.5 ohm (d) 1/4.5 ohm
Applications and Grouping of Cells 65. A car battery has e.m.f. 12 volt and internal resistance 5 ×
58. Kirchhoff’s first and second laws for electrical circuits 10–2 ohm. If it draws 60 amp current, the terminal voltage
are consequences of of the battery will be
(a) conservation of electric charge and energy (a) 15 volt (b) 3 volt
respectively (c) 5 volt (d) 9 volt
(b) conservation of electric charge only 66. The potential difference across the terminals of a battery
is 50 V when 11A current is drawn and 60 V when 1A
(c) conservation of energy and electric charge
current is drawn. The e.m.f. and the internal resistance
respectively
of the battery are
(d) conservation of energy only
(a) 62V, 2W (b) 63V, 1W
59. Emf of a cell is (c) 61V, 1W (d) 64V, 2W
(a) the potential difference between the terminals of 67. By a cell a current of 0.9 A flows through 2 ohm resistor
a cell when no current is drawn from the cell. and 0.3 A through 7 ohm resistor. The internal resistance
(b) the force required to push the electrons in the of the cell is
circuit. (a) 0.5 W (b) 1.0 W (c) 1.2 W (d) 2.0 W
(c) the potential difference between the positive and 68. The current I in the circuit shown is
negative terminal of a cell when current is drawn
from it (a) 1.33 A
2V 2W
(d) none of these (b) Zero 2W
60. Two cells, each of e.m.f. E and internal resistance r 2W
are connected in parallel with an external resistance R. (c) 2.00 A 2V 2V
I
To get the maximum power aross the resistor R we
(d) 1.00 A
have
(a) R = r/2 (b) R = r 69. The internal resistance of a 2.5 V cell which gives a
(c) R = 2r (d) R = 0 current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 W is
61. To draw a maximum current from a combination of (a) 2.5 W (b) 0.8 W (c) 1.0 W (d) 0.2 W
cells, how should the cells be grouped?
Current Electricity P-23
70. Two identical cells connected in series send 1.0A 77. A current of 30A is registered when the terminals of a
current through a 5 W resistor. When they are dry cell of emf 1.5V are connected through an ammeter.
connected in parallel, they send 0.8 A current through (Neglect the ammeter resistance). The amount of heat
the same resistor. What is the internal resistance of the produced in the battery in 20s is
cell? (a) 450 J (b) 900 J (c) 1000 J (d) 50 J
(a) 0.5 W (b) 1.0 W (c) 1.5 W (d) 2.5 W 78. In the circuit shown,
71. Current I1 in the following circuit is
30W R L
(a) 0.6A
I1
(b) – 0.4 A 40W 40V
S2
I3
I2
(c) 0.8 A
S1
(d) – 0.8 A 40W 80V
e
72. The n rows each containing m cells in series are joined
in parallel. Maximum current is taken from this the switch S1 is closed at time t = 0 and the switch S2
combination across an exernal resistance of 3W is kept open. At some later time (t0), the switch S1 is
resistance. If the total number of cells are 24 and internal opened and S2 is closed. the behaviour of the current I
resistance of each cells is 0.5W, then as a function of time ‘t’ is given by:
(a) m = 8, n = 3 (b) m = 6, n = 4
(c) m = 12, n = 2 (d) m = 2, n = 12 I
73. The emf of a cell of internal resistance 2 W is measured I
using a voltmeter of resistance 998 W. The error in
the emf measured is (a) (b)
(a) 0.4% (b) 4%
(c) 2% (d) 0.2% tO t tO t
74. In the given circuit the cells have zero internal
resistance. The currents (in Amperes) passing through I
resistance R1 and R2 respectively, are: I
R1 20 W R2 20 W (c) (d)
– + + – tO t tO t
10 V 10 V
(a) 1, 2 (b) 2, 2 (c) 0.5, 0 (d) 0, 1 79. A cell having an emf e and internal resistance r is
75. Under what condition will the strength of current in a connected across a variable external resistance R. As
wire of resistance R be the same for connection is the resistance R is increased, the plot of potential
series and in parallel of n identical cells each of the difference V across R is given by
internal resistance r? When
(a) R = n r (b) R = r/n e e
80. A 4 m long wire of resistance 8 W is connected in (b) lesser than that of fan
series with a battery of e.m.f. 2 V and a resistor of 7 (c) greater than that of fan
W. The internal resistance of the battery is 1 W. What (d) zero
is the potential drop across the wire? 86. Three resistances R, 2R and 3R are connected in
(a) 1.00 V (b) 0.75 V (c) 0.50 V (d) 0.25 V parallel to a battery. Then
81. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and (a) the potential drop across 3R is maximum
identify the correct answer. (b) the current through each resistance is same
(A) Two non-ideal batteries are connected in parallel. (c) the heat developed in 3R is maximum
The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the (d) the heat developed in R is maximum.
two emfs. 87. A 5–ampere fuse wire can withstand a maximum
(B) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than power of 1 watt in the circuit. The resistance of the
either of the two internal resistances. fuse wire is
(a) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct (a) 0.04 ohm (b) 0.2 ohm
(b) (A) and (B) both are correct (c) 5 ohm (d) 0.4 ohm
(c) (A) and (B) both are incorrect 88. A heater of 220 V heats a volume of water in 5 minutes.
(d) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect The same heater when connected to 110 V heats the
82. Five cells each of emf E and internal resistance r send same volume of water in (minutes)
the same amount of current through an external (a) 5 (b) 2 0
resistance R whether the cells are connected in parallel (c) 10 (d) 2.5
89. The powers of two electric bulbs are 100 watt and 200
or in series. Then the ratio æç ö÷ is
R
è ør
watt. Both of them are joined with 220 volt. The ratio of
resistance of their filament will be
1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) (d) 1 (a) 4 : 1 (b) 1 : 4
2 5
(c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
83. The four wires from a larger circuit intersect at junction 90. Forty electric bulbs are connected in series across a
A as shown. What is the magnitude and direction of 220 V supply. After one bulb is fused the remaining 39
the current between points A and B ? are connected again in series across the same supply.
(a) 2 A from A to B 4A The illumination will be
(b) 2A from B to A 5A
A B (a) more with 40 bulbs than with 39
(c) 3A from A to B (b) more with 39 bulbs than with 40
6A (c) equal in both the cases
(d) 2A from B to A
(d) None of these
84. Which of the following is the correct equation when 91. A battery of 10 V and internal resistance 0.5W is
kirchhoff’s loop rule is applied to the loop BCDEB in connected across a variable resistance R. The value of
clockwise direction? R for which the power delivered is maximum is equal
(a) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 – i2 R2 = 0 R3 R4
D to
C
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.5W
(b) –i3 R3 – i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 i3
R2
B
i2
E
(c) 1.0W (d) 2.0W
(c) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0 R1 i1 92. How much heat is developed in 210 watt electric bulb
A F
in 5 minutes? (Chemical equivalent of heat = 4.2 J/C)
(d) –i3 R3 + i3 R4 + i2 R2 = 0
(a) 30000 cal (b) 22500 cal
Topic - 18.4 : Heating Effect of Current, (c) 15000 cal (d) 7500 cal
Electric Power 93. A 100 watt bulb working on 200 volt has resistance R
85. An electric fan and a heater are marked as 100 W, 220 and a 200 watt bulb working on 100 volt has resistance
V and 1000 W, 220 V respectively. The resistance of S then R/S is
heater is (a) 1/8 (b) 1/4
(a) equal to that of fan (c) 8 (d) 4
Current Electricity P-25
(c) 4 W (d) 16 W to the same battery, the electric power consumed will
4W 18 V
be :
100. The three resistance of equal value are arranged in the (a) 60 W (b) 240 W (c) 120 W (d) 30 W
different combinations shown below. Arrange them in 105. A wire when connected to 220 V mains supply has
increasing order of power dissipation. power dissipation P1. Now the wire is cut into two
equal pieces which are connected in parallel to the same
i supply. Power dissipation in this case is P2. Then P2 :
i P1 is
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 3
(I) (II)
P-26 Physics
107. The resistor of resistance ‘R’ is connected to 25 V 114. In meter bridge or Wheatstone bridge for measurement
supply and heat produced in it is 25 J/sec. The value of resistance, the known and the unknown resistance
of R is are interchanged. The error so removed is
(a) 225W (b) 1W (a) end correction
(c) 25W (d) 50W (b) index error
108. A fuse wire with a radius of 1 mm blows at 1.5 A. If (c) due to temperature effect
the fuse wire of the same material should blow at 3.0 (d) random error
A, the radius of the wire must be 115. In a sensitive meter bridge apparatus the bridge wire
(a) 41/3 mm (b) 2 mm should possess
(c) 0.5 mm (d) 8.0 mm (a) high resistivity and low temperature coefficient.
109. Three resistors of 4 W, 6 W and 12 W are connected (b) low resistivity and high temperature coefficient.
in parallel and the combination is connected in series (c) low resistivity and low temperature coefficient.
with a 1.5 V battery of 1 W internal resistance. The (d) high resistivity and high temperature coefficient.
rate of Joule heating in the 4 W resistor is 116. Five equal resistances each of resistance R are
(a) 0.55 W (b) 0.33 W connected as shown in the figure. A battery of V volts
(c) 0.25 W (d) 0.86 W is connected between A and B. The current flowing in
110. A 100-W bulb and a 25-W bulb are designed for the FCE will be
same voltage. They have filaments of the same length
C
and material. The ratio of the diameter of the 100-W
bulb to that of the 25-W bulb is
R
F R
(a) 4 : 1 (b) 2 : 1 (c) 2 :1 (d) 1 : 2 R
A
R B
111. Two electric bulbs rated P1 watt V volts and P2 watt V D E
volts are connected in parallel and V volts are applied R
V V
æ P1P2 ö æ P1 + P2 ö (c) (d)
R 2R
(c) ç P + P ÷ watt (d) ç ÷ watt
è 1 2ø è P1P2 ø 117. In a meter bridge experiment null point is obtained at
20 cm. from one end of the wire when resistance X is
Topic - 18.5 : Wheatstone Bridge and balanced against another resistance Y. If X < Y, then
Meter Bridge where will be the new position of the null point from
112. Why is the Wheatstone bridge better than the other the same end, if one decides to balance a resistance of
methods of measuring resistances? 4 X against Y
(a) It does not involve Ohm’s law (a) 40 cm (b) 80 cm
(b) It does not follow Kirchoff’s law
(c) 50 cm (d) 70 cm
(c) It has four resistor arms
118. In wheatstones network P = 2W, Q = 2W, R = 2W and
(d) It uses null deflection method
S = 3W. the resistance with which S is to shunted in
113. If in the experiment of Wheatstone’s bridge, the
order that the bridge may be balanced is
positions of cells and galvanometer are interchanged,
then balance point will (a) 2W (b) 6W (c) 1W (d) 4W
(a) change 119. The resistances in the four arms of a Wheatstone
(b) remain unchanged network in cyclic order are 5 W, 2 W, 6 W and 15 W.
(c) depend on the internal resistance of cell and If a current of 2.8 A enters the junction of 5 W and 15
resistance of galvanometer W, then the current through 2 W resistor is
(d) None of these (a) 1.5 A (b) 2.8 A
(c) 0.7 A (d) 2.1 A
Current Electricity P-27
120. The actual value of resistance R, shown in the figure (a) 401.5 ohm (b) 404.5 ohm
is 30 W. This is measured in an experiment as shown (c) 403.5 ohm (d) 402.5 ohm
V 123. In the network shown, each
using the standard formula R = , where V and I are resistance is equal to R. The
I
equivalent resistance between
the reading of the voltmeter and ammeter, respectively.
adjacent corners A and D is
If the measured value of R is 5% less, then the internal
resistance of the voltmeter is:
2
V (a) R (b) R
3
A 3 8
R (c) R (d) R
7 15
124. In the given figure: V1 = V, V2 = aV, R1 = b R, R2 = gR,
where a, b, and g are positive real numbers. The value
(a) 600 W (b) 570 W
of current I is
(c) 35 W (d) 350 W
121. The resistance of the meter bridge AB in given figure
is 4 W. With a cell of emf e = 0.5 V and rheostat
resistance Rh = 2 W the null point is obtained at some
point J. When the cell is replaced by another one of
emf e =e2 the same null point J is found for Rh = 6 W.
The emf e2 is,:
e
( a - 1) g V ( a - 1) V
(a) 4b (b + g ) R (b)
4b R
A B
J
( a - 1) b V ( a - 1)(b + g ) V
(c) 2g ( b + g ) R (d)
2bg R
125. The resistance per centimeter of a meter bridge wire
6V Rh
is r, with XW resistance in left gap. Balancing length
(a) 0.4 V (b) 0.3 V (c) 0.6 V (d) 0.5 V from left end is at 40 cm with 25 W resistance in right
122. In a Wheatstone bridge (see fig.), Resistances P and Q gap. Now the wire is replaced by another wire of 2r
are approximately equal. When R = 400 W, the bridge resistance per centimeter. The new balancing length
is balanced. On interchanging P and Q, the value of R, for same settings will be at
for balance, is 405W. The value of X is close to : (a) 20 cm (b) 10 cm
B (c) 80 cm (d) 40 cm
P Q
G
A K2 C
R X
K1
P-28 Physics
11. Two electric bulbs, rated at (25 W, 220 V) and (100 W, 17. An electric current passes through a circuit containing
220 V), are connected in series across a 220 V voltage two wires of the same material connected in parallel.
source. If the 25 W and 100 W bulbs draw powers P1 If the lengths of the wires are in the ratio of 4/3 and
and P2 respectively, then: radius of the wires are in the ratio of 2/3, then the ratio
(a) P1=16 W, P2=4 W of the currents passing through the wires will be
(b) P1=16 W, P2=9 W (a) 3 (b) 1/3 (c) 3/9 (d) 4/9
(c) P1=9 W, P2=16 W 18. In a meter bridge, the wire of length 1 m has a non-
(d) P1=4 W, P2=16 W dR
12. In the network shown below, the ring has zero uniform cross-section such that, the variation of
dl
resistance. The equivalent resistance between the point
A and B is dR 1
its resistance R with length l is µ . Two equal
(a) 2R 3R dl l
3R A
(b) 4R B
R
resistances are connected as shown in the figure. The
3R galvanometer has zero deflection when the jockey is at
(c) 7R
point P. What is the length AP?
(d) 10R
13. In the figure shown, a circuit contains two identical (a) 0.2 m R' R'
resistors with resistance R = 5 W and an inductance
with L = 2 mH. An ideal battery of 15 V is connected (b) 0.3 m
in the circuit. What will be the current through the G
(c) 0.25 m
battery long after the switch is closed? P
A
(d) 0.35 m
l 1 l
S 19. An electrical power line, having a total resistance of 2
L W, delivers 1 kW at 220 V. The efficiency of the
transmission line is approximately :
R (a) 72% (b) 91% (c) 85% (d) 96%
20. There are n similar conductors each of resistance R.
The resultant resistance comes out to be x when
R
connected in parallel. If they are connected in series,
the resistance comes out to be
(a) x/n2 (b) n2x (c) x/n (d) nx
(a) 5.5 A (b) 7.5 A (c) 3 A (d) 6 A 21. Taking the internal resistance of 2W
14. In an ideal metre-bridge, the balancing length from the the battery as negligible, the A B
left end when standard resistance of 1 W is in right steady state current in the 2 W 3W
gap is found to be 20 cm. The value of unknown resistor shown in the figure will 0.2 µF
6W
resistance is be
(a) 0.25W (b) 0.4W (c) 0.5W (d) 4W (a) 1.8 A (b) 2.9 A 6V 2.8 W
15. When the current i is flowing through a conductor, (c) 0.9 A (d) 2.8 A
the drift velocity is u. If 2i current is flowed through 22. In the given circuit diagram, the currents, I1 = – 0.3 A, I4
the same metal but having double the area of cross- = 0.8 A and I5 = 0.4 A, are flowing as shown. The
section, then the drift velocity will be currents I2, I3 and I6, respectively, are :
(a) u/4 (b) u/2 (c) u (d) 4u P I6 Q
16. An electrical cable of copper has just one wire of radius I3
9 mm. Its resistance is 5 ohm. This single copper wire
of the cable is replaced by 6 different well insulated
copper wires of same length in parallel, each of radius I2 I1
I5
3 mm. The total resistance of the cable will now be S I4 R
equal to
(a) 7.5 ohm (b) 45 ohm (a) 1.1 A, – 0.4 A, 0.4 A (b) 1.1 A, 0.4 A, 0.4 A
(c) 90 ohm (d) 270 ohm (c) 0.4 A, 1.1 A, 0.4 A (d) –0.4 A, 0.4 A, 1.1 A
P-30 Physics
23. The equivalent resistance of the arrangement of 29. In the figure shown, what is the current (in Ampere)
resistances shown in adjoining figure between the drawn from the battery? You are given :
points A and B is . 8W R1 = 15 W, R2 = 10 W, R3 = 20 W, R4 = 5 W, R5 = 25 W,
(a) 6 ohm 16W 20W R6 = 30 W, E = 15 V
16W
(b) 8 ohm
A B
(c) 16 ohm 9W
6W
C
(d) 24 ohm 18W
35. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours 38. Two identical batteries each of e.m.f 2V and internal
when the current flowing is 10A. The battery on resistance 1W are available to produce heat in an
discharge supplies a current of 5A for 15 hours. The external resistance by passing a current through it. The
mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14V. The maximum power that can be developed across R using
“watt-hour” efficiency of the battery is batteries is
(a) 87.5% (b) 82.5% (c) 80% (d) 90%
(a) 3.2 W (b) 2.0 W
36. An electric bulb rated 220 V, 100 W is connected in
series with another bulb rated 220 V, 60 W. If the voltage 8
(c) 1.28 W (d) W
across the combination is 220 V, the power 9
consumption by the 100 W bulb will be about 39. A current of 3 amp flows
(a) 25 W (b) 14 W (c) 60 W (d) 100 W through the 2W resistor shown 2W
37. In a meter bridge experiment, the circuit diagram and in the circuit. The power
4W
the corresponding observation table are shown in dissipated in the 5-W resistor
figure. is:
1W 5W
(a) 4 watt (b) 2 watt
(c) 1 watt (d) 5 watt
40. The figure shows a meter-bridge circuit, X = 12W and
R = 18W. The jockey J is at the null point. If R
is made 8W, through the jockey J have to be moved by
4 × A cm to obtain null point again then find the value
of A.
+ –
(a) 2
[Link]. R W l (cm) X R
1. 1000 60 (b) 5
2. 100 13
3. 10 1.5 (c) 8 J
A B
4. 1 1.0 (d) 6
Which of the reading is inconsistent ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 1
Chapter Test 1
1. The resistance in following circuit are R1 = R2 = R3 = V = i(2i + 1), where ‘i’ is the current in ampere through
6.0W. The emf of the battery is 12 V. When switch S the filament of the bulb. The emf of the battery (Vb)
is closed, the potential across resistance R1 is changed so that the bridge becomes balanced is
by an amount.
(a) –2V (b) +2V (c) –4V (d) +4V (a) 10 V (b) 15 V (c) 20 V (d) 25 V
2. The potential difference V across the filament of the 3. Which of the adjoining graphs represents ohmic
bulb shown in the given Wehatstone bridge varies as resistance
P-32 Physics
(a) RC = RD V
C D
V V (b) RB > RA B
A
(a) (b) (c) RC > RB
(d) None of these i
I I
10. Match the physical quantities in Column-I and their
mathematical expressions in Column-II.
V V Column-I Column-II
(c) (d) ne 2 t
(A) Current (1)
I I
m
4. Consider the following statements (A) and (B) and 1 æ dr ö
identify the correct answer. (B) Conductivity (2) ç ÷
r è dT ø
(A) When a current is established in a wire, the free r uuur
electrons drift in the direction opposite to the (C) Current density (3) j × DS
current and so the number of free electrons in the r
(D) Temperature coefficient (4) nq vd
wire continuously decrease. of resistivity
(B) Charge is a conserved quantity. (a) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (3) ; (D) ® (4)
(a) (A) is incorrect but (B) is correct (b) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (2) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(b) (A) and (B) both are correct (c) (A) ® (3) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (2)
(c) (A) and (B) both are incorrect (d) (A) ® (2) ; (B) ® (1) ; (C) ® (4) ; (D) ® (3)
(d) (A) is correct and (B) is incorrect 11. Two wires have lengths, diameters and specific
5. At room temperature, copper has free electron density resistances all in the ratio of 1 : 2. The resistance of
of 8.4 × 1028 per m3. The copper conductor has a the first wire is 10 ohm. Resistance of the second wire
cross-section of 10–6 m2 and carries a current of 5.4 in ohm will be
A. The electron drift velocity in copper is (a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) infinite
(a) 400 m/s (b) 0.4 m/s 12. Two different conductors have same resistance at 0°C.
(c) 0.4 mm/s (d) 72 m/s It is found that the resistance of the first conductor at
6. A current through a wire depends on time as t1°C is equal to the resistance of the second conductor
i = a0t + bt2 where a0 = 20 A/s and b = 8 As–2. Find at t2°C. The ratio of the temperature coefficients of
the charge crossed through a section of the wire in 15
s. a1
resistance of the conductors, is
(a) 2250 C (b) 11250 C a2
(c) 2100 C (d) 260 C t1 t 2 - t1
7. A conductor carries a current of 50 m A. If the area of (a) t2 (b) t2
cross-section of the conductor is 50 mm2, then value
of the current density in Am–2 is t 2 - t1 t2
(c) t1 (d) t
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 10–3 (d) 10–6 1
8. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non- 13. On increasing the temperature of a conductor, its
uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities remain resistance increases because the
constant along the length of the conductor is/are (a) relaxation time increases
(a) current, electric field and drift speed (b) mass of electron increases
(b) drift speed only (c) electron density decreases
(c) current and drift speed (d) relaxation time decreases
(d) current only 14. The resistivity of the material of a wire is 5 × 10–6 W
9. Variation of current passing through a conductor as m and its area of cross section is 5 × 10–6 m2. If 0.2 A
the voltage applied across its ends is varied as shown current is flowing through the wire, then the potential
in the adjoining diagram. If the resistance (R) is drop per metre length of the wire is
determined at the points A, B, C and D, we will find (a) 0.1 Vm–1 (b) 0.5 Vm–1
that (c) 0.25 Vm –1 (d) 0.2 Vm–1
Current Electricity P-33
15. In the circuit shown in figure the current through 19. You are given two resistances R1 and R2. By using
3W 2W 2W
them singly, in series and in parallel, you can obtain
four resistances of 1.5 W, 2 W, 6 W and 8 W. The values
of R1 and R2 are
9V 8W 8W 4W (a) 1 W, 7 W (b) 1.5 W, 6.5 W
(c) 3 W, 5 W (d) 2 W, 6 W
2W 2W 2W
20. A current of 5 A passes through a copper conductor
(resistivity = 1.7×10–8 Wm) of radius of cross-section
(a) the 3 W resistor is 0.50 A.
5 mm. Find the mobility of the charges if their drift
(b) the 3 W resistor is 0.25 A. velocity is 1.1×10 – 3 m/s.
(c) the 4 W resistor is 0.50 A
(a) 1.8m2/Vs (b) 1.5 m2/Vs
(d) the 4 W resistor is 0.25 A.
16. In the circuit shown in the figure, find the current in (c) 1.3 m2/Vs (d) 1.0 m2/Vs
45 W. Numeric Answer Questions
45W
21. In the circuit shown in Fig, the
180V 90W current in 4 W resistance is 1.2 i1 4W
90W 2W i
A. What is the potential A 8W
B
C
difference (in volt) between B i2
100W 100W and C?
50W 50W
22. A current of 30A is registered when the terminals of a
100W 50W dry cell of emf 1.5V are connected through an ammeter.
(a) 4 A (b) 2.5A (Neglect the ammeter resistance). The amount of heat
(c) 2 A (d) None of these produced (in joule) in the battery in 20s is
17. What will be the equivalent resistance of circuit shown 23. A 100 watt bulb working on 200 volt has resistance R
in figure between two points A and D and a 200 watt bulb working on 100 volt has resistance
10 W 10 W 10 W
A 8
B S. If the R/S is . Find the value of x.
x 6W
10 W 10 W 24. The total power
dissipated in watts in the 3W
D
circuit shown here is
C 4W 18 V
10 W 10 W 10 W 25. In an ideal metre-bridge, the balancing length from the
(a) 10W (b) 20W (c) 30W (d) 40W left end when standard resistance of 1 W is in right gap
18. The ratio of resistances of two copper wires of the is found to be 20 cm. The value of unknown resistance
same length and of same cross sectional area when (in W) is
connected in series to that when connected in parallel is
(a) 1: 1 (b) 1: 2 (c) 2 : 1 (d) 4 : 1
3. A cell of emf E is connected across a resistance R. 8. A cylindrical solid of length L and radius a is having
The potential difference between the terminals of the varying resistivity given by r = r0x, where r0 is a
cell is found to be V volt. Then the internal resistance positive constant and x is measured from left end of
of the cell must be solid. The cell shown in the figure is having emf V
(E - V) and negligible internal resistance. The magnitude of
(a) (E – V) R (b) R
V electric field as a function of x is best described by
2 (E - V ) R 2 (E - V) V r = r 0x
(c) (d) 2V 2V
E R (a) x (b) x
4. A heater boils a certain quantity of water in time t1 L2 r0 L2 x
Another heater boils the same quantity of water in time
t 2. If both heaters are connected in parallel, the V V
(c) x (d) None of these
combination will boil the same quantity of water in L2
time
1 9. In the electric network
(a) (t1 + t 2 ) (b) (t1 + t 2 ) shown, when no current
2
2W
t1t 2 flows through the 4W F E D
(c) t + t (d) t1t 2 resistor in the arm EB, the 2V
1 2 4W
5. In a Wheatstone's bridge, three resistances P, Q and R potential difference 2W
4V
R
connected in the three arms and the fourth arm is between the points A and
formed by two resistances S1 and S 2 connected in D will be : A
9V B 3V C
t1°C is equal to the resistance of the second conductor 12. The current through the
at t2°C. The ratio of the temperature coefficients of
8W resistor (shown) is
resistance of
2.0 W 6.0 W
a (a) 4A
the conductors, 1 is 2.0 W 2.0 W
a2 2.0 W
(b) 2 A 8.0 W 7.0 W 6.0 V
t1 t 2 - t1 t 2 - t1 t2
(a) t (b) t2 (c) t1
(d) t 4.0 W
2 1 (c) zero 10 W 6.0 V
12 W 5.0 W 15 W
12 V 12 V
(d) 2.5 A
Current Electricity P-35
I-
I1 -
R
I1
R
having sides 3 cm, 4 cm and 5
I-
I2+
R R
a c
cm as shown in the figure. 3 cm 5 cm
I3
R I3 R
I I
A I1 D B The resistance between two
I 1 + I2 - I 3
ends (AB, BC, CA) of the B C
respective sides are measured 4 cm
(a) 4/7 R (b) 8/7 R
(c) 2/7 R (d) 1/7 R one by one by a multi-meter.
14. Find the equivalennt resistance between A and E The resistances will be in the ratio of
(resistance of each resistor is R.) (a) 3 : 4 : 5 (b) 9 : 16 : 25
7 7 B I (c) 27 : 32 : 35 (d) 21 : 24 : 25
(a) R (b) R F 19. A ring is made of a wire having a resistance R0 = 12
12 13
A E
G
C W. Find the points A and B as shown in the figure, at
7 8 H which a current carrying conductor should be
(c) R (d) R D J connected so that the resistance R of the sub-circuit
15 13 8
between these points is equal to W.
15. In the circuit shown in the figure, find the current in 3
45 W. l1
l1 5 l1 1
(a) = (b) = A B
180V 90W 45W l2 8 l2 3
90W
l1 3 l1 1
(c) = (d) = l2
100W
l2 8 l2 2
100W 50W
50W
20. Figure shows a balanced Wheatstone bridge. Now, it
50W
is distrubed by changing P to 11 W. Which of the
100W
following steps will not bring the bridge to balance
(a) 4 A (b) 2.5A again?
(c) 2 A (d) None of these Q = 100 W
P = 10 W
16. A hank of uninsulated wire consisting of seven and a
half turns is stretched between two nails hammered
R = 20 W S = 200 W
into a board to which the ends of the wire are fixed.
The resistance of the circuit between the nails is
determined with the help of electrical measuring
instruments. Determine the proportion in which the
resistance will change if the wire is unwound so that (a) increasing R by 2 W
the ends remain to be fixed to the nails. (b) increasing S by 20 W
(a) 225 (b) 15 (c) increasing Q by 10 W
(c) 240 (d) 250 (d) making product RQ = 2200 (W)2
17. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5 R and 21. What will be the change in the resistance of a circuit
3R respectively as shown in the figure. When some consisting of five identical conductors if two similar
potential difference is applied between X and Y, the conductors are added as shown by the dashed line in
voltmeter readings are VA, VB and VC respectively. Then figure.
(a) becomes 1/5 times
B (b) becomes 3/5 times
A (c) becomes 2/5 times
X Y
C (d) becomes 1/2 times
P-36 Physics
22. The equivalent resistance between A and B is : 27. For the shown circuit the effective resistance between
33 the points A and B will be 2R
(a) W
21
(a) 2 R R R
66 R/2 R/2
(b) W
45 (b) 4 R 2R 2R
8 R R
(c) 7 W (c) R A B
4R
R R R R
(d) None of these (d) R/2
2R
23. A wire of resistance 12 ohms
28. Determine the resistance RAB between points A and
per meter is bent to form a
B of the frame formed by nine identical wires of
complete circle of radius 10 cm.
resistance R each (figure).
The resistance between its two A B
R R B
diametrically opposite points, A 2 9
(a) R (b) R
and B as shown in the figure, 11 11 R R R R R
is 15 1
(c) R (d) R
(a) 3W (b) 6 p W 11 11 A R R
(c) 6W (d) 0. 6 p W 29. The diagram below shows a junction with currents
1W 1W 1W labeled I1 to I6. Which of the following statements is
24. A1 correct?
A2 A3 (a) I1 + I3 = I6 + I4 I 3
B V 4W ¥
9V 4W 4W (b) I1 + I2 = I6 + I4
0.5W I6 I4
(c) I4 + I3 = I6
1W 1W 1W
(d) I2 = I6 + I4 I1 I5 I2
A 9 V battery with internal resistance of 0.5 W is
connected across an infinite network as shown in the 30. Five identical resistors (coils for hot plates) are
figure. All ammeters A1, A2, A3 and voltmeter V are connected as shown in the diagram. What will be
ideal. the change in the voltage across the right upper spiral
Choose correct statement. upon closing the key K?
(a) Reading of A1 is 2 A (b) Reading of A1 is 18 A (a) Increases
(b) Decreases K
(c) Reading of V is 9 V (d) Reading of V is 7 V
25. All wires have same resistance and equivalent resistance (c) No change
between A and B is R0. Now keys are closed, then the (d) Nothing can be said ~
equivalent resistance will become 31. Point a in figure is maintained at a constant
K1
potential of 300 V above ground. The
7 R0 a
(a) B reading of a voltmeter of the proper range,
3
7 R0
and of resistance 3 × 10 4 W , when
(b) 9 connected between point b and ground is 100 kW
A
(c) 7 R0 nearly :
b
R0
(d) 3
K2
(a) 10 V 200 kW
26. Find equivalent resistance between A & B in the
following circuit (b) 42 V
(c) 50 V
A R R R R R B (d) 62 V
R 32. In the part of a circuit shown in Fig, the potential
3R 2R difference (VG – VH) between points G and H will be
(a) (b) 3
(c) 2 R (d) 3 R
2
Current Electricity P-37
(a) 0 V G 2A
1
1A
K
(b) 15 V 4W 2W 5V Rx
(c) 7 V 3V 1W 2 E1
3A
H
(d) 3 V
A
33. In the circuit shown the ammeter A reads a current
of i 1 amp. If key K1 is opened and K2 is closed (a) 2E1/I (b) E1/2I
ammeter reads i2, then (c) 3E1/I (d) E1/I
37. In the figure ammeter A1 reads a current of 10mA,
(a) i1 > i2 while the voltmeter reads a potential difference of 3V.
E R A What does ammeter A2 in mA read ? The ammeters
(b) i1 < i2 are identical, the internal resistance of the battery is
R R
(c) i1 = i2 negligible.
K1 R R K2 (Consider all ammeters and voltmeters as non-ideal.)
(d) depend on the value of R
34. As shown in circuit diagram an ideal voltmeter and an (a) 6.67 mA
100 A1
ideal ammeter reading are zero. Sum of potential drop
across box and 5W resistances will be (given that there (b) 3.12 mA 4V
A2
are no fault in voltmeter and ammeter) (c) 1.12 mA
100 V
Box
(d) 5.14 mA
12 Volt 7W V
38. For maximum power from battery the internal
5W resistance of battery r is
A
(a) 7 volt (b) 5 volt R R
(c) 12 volt (d) Data insufficient R
35. The equivalent resistance between points A and B with
R R
switch S open and closed are respectively R R
12 W
D e R R
B r
S
6W 6W
8W 4R R 10 R
(a) 10 R (b) (c) (d)
A
9 8 9
C 39. Figure shows three similar lamps L1, L2 and L3
12 W
connected across a power supply. If the lamp L3 fuses,
(a) 4 W, 8 W (b) 8 W, 4 W how will the light emitted by L1 and L2 change?
(c) 6 W, 9 W (d) 9 W, 6 W
36. The key K in circuit diagram shown in figure can be
either in position 1 or 2. The circuit includes two d.c. L1
sources, two resistors, and an ammeter. The emf of L2 L3
one sources is E1 and of the other is unknown. The
internal resistance of the sources should be taken as
zero. The resistance of the resistors is also unknown. (a) no change
One of the resistors has a varying resistance chosen in (b) brilliance of L1 decreases and that of L2 increases
such a way that the current through the ammeter is (c) brilliance of both L1 and L2 decreases
the same for both positions of the key. The current is (d) brilliance of both L1 and L2 decreases
measured and is found to be equal to I. Determine the
resistance denoted by Rx in the diagram.
P-38 Physics
R R (I) (II) 1W 3V
E R 6R R (III)
4W 4R
(a) P1 > P2 > P3 (b) P1 > P3 > P2
R
(c) P2 > P1 > P3 (d) P3 > P2 > P1
44. Which of the four resistances P, Q, R and S generate
4 8 the greatest amount of heat when a current flows from
(a) (b) 2 (c) (d) 18 A to B?
9 3
41. A 100 W bulb B1, and two 60 W bulb B2 and B3, are
connected to a 250 V source, as shown in figure. Now P = 2W Q = 4W
W1, W2 and W3 are the output powers of the bulbs B1,
B2 and B3, respectively. Then
(a) W1 > W2 = W3 A B
B1 B2
R = 1W S = 2W
(b) W1 > W2 > W3 B3 (a) Q (b) S (c) P (d) R
45. Four bulbs B1, B2, B3 and B4 of 100 W each are
(c) W1 < W2 = W3 connected to 220 V main as shown in the figure.
250V
(c) 17.5
(d) 19.5 24 V
(c)
47. The circuit shown in figure is made of a homogeneous
wire of constant cross section. Find the ratio Q12/Q34
of the amounts of heat liberated per unit time in
conductors 1-2 and 3-4. 3 4
(d) (a) 11 + 2 2
43. The figure shows three circuits I, II and III which (b) 8 + 6 2
are connected to a 3V battery. If the powers dissipated
by the configurations I, II and III are P1, P2 and P3 (c) 11 + 5 2
respectively, then :
(d) 11 + 6 2 1 2
Current Electricity P-39
48. The current in the circuit shown is constant when the (a) 125 V, 3 A (b) 100 V, 4A
switch is closed. The energy dissipated in the internal (c) 120 V, 4A (d) 120 V, 3A
resistance r of the battery is 15J when a charge of 40C 50. A resistance coil, wired to an external battery is placed
passes through it. For the same amount of charge, 45J inside a thermally insulated cylinder fitted with a
of energy is transferred in the resistor R. Which of the frictionless piston and containing an ideal gas. A current
following gives the emf of the battery? I = 240 mA flows through the coil which has resistance
R= 490 W. At what constant speed v must the piston
r
of mass m = 12 kg move upward in order that the
temperature of the gas remains unchanged? [Assume
that 40% energy is utilised to do work by the gas, and
neglect the work done by atmospheric pressure].
v
R
(a) 0.141 m/s m
15 30 45 60
(a) V (b) V (c) V (d) V Gas
40 40 40 40
(b) 1.41 m/s R g
49. In fig. the voltmeter and ammeter shown are ideal.
Then voltmeter and ammeter readings, respectively,
are (c) 0.24 m/s
V
100 W (d) 2.4 m/s
5W 20 W 25 W
200 V A
5W
Chapter Test 2
1. Two square shaped metal plates of A and B of same
thickness (t) and of same material are connected as
shown in the figure. The side of B is twice that of A.
If the resistance of A and B are RA and RB respectively
RA
then R is
B
é R 4 ro2 R 2 2ro R 3 ù
(a) pb ê + + ú
êë 12 6 9 úû
é R 4 ro2 R 2 ro R 3 ù
(b) pb ê + + ú
êë 6 12 9 úû
é R 4 ro2 R 2 ro R 3 ù
1 (c) pb ê + + ú
(a) (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4 êë 12 12 9 úû
2
2. Current density in a cylindrical wire of radius R varies é R 4 ro2 R 2 ro R 3 ù
(d) pb ê + + ú
with radial distance as b(r + ro)2. The current through êë 8 6 12 úû
the section of the wire shown in the figure is
P-40 Physics
two cells. 3W 1W
(b) VA = VB ¹ VC
(c) VA ¹ VB ¹ VC (b) 0.25 m A B
r2
(d) VA = VB = VC e2
How much voltage is required to produce a current of are identical, the internal resistance of the battery is
1 ampere in the rods? V negligible.
(Consider all ammeters and voltmeters as non-ideal.)
(a) 0.117 V
(b) 0.00145 V (a) 6.67 mA
100 A1
(c) 0.0145 V
(b) 3.12 mA 4V
(d) 1.7 × 10–6 V Cu Fe A2
(a) 5 W r
10
10
W
5W
(b) 10 W
W
10
5W 10 W
A
(c) 15 W
B
5W
(d) 20 W
R
18. The incorrect option in the given circuit if the reading
15 30 45 60
of ammeter is zero is (a) V (b) V (c) V (d) V
40 40 40 40
e( R + r ) e1 r
(a) The value of e1 will be 22. A concealed circuit (black box) consisting of resistors
R
has four terminals (figure). If a voltage is applied
e1 R
(b) Current in R is between clamps 1 and 2 when clamps 3 and 4 are
r+R disconnected, the power liberated is N1 = 40W, and
(c) Value of e1 will be e 2R
A when the clamps 3 and 4 are connected, the power
e
(d) Potential across 2R is zero. liberated is N2 = 80W. If the same source is connected
19. In the given circuit, the switch S is closed at time t = to the clamps 3 and 4, the power liberated in the circuit
0. The charge Q on the capacitor at any instant t is when the clamps 1 and 2 are disconnected is N3 =
given by 20W. The power N4 consumed in the circuit when the
Q(t) = Q(1 – e–at). Find the value a in terms of given clamps 1 and 2 are connected and the same voltage is
parameters as shown in the circuit. applied between the clamps 3 and 4 is
R1 + R 2 R1 1 3
(a) CR1R 2 2 4
S
R1 + 2R 2 C (a) 40W (b) 20W (c) 10W (d) 60W
R2
(b) 2CR R +
1 2 V
–
R1R 2 One or More Than One Option Correct
(c)
C(R1R 2 )
Directions : Each of these questions has 4 choices (a),
2R1R 2 (b), (c) and (d) for its answer out of which one or more
(d) C(R + 2R )
1 2 than one is correct.
20. In the figure ammeter A1 reads a current of 10mA, 23. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
while the voltmeter reads a potential difference of 3V. (a) Drift speed vd is the average speed between two
What does ammeter A2 in mA read ? The ammeters successive collisions.
Current Electricity P-49
(b) If Dl is the average distance moved between two (c) Current I depends sensitively on R’
collision and Dt is the corresponding time, then
V
Dl (d) I ³ always
vd = lim . . r+R
Dt ® 0 Dt 27. In the circuit shown in Fig. the cell is ideal with emf 9
(c) When a current is established in a wire, the free V. If the resistance of the coil of galvanometer is 1 W,
electrons drift in the direction opposite to the cur- then
rent and so the number of free electrons in the
C
wire continuously decrease.
(d) Charge is a conserved quantity. R1 = 4 W R2 = 5 W
24. Temperature dependence of resistivity r(T) of
semiconductors, insulators and metals is significantly A
G
B
based on the following factors
(a) number of charge carriers can change with temperature C1 = 10 µF C2 = 8 µF
T D
(b) time interval between two successive collisions can
depend on T
(c) length of material can be a function of T (a) no current flows in the galvanometer
(d) mass of carriers is a function of T (b) charge flowing through 8 µF is 40 µC
25. A charged particle having a positive charge q approaches (c) potential difference across 10 µF is 5 V
a grounded metallic sphere of radius R with a constant (d) potential difference across 10 µF is 4 V
speed v as shown in the figure. Now choose the correct 28. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
alternative (s). (a) Kirchoff¢s junction rule follows from conserva-
tion of charge.
(b) Kirchoff¢s loop rule follows from conservation of
q momentum.
R
v (c) Two non-ideal batteries are connected in series.
The equivalent emf is larger than either of the two.
(d) The equivalent emf of the batteries will be aver-
age of the two.
29. Which of the following is/are correct?
(a) As the charge draws nearer to the surface of the (a) If a constant potential difference is applied across
sphere, a current flows into the ground. a bulb, the current slightly decreases as time passes
(b) As the charge draws nearer to the surface of the and then becomes constant.
sphere, a current flows out of the ground into the (b) The resistance of the metal increases with tempera-
sphere. ture.
(c) As the charged particle draws nearer, the (c) Three pin connections reduce heating of connect-
magnitude of current flowing in the connector ing cables.
joining the shell to the ground increases. (d) In each electrical circuit, the thermal power gen-
(d) As the charged particle draws nearer, the erated is equal to the rate of work done by bat-
magnitude of current flowing in the connector tery.
joining the sphere to the ground decreases. 30. An element with emf e and internal resistance r as
26. Consider a simple circuit shown in figure stands for a connected across an external resistance R. The
variable resistance R'. R' can vary from R0 to infinity, maximum power in external circuit is 9 W. The current
r is internal resistance of the battery (r << R << R0). flowing through the circuit in these conditions is 3A.
Then which of the following is /are correct?
R' (a) e = 6 V (b) r = R
(c) r = 1 W (d) r = 3 W
A B 31. In the circuit shown, the current in
I 10V 2W 2W
V r 1W
8W
(a) Potential drop across AB is nearly constant as R’ is 10V
varied
4W
(b) Current through R’is nearly a constant as R’ is
varied
P-50 Physics
41. In a meter bridge, the point D is a neutral point (figure). 45. Choose the correct options for the circuit shown.
R S E K
B
A l1 G C C1
100 – l1
D
R1 R2 C2
A B
R3
(a) The meter bridge can have no other neutral. A point
for this set of resistances. (a) The current through the battery in the circuit
immediately after the key K is closed is E/R1
(b) When the jockey contacts a point on meter wire
(b) The current through the battery in the circuit a
left of D, current flows to B from the wire.
long time interval after the key K is closed is E/
(c) When the jockey contacts a point on the meter wire
(R1 + R3)
to the right of D, current flows from B to the wire
(c) The current through the battery in the circuit
through galvanometer.
immediately after the key K is closed is E/R3
(d) When R is increased, the neutral point shifts to
(d) The current through the battery in the circuit a
left. long time interval after the key K is closed is E/
42. The adjacent figure shows (R1 + R2)
a resistance network with 46. The potential difference between points A and B in the
A
value of each resistance circuit shown in Fig. is 16 V. Then
mentioned. Choose the
correct options R
R R 4W 9 V 1W D3 V 3W
A B
(a) RCD = R/2 R B R
C D
(b) RAD = (9/5) R R/2
R/2 R/2 2W
(c) RAC = (5/9) R E (a) the current through the 2W resistance is 3.5 A
(d) RAD = (5/9) R (b) the current through the 4W resistance i s 2.5 A
43. Choose the correct options for the circuit shown. (c) the current through 3W resistance is 1.5 A
R
Earth (d) the potential difference between the terminals of
the 9 V battery is 7V
3R R
P 47. Study the following circuit diagram in Fig. and mark
3V
4V the correct options.
Earth V = 18.0 V
(a) Potential of the point P is 7V.
(b) Current in the 3R resistance is 7/R.
(c) Current in the 3R resistance is 7/3R.
6. 00 W 6.00 µF
(d) Potential of the point P is 3V.
44. Choose the correct options if a current source E2 is a b
S
short-circuited. The parameters of the elements of the
circuit should be assumed to be specified. 3.00 W 3.00 µF
E1 E2
(a) The potential of point a with respect to point b in
the figure when switch S is open is 6 V
R (b) The points a and b are the same potential, when S
is opened.
(a) Current may increase (c) The charged flowing through switch S when it is
(b) Current may decrease closed is 54 µC
(c) Current must increase (d) The final potential of b with respect to ground
(d) Current must decrease when switch S is closed is 8V.
P-52 Physics
48. The capacitor C is initially without charge. X is now (a) R1 = 5R/3 (b) R2 = 4R/3
joined to Y for a long time, during which H1 heat us (c) R1 = 4R/3 (d) R2 = 5R/3
produced in the resistance R. X is now joined to Z for 53. Consider 12 resistors arranged symmetrically in shape
a long time, during which H2 heat is produced in R of bipyramid ABCDEF. The resistance of each resistor
(see fig). is R.
(a) H1 = H2 E C
C R
1 Y R
(b) H1 = H 2 B
2 E D
Z X F
(c) H1 = 2H2
A
(d) The maximum energys
stored in C at any time is H1. (a) The effective resistance between E and F is R/2
(b) The effective resistance between A and C is R/2
49. Consider a conductor of variable cross section in which
current is flowing from cross section 1 to 2. The (c) The effective resistance between A and D is R/2
(d) If a battery is connected between D and F then
1 the potential of points A and C will be same
2
54. The network shown in the figure is part of some
(a) current passing through both the cross sections bigger circuit. Charge on capacitor (C = 1 F) at
is the same any time t is q = 3(1 – e–t ) in coulombs. If at t =
(b) current through 1 is less than that through 2 0 the potentials of points A and B is 20 V, then at
(c) drift velocity of electrons at 1 is less that at 2 t = 0 choose the following
(d) drift velocity is same at both the cross-sections
50. Two bulbs consume same energy when opreated at 200 20V A
V and 300 V, respectively. When these bulbs are i +q
C = 1F
connected and series across a dc source of 500 V, then –q
(a) ratio of potential difference across them is 3/2 1W
1W R
(b) ratio of potential difference across them is 4/9 B
(c) ratio of power produced in them is 4/9 20V 2V P
(d) ratio of power produced in them is 2/3 Earth
51. For the circuit shown in figure. (a) current in branch AP is 3 A
5 B 8
(b) current through R is 7 A
(c) value of R is 2 W
25V
10 2
(d) value of R is 1 W
4
55. In the circuit shown in fig. mark the correct options.
A 15 2 R1 = 6.0 W R 2 = 4.0 W
(a) potential difference between points B and A is 20V f e
(b) potential difference between points B and A is 10V
(c) the current in the 4W resistor is 0.25 A g d
(d) the current in the 4W resistor is 0.5 A 17 W W
52. The diagram shows a modified meter bridge, which is 2.0 W
used for measuring two unknown resistance at the same
time. When only the first galvanometer is used, for 12 V
obtaining the balance point, it is found at point C. Now h c
the first galvanometer is removed and the second 1.0 W 1.0 W 6. 0V
a b
galvanometer is used, which gives balance point at D. 12 V
Using the details given in the diagram, find out the value
(a) Potential drop across R1 is 3.2 V
of R1 and R2.
R R1 R2 (b) Potential drop across R2 is 5.4 V
(c) Potential drop across R1 is 7.2 V
G G
(d) Potential drop across R2 is 4.8 V
A B
C D
Directions : Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A,
B, C, D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s, t) in column II.
56. A capacitor of capacitance 0.1 µF is connected to a battery of emf 8 V (as shown in Fig) under the steady - state
condition.
Column I Column II
R1 = 10 W N A
(A) Charge on the capacitor (p) 0.4 mC M
20 W
(B) Current in AC branch (q) 0.2 A 8V 20 W 10 W
0.1 µF
(C) Current in AB branch (r) 0.1 A C
B 10 W
60. A cell of [Link] and internal resistance r is connected across a variable load resistance R. Match the statements given
in column I to conductions gives in column II.
Column I Column II
E2
(A) Thermal power generated in the load resistance is less than (p) R = r
4r
E
(B) Potential difference across load is more than (q) R = 0
2
2 R
E
(C) Thermal power generated in the cell is (r) r =
r 4
3R
(D) Work done by battery is positive (s) r=
2
R
(t) r=
2
61. In fig, the resistance R is variable and r is the internal resistance of the battry of emf E.
Column I Column II R
(A) Terminal potential difference across the cell to be maximum (p) R > r
(B) Power transferred to R is less than the maximum possible (q) R < r
(C) Power dissipated in the cell is maximum (r) R = ¥
(D) Faster drift of ions in the elecolyte in the cell will be for (s) R = 0 r
E
62. In the circuit shown in the figure the electromotive force of the battery is 9V and its internal resistance is 15W. The two
identical voltmeters and the ammeter can all be considered ideal (i.e. voltmeter is of very large resistance and ammeter is of
negligible resistance)
V V
Column I Column II
K
(A) Voltmeter (Left) reading (in volts) when K is open (p) 4.5 10 20
(B) Voltmeter (right) reading (in volts) when K is closed (q) 3
(C) Ammeter reading (in amperes) when K is closed (r) 4
9V 15
(s) 0.2 A
63. Column I Column II
(A) With increase in temperature (p) Drift velocity increases
(B) With increase in length (q) Resistance increases
(C) With increase in area of cross-section (r) Resistance decreases
(D) With increase in volume (s) Number of conduction electrons increases
64. Consider a network of resistances each of value of R as shown in figure.
Column I Column II B
(A) Equivalent of net work between A and C is (p) same R R
(B) Equivalent resistance between A an B (q) 5/8 R
A C
(C) Potential of B and D when voltage source is applied across (r) R R
A and C is R R
(D) Potential of B and D when voltage source is applied across (s) 2 R
D
A and B is (t) different
65. For the circuit shown in Fig, foue cells are arranged. In Column I, the cell number is given, while in Column II, some
statements related to cells are given. Match the entries of Column I with the entries of column II. Cell I
Column I Column II 10 W
66. Column I gives some electrical circuits in steady state. Column II gives some statements regarding the circuits.
Match the two columns appropriately.
Column I Column II
(A) (p) Reading of voltmeter is 2 V
V R¢
5W 2.5V
Y
A 20W
2µF
X
(B) C = 2µF (q) Reading of ammeter is 0.1 A
X A Y
R¢
V
2V
(C) C = 2µF
A
(r) Current through R¢ is zero
X V
R¢
3V 1V 10W
2V 0V 0V 2V
(D) 20W (s) Charge on capacitor is 2µC
20W 2V
2V
2V
V 20W
2V 2µF
20W
2V
X 20W
A Y
2V
20W 2V
20W
Passage Based Questions 67. The current through battery just after closing the
Directions : This section contains groups of multiple switch is
choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question (a) 6.75 A (b) 8.75 A (c) 2 A (d) 4 A
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of 68. The time after which the charge on capacitor becomes
which only one is correct. 63.2% of maximum charge is
Passage 1 (a) 20 ms (b) 30 ms (c) 10 ms (d) 15 ms
In the circuit shown at t < 0 the switch S is open and 69. Maximum charge on plates of capacitor is
capacitor is uncharged. The switch S is closed at t = 0. (a) 45 mC (b) 120 mC
Then (c) 30 mC (d) 90 mC
B Passage 2
3W 6W A 12-volt battery is connected to two light bulbs, as drawn
A C in figure 1 light bulb 1 has resistance 3 ohms, while light
5µF
4W 4W bulb 2 has resistance 6 ohms. The battery has essentially no
S internal resistance, and all the wires are essentially
D
resistanceless, too.
36 volts
P-56 Physics
When a light bulb is unscrewed, no 75. At which point D of the wire AB, the potential is equal
current flows through that branch of to the potential at C ?
the circuit. For instance , if light bulb 2
(a) AD = 60 cm. (b) AD = 50 cm.
is unscrewed, current flows only
(c) AD = 40 cm. (d) None of these
around the lower loop of the circuit, bulb 2
76. If the points C and D are connected by a wire, what
which consists of the battery and light
bulb 1. The more current flows through will be the current through it ?
a light bulb, their equivalent resistance (a) zero (b) 1A (c) 2A (d) 3A
bulb 1
is Req = R1 + R2. By contrast, when Numeric/Integer Type Questions
two reisistors are wired in parallel, their
+ – 77. Nine wires each of resistance r = 5W are connected to
net resisance is given by
1 1 1
make a prism as shown in fig. Find the equivalent
= + 12V resistance of the arrangement across AB (in W).
R eq R1 R 2
70. When bulb 1 is screwed in, but bulb 2 is unscrewed, A E
the power generated in bulb 1 is
(a) 4 watt (b) 12 watt D
(c) 36 watt (d) 48 watt
B F
71. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) Some of the energy produced by the light bulb
C
takes the form of heat.
(b) The battery is the source of all the electrons 78. The area of cross-section, length and density of a piece
flowing around the circuit. of metal of atomic weight 60 are 10–6 m2, 1 m, and
(c) The current entering the light bulb equals the 5 × 103 kgm–3, respectively. If every atom contributes
current leaving the light bulb. one free electron, find the drift velocity (in mms–1) of
(d) The potential in the wire to the left of the light bulb electrons in the metal when a current of 16 A passes
differs from the potential in the wire to the right of through it. Avogadro's number is NA = 6 × 1023/mol
that bulb. and charge on an electron is e = 1.6 × 10–19 C.
72. Bulb 2 is now screwed in as a result, bulb 1 79. Find the reading of the ammeters A 1 (in ampere
(a) turns off connected as shown in the network.)
(b) becomes dimmer
(c) stays about the same brightness A1
(d) becomes brighter 12 W 40 W 60 W
73. With both light bulbs screwed in, the current through
the battery is 24 V
A2
(a) 1.2 ampere (b) 2 ampere
(c) 4 ampere (d) 6 ampere
80. The current through a wire depends on time as
Passage 3 i = (20 + 4t). Find the value of x if 100 xc be the
A 6V battery of negligible internal resistance is connected charge crossed through a section of the wire in 10
across a uniform wire AB of length 100cm. The positive second.
terminal of another battery of emf 4V and internal resistance 81. In the circuit shown in figure, find the value of
1W is joined to the point A as shown in figure. Take the unknown resistor R.
potential at B to be zero.
6V 5A
8A R
– 3A
A B
D 20 W 40V 10 W
C
+
4V 1
–
+ 100V
74. What are the potentials at points A and C
(a) 6V, 2V (b) 8V, 4V 82. Compute the value of battery current in the circuit
(c) 6V, 4V (d) 8V, 3V shown in figure. All the resistances are in ohm.
Current Electricity P-57
C1 C2 S1 1W 1W 1W
9W
24 V S3
B B
86. In the circuit shown, each resistance is 2W. The 90. In an electric circuit, a cell of certain emf provides a
potential V1 is as indicated in the circuit. What is the potential difference of 1.25 V across a load resistance
magnitude of V1 in volt? of 5 W. However, it provides a potential difference of
1 V across a load resistance of 2 W. The emf of the
x
cell is given by V . Then the value of x is ________.
10
5V 12 V
V1
P-58 Physics
ANSWER KEYS
Topicwise Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
1 (c) 14 (c) 27 (b) 40 (c) 53 (a) 66 (c) 79 (b) 92 (c) 105 (b) 118 (b)
2 (d) 15 (a) 28 (b) 41 (d) 54 (a) 67 (a) 80 (a) 93 (c) 106 (b) 119 (d)
3 (b) 16 (b) 29 (d) 42 (a) 55 (b) 68 (a) 81 (a) 94 (c) 107 (c) 120 (b)
4 (a) 17 (c) 30 (d) 43 (d) 56 (d) 69 (a) 82 (d) 95 (c) 108 (a) 121 (b)
5 (b) 18 (a) 31 (a) 44 (d) 57 (d) 70 (d) 83 (c) 96 (a) 109 (c) 122 (d)
6 (a) 19 (d) 32 (c) 45 (c) 58 (a) 71 (b) 84 (b) 97 (b) 110 (b) 123 (d)
7 (a) 20 (c) 33 (c) 46 (d) 59 (a) 72 (c) 85 (b) 98 (d) 111 (a) 124 (a)
8 (b) 21 (b) 34 (a) 47 (a) 60 (a) 73 (d) 86 (d) 99 (b) 112 (d) 125 (d)
9 (b) 22 (c) 35 (c) 48 (a) 61 (d) 74 (c) 87 (a) 100 (a) 113 (b)
10 (c) 23 (a) 36 (b) 49 (d) 62 (a) 75 (c) 88 (b) 101 (a) 114 (a)
11 (c) 24 (b) 37 (b) 50 (b) 63 (a) 76 (a) 89 (d) 102 (a) 115 (a)
12 (a) 25 (a) 38 (b) 51 (d) 64 (b) 77 (b) 90 (b) 103 (b) 116 (d)
13 (b) 26 (a) 39 (d) 52 (a) 65 (d) 78 (b) 91 (b) 104 (a) 117 (c)
Question Bank Level - 1
1 (None) 5 (c) 9 (a) 13 (d) 17 (b) 21 (c) 25 (d) 29 (c) 33 (d) 37 (c)
2 (b) 6 (d) 10 (b) 14 (a) 18 (c) 22 (b) 26 (b) 30 (d) 34 (d) 38 (b)
3 (d) 7 (c) 11 (a) 15 (c) 19 (b) 23 (b) 27 (d) 31 (c) 35 (a) 39 (d)
4 (a) 8 (a) 12 (a) 16 (a) 20 (b) 24 (d) 28 (a) 32 (b) 36 (b) 40 (b)
Chapter Test - 1
1 (a) 4 (a) 7 (b) 10 (c) 13 (d) 16 (c) 19 (d) 22 (900) 25 (0.25)
2 (d) 5 (c) 8 (d) 11 (b) 14 (d) 17 (c) 20 (d) 23 (1)
3 (a) 6 (b) 9 (d) 12 (d) 15 (d) 18 (d) 21 (3.6) 24 (54)
Question Bank Level - 2
1 (d) 6 (c) 11 (d) 16 (a) 21 (b) 26 (b) 31 (d) 36 (d) 41 (d) 46 (d)
2 (d) 7 (d) 12 (c) 17 (d) 22 (b) 27 (c) 32 (c) 37 (a) 42 (c) 47 (d)
3 (b) 8 (a) 13 (b) 18 (c) 23 (a) 28 (c) 33 (c) 38 (b) 43 (c) 48 (d)
4 (c) 9 (c) 14 (a) 19 (d) 24 (a) 29 (b) 34 (c) 39 (b) 44 (b) 49 (b)
5 (b) 10 (d) 15 (c) 20 (b) 25 (b) 30 (c) 35 (b) 40 (b) 45 (c) 50 (a)
Chapter Test - 2
1 (c) 4 (b) 7 (c) 10 (b) 13 (d) 16 (b) 19 (b) 22 (3) 25 (2)
2 (a) 5 (d) 8 (a) 11 (a) 14 (b) 17 (b) 20 (a) 23 (100)
3 (b) 6 (b) 9 (a) 12 (d) 15 (b) 18 (b) 21 (c) 24 (16)
Past Years JEE Main Questions
1 (b) 6 (b) 11 (b) 16 (a) 21 (a) 26 (d) 31 (a) 36 (d) 41 (d)
2 (c) 7 (a) 12 (b) 17 (a) 22 (a) 27 (b) 32 (48) 37 (d)
3 (d) 8 (d) 13 (a) 18 (a) 23 (a) 28 (d) 33 (b) 38 (10)
4 (6) 9 (b) 14 (a) 19 (a) 24 (a) 29 (d) 34 (b) 39 (d)
5 (a) 10 (a) 15 (75) 20 (b) 25 (10) 30 (b) 35 (c) 40 (a)
Past Years JEE Advanced Questions
1 (3) 2 (5) 3 (a,b,c,d) 4 (c, d) 5 (a, b, c, d)
JEE Advanced Level Questions
1 (c) 15 (a) 29 (a, b) 43 (a, c) 56 (A) - (p); (B) - (r); (C) - (q); (D) - (s) 67 (b) 81 (4)
2 (c) 16 (a) 30 (a, b, c) 44 (a, b) 57 (A) - (r); (B) - (q); (C) - (q); (D) - (p) 68 (a) 82 (6)
3 (c) 17 (a) 31 (a, d) 45 (a, b) 58 (A) - (q); (B) - (r); (C) - (r); (D) - (r) 69 (c) 83 (4)
4 (a) 18 (c) 32 (a, c, d) 46 (a, c, d) 59 (A) - (r); (B) - (s); (C) - (r); (D) - (q) 70 (d) 84 (9)
5 (a) 19 (a) 33 (a, d) 47 (a, c) 60 (A) - (r, s, t); (B) - (r, t); (C) - (q); (D) - (p, q, r, s) 71 (b) 85 (1)
6 (d) 20 (a) 34 (a, b, c, d) 48 (a, d) 61 (A) - (r), (B) - (p, q, r, s), (C) - (s), (D) - (s) 72 (c) 86 (9)
7 (c) 21 (d) 35 (b, c) 49 (a, c) 62 (A) - (q); (B) - (r); (C) - (s) 73 (d) 87 (1)
8 (d) 22 (a) 36 (a, d) 50 (b, c) 63 (A) - (q, s); (B) - (q, s); (C) - (r, s); (D) - (s) 74 (a) 88 (80)
9 (d) 23 (a, d) 37 (b, c) 51 (a, c) 64 (A) - (r); (B) - (q); (C) - (p); (D) - (t) 75 (d) 89 (b)
10 (d) 24 (a, b) 38 (a, d) 52 (a, b) 65 (A) - (q, s); (B) - (p, r); (C) - (p, r, s); (D) - (q, s) 76 (a) 90 (15)
11 (b) 25 (a, c) 39 (a, d) 53 (a, b, c, d) 66 (A) - (p, q, r, t); (B) - (p, r, t); (C) - (p, q, r, s); (D) - (q, t) 77 (3)
12 (b) 26 (a, d) 40 (b,d) 54 (a, b, c) 78 (2)
13 (b) 27 (a, b, d) 41 (a, c) 55 (c, d) 79 (2)
14 (b) 28 (a, c) 42 (a, c, d) 80 (4)
27 Aldehydes, Ketones and
Carboxylic Acids
Trend Analysis – JEE Main & Advanced
O O O O O O
C C C C C C
R CH3
C=O + CH – OH
R' CH3
Ketone 2° Alcohol
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-3
Mechanism:
O i- Pr
Al (O i-Pr) 2 Al (O i-Pr) 2
+O
:
OH Al (O i- Pr)2 O OH
H –
O i-Pr
+
R R¢ R R¢ R R¢
Pr - i O O i-Pr
Al (O i-Pr) 2
O i-Pr Al
O O
Al O O
O i-Pr
R R¢ O R H
R R¢
O
H R¢
T.S.
O Al (O i-Pr)2
H2O OH
+ O
R R¢
2° Alcohol N-Bromosuccinimide
3. From Hydrocarbons
R CH2 – CO
NH + HBr (i) By ozonolysis of alkenes : Ozonolysis of alkenes
C=O + |
R CH2 – CO followed by reaction with zinc dust and water gives
aldehydes, ketones or a mixture of both depending on
Ketone Succinimide the substitution pattern of the alkene.
(iv) Mild Oxidising Agent : Only 1° alcohol will get O
oxidised with CrO 3 / Pyridine (Collin's reagent), H O
2 ®
C=C + O3 C C ¾¾¾
controlled oxidation.
Alkene Ozone
RCH2OH + [O] ¾¾® RCHO + H2O
O O
By this reaction, good yield of aldehydes is possible.
Ketones can not be prepared by this method.
2 C=O + H2O2
C-4 Chemistry
H
CH = CH 2 ô
PdCl2 + H2O, CuCl2
+ O3 ¾¾¾¾
Zn / H 2O
® CH2=CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
® CH3 — C = O
PdCl + H O, CuCl
CHO CH3–CH=CH2 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 2 2 ® CH — C— CH
3 3
ôô
+ HCHO O
4. From Grignard Reagent
Benzaldehyde
(ii) By hydration of alkynes : Ketones are obtained from acetic and higher esters -
Catalytic acidic hydration : Acetaldehyde is formed R
on passing acetylene in 40% aqueous solution of H2SO4
at 60°C in the presence of 1% HgSO 4. The reaction is R – MgX + R ¢ - C - OR ¢¢ ––® R' – C – OR"
ôô
called "Kucherov reaction". O OMgX
é H - C = CH ù
dil. H 2SO 4 / HgSO 4 ê | ú
HC º CH + HOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® ê
|
ú O
60 °C H OH ú ô
êë H2O
û ¾¾¾
® R ¢ — C = O + R ¢¢ — OH
unstable 5. Oxidation of Nitroalkanes (Nef Reaction)
H Primary nitroalkanes ¾¾® Aldehyde
Tautomerism ô
¾¾¾¾¾® CH3 — C = O Secondary nitroalkanes ¾¾® Ketone
Nitroalkanes are used in this reaction. The a-hydrogen
é ù
dil. H 2SO 4 / HgSO 4
R–C º CH + HOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® ê R -C| = CH 2 ú in nitroalkanes shows acidic character.
° ê ú - H 2O
CH3NO2 + NaOH ¾¾¾ – +
60 C
êë OH úû ¾® [CH2=NO2] Na
Conc. H SO
2 4 ® HCHO
Tautomerism
¾¾¾¾¾¾
¾¾¾¾¾® R — C— CH3 Conc. H 2SO4
ôô RCH2NO2 + NaOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® RCHO
O O
(iii) Hydroboration of alkanes : Hydroboration of terminal ôô
Conc. H2SO4
alkanes followed by oxidation of the intermediate R – CH– NO 2 + NaOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾
® R — C— R
ô
(vinylboranes) with alkaline hydrogen peroxide gives R
aldehydes.
6. By Hydrolysis of Oximes
BH .THF
CH3C ºº CH ¾¾¾¾¾
3 ®[CH3CH = CH]3B CH3– CH=NOH + H2O ¾¾® CH3CHO + NH2OH
- Acetaldoxime
H2O2 /OH
¾¾¾¾¾ CH3 CH2 CHO
® CH3CH = CHOH CH3
Propanal |
Similar reaction with non-terminal alkynes gives CH3 - C = N - OH + H O ¾¾®
2
ketones CH3
|
CH3C ºº CCH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
3 BH .THF
®[CH3CH = C ]3 B CH3 - C = O + NH2– OH
ô
CH3 Acetone oxime
H O
C6H5
¾¾¾®
2 2
-
CH3CH = COH ¾¾
® CH3CH 2 COCH3 C = N – OH + H2O ¾¾®
OH ô Butanone-2 H
CH3
Benzaldoxime
To get good yield of vinylboranes and hence aldehydes,
sterically hindered alkylboranes should be used instead C6H5– CHO + NH2– OH
of borane itself. Benzaldehyde
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-5
Note :
(a) Formaldehyde can't be prepared by this method
(b) Only ethyne gives acetaldehyde while other alkynes give ketones.
Swern oxidation:
This method is broadly useful for the synthesis of both aldehydes or ketones from primary or secondary alcohols
respectively.
H
OH O
(i) DMSO, (COCl)2, low temp.
(ii) Et3N
2° alcohol
Mechanism:
O O O Cl
–
Step I: ¾¾® + Cl + CO2 + CO
S + C –– C S
Cl Cl
DMSO (COCl)2 Chlorodimethyl sulfonium salt
H
Step II: O –HCl O +
+ S
H S
Cl H
–BH O
Step III: O +
O + S
+ S
S H
H –
CH2 Dimethyl
Sulfide
H
B
(iv) Aldehyde from Esters: DIBAL-H is used to synthesize aldehyde from esters.
O O
ôô (i) DIBAL -H, hexane, - 78°C ôô
R — C — OR ¢ ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
® R — C— H
(ii) H2O
Mechanism:
Al(i-Bu)2 –
+ Al(i-Bu)2 O Al(i-Bu)2 O
O
O H
H2O
R—C H R—C—H R—C—H
C
OR¢
R OR OR¢
Even through a nitrile has a triple bond, addition of the Grignard or lithium reagent takes place only once because
addition of second molecule of the reagent would place a double negative charge on the nitrogen.
R¢
R¢Li – + R¢RLiLi 2– +
RC N RR——CC==NNLiLi R — C — N Li
R¢R¢ R¢
Alternatively, organolithium reagents react with carboxylic acids in the following way to form ketones.
O O é OH ù O-Li+ O
ôô ôô ê ô ú -H O
ô ôô
H 3O +
R ¢ Li ® R - C- R¢
® R - C - O- Li + ¾¾¾¾
® ê R - C - OH ú ¾¾¾
2 ¾
R - C- OH ¾¾¾® R - C- O- Li + ¾¾¾
LiOH
ô ê ô ú
R¢ ëê R¢ ûú
é OH O-Li+
ù O
H 3O ê ô ô ú - H 2O
ôô +
® R - C - O -Li + ¾¾¾¾
Or RCOOH + 2R ¢Li ¾¾ ® ê R - C - OH ú ¾¾¾ ¾® R - C- R¢
ô ê ô ú
R¢ ëê R¢ ûú
C-8 Chemistry
(vi) Ketones from lithium dialkylcuprates, also known as Gilman reagent (Organocopper compounds).
ether
R 2 CuLi + R ¢COCl ¾¾¾¾
® R¢COR + RCu + LiCl
-78°C
Lithium
dialkylcuprate
ether
(CH3)2CuLi + COCl ¾–¾ ¾®
78°C COCH3 + CH3Cu + LiCl
(vii) From benzene or substituted benzenes : When benzene or substituted benzene is treated with acid chloride in the
presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride, it affords the corresponding ketone. This reaction is known as Friedel-
Crafts acylation reaction.
O
O C
ôô
+ R - C - Cl ¾¾¾¾¾¾ Anhyd. AlCl3 R
®
PROPERTIES OF ALDEHYDES AND KETONES (v) Reactivity : Reactivity depends on the nature of alkyl
group attached to it. Smaller the alkyl group, the more
Physical Properties
reactive is the compound.
(i) Physical state : Formaldehyde (methanal) is a gas. All Reactivity µ Magnitude of +ve charge on carbon
other aldehydes and ketones upto C11 are colourless atom of the carbonyl group.
volatile liquids. Higher members are solids at room (vi) 40% aqueous solution of HCHO is called formalin. It
temperature. is used as a disinfectant and antiseptic. It is also used
(ii) Odour : Lower aldehydes have an unpleasant odour. for preserving biological specimen.
Higher aldehydes and ketones have a pleasant odour. (vii) HCHO + Lactose = Formamint used for throat infection.
(iii) Solubility : Lower carbonyl compounds are soluble Chemical Properties
in water due to the formation of hydrogen bonds
The carbonyl group, C = O governs the chemistry of aldehydes
between the solute and water molecules but solubility
and ketones in two ways : (a) by providing a site for
decreases with increase in molecular weight due to the
nucleophilic addition, and (b) by increasing the acidity of
hydrohobic nature of the bigger alkyl groups in the
the hydrogen atoms attached to the alpha carbon. Both of
higher members.
these effects is due to the ability of oxygen to accommodate
(iv) Boiling point : Boiling point and Melting point µ a negative charge.
1
Molecular weight µ (i) Addition of Water (gem-diol Formation) : Aldehydes
Branching
and ketones react with water in presence of acid or
Boiling points of carbonyl compounds are less than the base in a rapidly reversible equilibrium.
corresponding alcohols of comparable molecular weight
O OH
but are higher than corresponding alkanes. The relative
boiling points of the carbonyl compounds with the same R — C — R¢ + H2O R — C — R¢
number of carbon atoms follow the order,
OH
Amides > Carboxylic acids >> Esters » Acyl
Like the general nucleophilic additions, hydrate
chlorides » Ketones » Aldehydes
formation follows the following order :
(ii) Addition of Alcohols (Acetal Formation) : Anhydrous alcohols add to the carbonyl group of aldehydes in the
presence of anhydrous hydrogen chloride to form acetals via hemiacetals.
(i) With a few exceptions, open-chain hemiacetals are too unstable to be isolated. However, cyclic hemiacetals with
five- or six-membered rings are usually much more stable.
(ii) All steps in the formation of an acetal from an aldehyde are reversible.
(iii) Acetal formation is not favoured when ketones are treated with simple alcohols and gaseous HCl (remember
that the usuage of hemiketals and ketals have been replaced by hemiacetals and acetals respectively). However,
cyclic acetal formation is favoured when a ketone is treated with an excess of a 1, 2-diol and a trace of acid.
R¢ HOCH2 R¢ O CH2 R¢ CH2OH
H+ H O/H +
C O+ ¾¾¾
® C ¾¾¾¾
2 ® C O+
H HOCH2 R O CH2 R CH2OH
(excess) Cyclic acetal
Mechanism:
H — B+
H — B+
+ OH OH
O O—H
+ CH3OH R—C—H
R R H
R H H
+OCH3 OCH3
Hemiacetal
H
B
B
H
OCH3 + OCH +
OH2
+ 3
–H – B CH3OH –H2O
R—C—H R H R—C—H
R H
OCH3 OCH3 OCH3 OCH3
+
acetal
Cyanohydrins are useful intermediates in organic synthesis. A cyano group may be hydrolysed to an a-hydroxy
carboxylic acid or to an a, b-unsaturated acid (depending upon the condition used) or may be reduced to a primary
amine.
CH3 CH3
(iv) Addition of Sodium Bisulphite : Aldehydes, methyl ketones and cyclic ketones (not aromatic) react with sodium
bisulphite in presence of ethanol to give solid adduct.
H R SO3– Na+
R Na+O– O –
O C
C O ¾¾® S ¾¾®
OH + H H OH
H O R
S — O–Na+ Sodium bisulphite (adduct)
(solid)
O
Note :
(i) A C—S bond is formed rather than C—O because S has more nucleophilic site than O.
(ii) Sulphite ion, SO32– is a large ion and hence reacts only if C = O is not sterically hindered ; as in the case for RCHO, RCOCH3, and cyclic
ketones.
The solid adduct is filtered from the ethanolic solution (v) Addition of derivatives of ammonia : Certain
and then decomposed by acid or base to regenerate compounds related to ammonia (such as
the carbonyl compound. Hence this reaction is used hydroxylamine, NH 2 OH ; phenylhydrazine,
for the purification and separation of carbonyl H2NNHC6H5 ; and semicarbazide H2NNH CONH2, etc.)
compounds. react with carbonyl compounds to form compounds,
R
–
SO3 Na
+
having carbon-nitrogen double bond, known as imines.
H + (or OH - ) The reaction is acid catalyzed and involves two stages
C ¾¾¾¾¾®
: addition of the ammonia derivative to form
H OH carbinolamine followed by dehydration to yield imine
R which is a mixture of E- and Z-isomers
2–
® C = O + SO2 (or SO3 ) H+ -H O
C = O + H2NG ¾¾¾
® C NHG ¾¾¾
2 ¾
®
H (addition) (elimination)
(Extracted with ether)
Separation of RCHO from unreacted RCH2OH. OH
NaHSO3 -H O
RCH2 OH ® RCHO ¾¾¾¾ ® RCH(OH)SO3 Na ¯ ¾¾¾
® RCHO C NHG ¾¾¾
2 ¾
® C= NG
C2 H5OH (elimination)
Imine
R OH
d– d+ + O
R:H – + H3O C2H5MgBr
C O ¾¾¾¾® C OM ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾® C2H5 — CH
H
2° alcohol
OH
R R O
C2H5MgBr
– + ¾¾¾¾¾®
C OM ¾¾¾¾® C O—H
C2H5
3° alcohol
Mechanism:
Note :
O
Grignard reagents (M = MgX) or alkyllithium (M = Li) d- d+
react with formaldehyde, other aldehydes and ketones H H C2H5MgBr ¾¾¾® CH –
to form 1°, 2° and 3° alcohols respectively.
OZnBr OH
+ b a
Zn H O
C = O + BrCH2COOR ¾¾¾¾ ®
benzene
C CH2COOR ¾¾¾
3 ¾
® C CH2COOR
a-Bromoester
b-Hydroxy ester
OH
(i) Zn b a
CH3CH2CH2CHO + BrCH2COOC2H5 ¾¾¾¾¾ +
® CH3CH2CH2CHCH2COOC2H5
(ii) H3O b-Hydroxy ester
OH O
ô H3O + ||
CH3CH2 CH2 CHCH2 COOC2 H5 ¾¾¾
Heat
¾
® CH3CH2CH2CH = CH— C —OC2H5 + H2O
:
Betaine
undego Cannizzaro reaction, they along with all their
aldehydes can be made to undergo such reactions in
presence of aluminium ethoxide. The reaction is now R
R
known as Tischenko reaction and here esters are —C—C—R¢ ¾® C=C + :O = P(C6H5)3
isolated instead of alcohol and carboxylic acids.
:
R¢
:O —P(C6H5)3
Al(OC H )
2RCHO ¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 53 ®
:
OH
3-Hydroxybutanal
OH a,b-unsaturated ketone
4-Hydroxy-4-methyl-2-pentanone
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-13
Mechanism :
Base Catalysed reaction Þ
O
–
O O O O O O OH
OH – H H H
H H2O – H H H
CH2 H CH3 H CH3
H
b–hydroxyaldehyde
O–
C
H2C H
O OH
–
O OH O OH H — OH
E 1CB
H CH3 ¾¾¾®
D
H H – CH3 H CH3
–
OH
O
¾¾¾® + H 2O
H CH3
Acid catalysed reaction :
+
O +
OH O—H OH O O
H H3O+
+ ¾¾¾®
D
H3C H H H H H
H aldol
(a) Crossed aldol condensation : An aldol condensation between two different carbonyl compounds each having at
least one a-hydrogen atom (crossed aldol condensation) gives a mixture of the four possible products, hence it is
not always feasible in the laboratory. For example, reaction of acetaldehyde and propanal in presence of dilute NaOH
gives a mixture of four products.
OH OHCH3
–
OH
CH3CHO + CH3CH2CHO CH3CHCH2CHO + CH3CH2CHCHCHO
Ethanal Propanal 3-Hydroxybutanal 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpentanal
OH
–
(from 2 molecules of ethanal) (from 2 molecules of propanal)
OH CH3 OH
CH3CHCHCHO + CH3CH2CHCH2CHO
3-Hydroxy-2-methylbutanal 3-Hydroxy pentanal
(from 1 molecules of ethanal and 1 molecule of propanal)
(b) Intramolecular aldol condensation (Cyclization via aldol condensation) : A dialdehyde, a keto aldehyde, or a
diketone undergoes aldol condensation to form five and six-membered (sometimes even longer) cyclic compounds,
e.g.
O
O
–
OH
OHC ¾¾¾®
In the above keto aldehyde, three different enolates are possible, however it is the enolate from the ketone side of the
molecule that adds to the aldehyde group leading to the product. The reason being greater reactivity of aldehydes
toward nucleophilic addition than the ketones due to electronic as well as steric factors. The intramolecular aldol
addition of a 1,6–diketone can potentially lead to either a 7 or 5 membered ring product the one with the 5 membered
ring is the only product of the reaction.
–
O OH
O O
–
OH – H2O
¾¾¾® O
:
H2O OH – O
O O
O – O OH
O
OH –
O H2O
–
OH –
:
H2O
RO
OH –
C6H5CHO + RCH2COR¢ C6H5CH = CCR¢ + H2O
(R¢= H or alkyl) a, b-Unsaturated carbonyl compound
O O
–
OH
C6H5CHO + (CH3)3CCCH3 C6H5CH = CHCC(CH3)3
4, 4-Dimethyl-1-phenyl-1-penten-3-one
(ii) Knoevenagel reaction : Condensation between an aldehyde or ketone with compound containing active methylene
group in the presence of ammonia, amines, pyridine, piperidine etc. to form a, b-unsaturated compound is known as
Knoevenagel reaction.
heat
CH3CHO + H2C(COOH)2 ¾¾® CH3CH = C(COOH)2 ¾¾¾¾
– CO
® CH CH = CHCOOH
3 2
Malonic acid Crotonic acid
(i) heat
C6H5CHO + H2C(COOH)2 ¾¾¾¾¾
(ii) – CO
® C H CH = CHCOOH
6 5 2
Cinnamic acid
Note that in Knoevenagel reaction, enol (or enolate ion) is provided by molonic acid and not by aldehyde.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-15
(iii) Robinson Annulation Reaction (Ring forming reaction): Generally Michael reaction and aldol addition both form
new C–C bond. The Robinson annulation is a reaction that puts these two C–C bond forming reaction together in
order to form an a, b unsaturated cyclic ketone.
O O
base
+ ¾¾¾®
O
Step in R.A. Reaction Þ
OH – OH – OH –
+ ¾¾¾® D + H2O
O Michael reaction
O O O O O
OH
(xi) a-Halogenation of Aldehydes and Ketones : Aldehydes and ketones having a-hydrogen atom react with halogens
to form a-haloaldehyde or ketone.
H O X O
| || | ||
acid or
R - C - C- + X 2 ¾¾¾¾® R - C - C - + HX
| base |
.–. fast
CH3 — C — CH2 + Br — Br ¾ ¾¾® CH3 — C — CH 2Br — Br–
Step 2.
O O
Since base is not regenerated during the reaction, halogen of ketones in presence of base is called base-promoted,
rather than base-catalyzed reaction. As we will discuss below in haloform reaction, multiple halogenation of aldehydes
and ketones having more than one a – H occurs.
Mechanism of acid catalyzed a-halogenation of ketones. The ketone is dissolved in acetic acid, which serves as
both the solvent and the acid catalyst. In contrast with basic halogenation, acidic halogenation can selectively replace
just one hydrogen or more than one if appropriate amounts of the halogen are used.
In the first step, the carbonyl oxygen is protonated to form enol which reacts with the halogen (electrophile).
+ OH
H+
ôô Base
CH3 - C - CH 3 ¾¾¾ ® CH 3 - C - CH 3 ¾¾¾¾ ® CH 3 — C = CH 2
(say H 2O)
ôô ô
O OH
enol
+ –
Br — Br Br
¾¾¾¾
(–Br– )
® CH3 — C — CH2Br ¬¾
® CH3 — C — CH2Br ¾¾¾ ® CH3 — C — CH2Br + HBr
:OH +O —H
O
:
O O
– – –
CH3 — C — CH3 + 3X2 + 4OH ¾¾® CH3 — C — O + CHX3 + 3X + 3H2O
Haloform
Mechanism :
O H –
O O
OH –
CH3 — C — C — H ¾¾® – 3×2
CH3 — C CH2 CH3 — C — CH2
H Enolate
O: :O:–
:
:
O O
OH – Proton exchange –
CH3 — C — CX3 ¾¾¾® CH3 — C — CX3 ¾¾® CH3 — C + –
:CX3 CH3 — C — O + HCX3
OH OH
Since haloform (CHCl3, CHBr3 or CHI3) is produced in the reaction, it is known as haloform reaction (reaction of
methyl ketones with alkaline halogen to form haloform, CHX3) Ethyl alcohol and Haloform reaction, particularly
iodoform reaction is used as a laboratory test for identifying methyl ketones, acetaldehyde and methyl secondary
alcohols.
(xiii)Oxidation
(a) Aldehydes reduce Tollen's reagent (an alkaline solution of silver nitrate) and form silver colour precipitate Ag.
2AgNO3 + 2NH 4OH ¾¾
® Ag2O ¯ (grey) + 2NH 4 NO3 + H 2O
® 2[Ag(NH 3 ) 2 ]+ OH - + H 2O
Ag 2 O + 4NH 4 OH ¾¾
Tollen's reagent
(b) Aldehydes (except benzaldehyde) also reduce Fehling’s solution (an alkaline solution of cupric ion complexed with
tartarate ion) and Benedict’s solution, in which complexing agent is citrate ion.
O O
2+ – +
R—C—H + 2Cu + 3OH R—C—O– + 2Cu + H2O
(deep blue colour) (red ppt.)
(c) Methyl ketones are oxidized smoothly by means of hypohalite (NaOH or KOH + halogen) to form carboxylate ion
and haloform, and hence the reaction is commonly known as haloform reaction.
O O
|| ||
R— C —CH3 + 3X2 + 4OH– ¾¾® R— C —O– + CHX3 + 3X– + 3H2O
(d) Baeyer-Villiger oxidation. Both aldehydes and ketones are oxidised by peroxy acids. This reaction, called Baeyer-
Villiger oxidation, is however especially useful with ketones, because it converts them to carboxylic esters.
O O O O
It is also widely used for synthesizing lactones from cyclic ketones. meta–chloroperbenzoic acid (MCPBA) reagent
is commonly used for this reaction. Certain other peroxy carboxylic acid can be used as well.
(xiv) Reduction
(a) Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to primary and secondary alcohols respectively by a variety of reagents.
Catalytic hydrogenation over a metal catalyst and reduction with lithium aluminium hydride or sodium borohydride
are common useful methods for reduction of ketones.
R R
H2/Ni or
C O CHOH
LiAlH4 or NaBH4
R¢ R¢
(i) LiAlH , or NaBH H /Ni
CH3CH = CHCH2OH ¬¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
+
4 4 ¾ CH CH = CHCHO ¾¾¾¾
3
2 ® CH 3CH 2CH 2CH2OH
(ii) H
(b) Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to hydrocarbons by the action (i) of amalgamated zinc and concentrated
hydrochloric acid (Clemmensen reduction), or (b) of hydrazine (NH2NH2) and a strong base like NaOH, KOH or
potassium tert-butoxide in a high-boiling alcohol like ethylene glycol or triethylene glycol (Wolf-Kishner reduction).
R R
Zn (Hg), HCl
C O CH2
or NH2NH2, KOH, glycol
R¢ R¢
(c) Aldehydes and ketones can be reduced to hydrocarbons through thioacetal formation too.
R HSCH2 BF R S CH2
3
C O + ¾¾® C
+ H2O
HSCH2
R¢ R¢ S CH2
Aldehyde or Ketone Ethane–1,2–dithiol Cyclic thioacetal
R S CH2
R
C Raney Ni CH2 + CH3CH3 + 2NiS
H2
R¢ S CH2 R¢
(d) Many aldehydes and ketones are converted into amines by reductive amination (reduction in presence of ammonia).
Reduction can be done catalytically or by sodium cyanohydridoborate, NaBH3CN. Reaction involves reduction of an
intermediate imine.
R R R
H2, Ni or
C O + NH3 C NH NaBH 3CN
CHNH3
R¢
R¢ R¢
An aldehyde or ketone An imine 1° Amine
(xv) Polymerisation : Lower aldehydes undergo polymerisation to form different products under different conditions.
evaporate to dryness
nHCHO (CH2O)n
( n = 6 to 50) Paraformaldehyde
C-18 Chemistry
room temp.
3HCHO (CH2O)3
Metaformaldehyde
(6-membered cyclic compound
conc. H2SO4
3CH3CHO (CH3CHO)3
Paraldehyde
(6-membered cyclic compound)
conc. H2SO4,0°C
4CH3CHO (CH3CHO)4
Metaldehyde
(8-membered cyclic compound)
CH3
conc. H2SO4
3CH3COCH3 heat
H3C CH3
Mesitylene
O–H O
– –
O OH O
–
–CN
C
CN H CN H
OH
Benzoin
¾¾¾®
Oxi.
O
Benzil
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-19
–
O
HO
O
OH –
O
O
–
COOH COO
–
O OH +
H
¾¾® Benzilic acid
(c) Perkin reaction : Condensation of an aromatic aldehyde with an acid anhydride in presence of sodium salt of the
same acid to form a, b-unsaturated acid is known as Perkin reaction.
(i) CH COONa
(i) C6H5CHO + (CH3CO)2O ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
3
+ ® C6H5CH = CHCOOH
(ii) H
CH3
b a (i) CH3CH2COONa
(ii) C6H5CHO + (CH3CH2CO)2O C6H5 CCOOH
(ii) H +
Benzaldehyde Propanoic anhydride a-Methylcinnamic acid
Remember that it is the a-carbon atom of the anhydride that reacts with the aldehydic group, observe (ii) example.
(d) Reaction with benzene nucleus : Aromatic aldehydes and ketones undergo electrophilic substitutions in the meta
position. However, these reactions are slow because of deactivating influence of the carbonyl group. Moreover,
certain side reactions like oxidation make the yield poor.
O O
OH
(b) — C — CH3 present in ethanol and all secondary methyl ketones.
OH OH
Sol. CH3—C—CN CH3—C—COOH CH2 = C—COOH HOCH2 — CH — COOH
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
[A] [B] [C] [D]
ILLUSTRATION 2 :
Complete the following reaction.
Sol.
C H MgBr
¾NBS
¾® ¾NaCN
¾¾® ¾6¾11¾ ¾ ®
ILLUSTRATION 3 :
Give steps involved in the following conversions.
(a) Acetaldehyde to 2, 3-dibromobutanoic acid (b) Acetaldehyde to a-hydroxypropanoic acid (lactic acid)
(c) Benzene to p-chlorobenzaldehyde
Sol.
OH, heat
(a) 2CH3CHO ¾¾ ¾↑ CH3CHOHCH2CHO ¾¾¾
↑ CH3CH = CHCHO
[Ag(NH ) ]∗
¾¾ ¾¾¾¾
3 2
↑ CH3CH = CHCOOH ¾ ¾↑
Br
2 CH3CHCHCOOH
Br Br
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-21
NaCN H∗
(b) CH3CHO ¾¾ ¾↑ CH3CHOHCN ¾¾¾
↑ CH3CHOHCOOH
Lactic acid
(i ) Br , Fe (i ) CH O Cl , Fe
(c) C6 H6 ¾¾¾¾¾↑
2 C6 H5MgBr ¾¾¾¾
2 ¾
+ ↑ C 6 H5CH 2 OH ¾¾¾¾
2 ↑ p-Cl.C6H4CH2OH
(ii ) Mg, ether (ii ) H3O
CrO , Pyridine
¾¾¾¾¾¾
3
↑ p-ClC6H4CHO
ILLUSTRATION 4 :
Can you suggest a proper mechanism for the following reaction ?
H+
2C6H6 + (CH3)2CO ¾® (C6H5)2C(CH3)2.
Sol.
OH CH3
+
O OH C — CH3 C—CH3 C—C6H5
H+ C 6H 6 C6 H 6
CH3—C—CH3 CH3—C—CH3 ¾¾® H+
¾¾® ¾¾®
+ CH3 (–H2O) CH3 CH3
An electrophile
Another electrophile
ILLUSTRATION 5 :
Compound X, C9H10O, is inert to Br2 in CCl4. Vigorous oxidation with hot alkaline permanganate yields
benzoic acid. X gives a precipitate with semicarbazide hydrochloride and with 2, 4-dinitrophenylhydrazine
(DNPH). Write all possible structures for X. How can these isomers be distinguished by using simple chemical
tests ?
Sol. Formation of benzoic acid, on oxidation of the compound X, indicates that X is having only one side chain. The
formula reveals five degree of unsaturation, four for the benzene ring indicated by the formation of benzoic acid and
hence fifth must be present in the side chain. The side unsaturation must be due to C = O group, indicated by reaction
with DNPH. Thus the possible structures for the compound X are
CH3
½
C6 H5 COCH 2 CH3 C 6 H5CH 2COCH3 C6 H 5CH 2CH 2 CHO C6 H 5CHCHO
I II III IV
Difference between I, II, III and IV. Aldehydes III and IV undergo oxidation by cold KMnO4 and CrO3 in H2SO4;
while compound II undergoes iodoform reaction.
ILLUSTRATION 6 :
Would you expect benzaldehyde to be more reactive or less reactive in nucleophilic addition reactions than
propanal? Explain.
Sol. The carbon atom of the carbonyl group of benzaldehyde is less electrophilic due to resonance than carbon atom of the
carbonyl group present in propanal.
C-22 Chemistry
d–
O O
C d+ C
H H
+
ILLUSTRATION 7 :
Explain why o-hydroxybenzaldehyde is a liquid at room temperature while p-hydroxybenzaldehyde is a high
melting solid.
Sol. o-Hydroxybenzaldehyde exhibits intramolecular hydrogen bonding, whereas p-hydroxybenzaldehyde exhibits inter-
molecular hydrogen bonding. The p-hydroxybenzaldehyde fits better in the lattice to give a close-packed structure.1
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS O
||
Organic compounds containing carboxyl ( - C - OH ) group are known as carboxylic acids. The term 'carboxylic' was first
proposed by scientist 'Baeyer'.
Carboxyl group is made up of carbonyl and hydroxyl groups i.e.
O
||
>C=O + O–H ¾® - C - OH
(Carbonyl) (Hydroxyl) (Carboxyl group)
Hybridisation state of C in the carboxyl group is sp2 . Large number of carboxylic acids are found in nature. Some higher
members of aliphatic carboxylic acids (C12 – C18), known as fatty acids, occur in natural fats as esters of glycerol.
Carboxylic acids serve as starting material for several other important organic compounds such as anhydrides, esters, acid
chlorides, amides, etc. General formula is CnH2nO2 or CnH2n+1 COOH.
Classification
On the basis of the group to which –COOH group is attached.
O
||
(i) Aliphatic carboxylic acid Þ R - C - OH (R Þ H atom or alkyl group).
O O
|| ||
H - C - OH , CH3 - C - OH
Formic acid Acetic acid
O O
|| ||
(ii) Aromatic carboxylic acid Þ Ar - C - OH (Ar Þ Aryl group) C6H5 - C - OH (Benzoic acid)
On the basis of number of –COOH groups in their molecule.
No. of – COOH group
(a) Monocarboxylic acids 1
(b) Dicarboxylic acids 2
(c) Tricarboxylic acids 3
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-23
METHODS OF PREPARATION
1. By the Oxidation of Alcohols, Aldehydes and Ketones
(i) 1º Alcohol ¾ [¾
O]
¾® Corresponding carboxylic acid.
O
KMnO 4 or || [O]
R – CH2 – OH + [O] ¾¾¾¾¾
® R–CHO ¾¾¾
® R - C - OH
K 2 Cr2O7
O
KMnO 4 or || [O]
Ex. CH3 – CH2 – OH + [O] ¾¾¾¾¾
® CH3–CHO ¾¾¾
® CH3 - C - OH
K 2 Cr2O7
O
KMnO 4 or || [O]
C6H5 – CH2 – OH + [O] ¾¾¾¾¾
® C6H5–CHO ¾¾¾
® C6H5 - C - OH
K 2 Cr2O7
Oxidation of an alcohol with K2Cr2O7 or CrO3 in acidic media often gives some amount of ester also. Therefore, the
use of KMnO4 in neutral or alkaline media is preferred for the preparation of carboxylic acids.
[O]
(ii) Aldehyde ¾¾¾ ® Corresponding acid
∗
Ag O or Ag(NH )
RCHO ¾¾¾
2 ¾¾ ¾¾¾
∗
3 2 ¾
↑ RCOOH
or KMnO4 / H
or K2Cr2O7 / H∗
[O]
(iii) Ketone ¾¾ ¾® Mixture of acids having lesser number of carbon atoms than the ketone.
O O
|| Acidic K 2 Cr2O7 ||
R - C - CH 2 - R ' + [O] ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® R - C - OH + R’–COOH
D
O O
|| Acidic K 2 Cr2O7 ||
Ex. CH3 – C – CH 3 + 3 [O] ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH - C - OH + CO + H O
3 2 2
D
However, methyl ketones are good sources for carboxylic acids as these are quantitatively oxidised to carboxylic acids by
hypohalites (haloform reaction).
heat
RCOCH3 + 3I2 + 4NaOH ¾¾¾ ® RCOONa + 3NaI + CHI3 + 3H2O
14 [O] 14 14
Oxidation
HCOOH + HOOC CH2CH3 ¬¾¾
¾ CH3C OCH2CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH3COOH + CH3COOH.
However, remember that in mixed ketones, major oxidation product is that in which carbonyl carbon (C 14) remains with
smaller alkyl group.
2. By the Hydrolysis of Cyanides (Nitriles)
Cyanides on complete hydrolysis in presence of dilute HCl form carboxylic acids. Aryl halides (except for those
having o & p–nitro group) do not react with HCN.
O
NaCN Complete hydrolysis ôô
R,X ¾¾¾↑ R , C º N ¾¾¾ ¾¾ ¾¾¾
↑ R , C, OH ∗ NH 3
3. By the Hydrolysis of Acid Derivatives
(i) From acyl halides :
O O
P P
CH3 – C – Cl + H – OH ¾® CH3 – C – OH + HCl
O O
P P
C6H5 – C – Cl + H – OH ¾® C6H5 – C – OH + HCl
C-24 Chemistry
O
C6H5 O
C P
O + H–OH ¾® 2 C6H5 – C – OH
C6H5 C
O
Formic acid cannot be prepared by these two methods (a and b) because it’s corresponding formyl chloride and
formic anhydride are unstable compounds.
(iii) From carboxylic esters :
O O
P P
C2H5 – C – OCH3 + HOH ¾® C2H5 – C – OH + CH3 – OH
O O
P P
C6H5 – C – OCH3 + HOH ¾® C6H5 – C – OH + CH3 – OH
(iv) From acid amides :
O O
P dil. HCl
P
CH3 – C – NH2 + HOH ¾¾¾¾ ® CH3 – C – OH + NH4Cl
O O
P dil. HCl
P
C6H5 – C – NH2 + HOH ¾¾¾¾ ® C6H5 – C – OH + NH4Cl
4. By Carbonylation of
(i) sodium alkoxide or sodium hydroxide :
O
High temp. [Link] P
H – O – Na + CO ¾¾¾¾¾
® H – COONa ¾¾¾¾ ® H– C – OH
High pres. HOH
O
High temp. [Link] P
R – ONa + CO ¾¾¾¾¾
® R – COONa ¾¾¾¾ ® R– C – OH
High pres. HOH
(ii) alcohols and water :
O
BF3 /HOH P
R – OH + CO ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® R– C – OH
High temp.& pres.
O
P BF3 /HOH
H – OH + CO ¾¾¾¾¾¾® H– C – OH
High temp.& pres.
5. By oxidation of alkenes:
(i) O3
(i) KMnO4/D (ii) H2O2
R R¢ E or Z R — COOH + R¢ — COOH
(ii) H3O+
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-25
+
H heat
R2C(COOC2H5)2 ¾¾® R2C(COO–)2 ¾¾¾® R2C(COOH)2 ¾¾¾® R2CHCOOH
140°C
Thus malonic ester provides an important method for synthesising RCH2COOH, R2CHCOOH and RR¢CHCOOH.
C-26 Chemistry
10. Favorskii rearrangement. a-Haloketones, when treated with base, are converted into carboxylic acids.
O
Br – COOH
OH
¾¾¾®
–
O O O O
OH
Br Br
Mechanism. OH – – (–Br –) OH –
¾¾¾®
(–H O)
¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®
2
C — O– COOH
¾¾® H+
¾¾®
O:
:
+
R — C —O — H R—C =O —H
: :
The positive charge (electron deficiency) on oxygen atom causes a displacement of electron pair of the O—H bond
towards the oxygen atom with the result the hydrogen atom of the O—H group is eliminated as proton and a
carboxylate ion is formed. Once the carboxylate ion is formed, it is stabilised by means of resonance.
O: O–: O:
: :
: :
R—C R—C R—C –
O:
:
O–: O:
:
: :
Resonating forms of carboxylate ion (Equivalent structures), Resonating hybrid of carboxylate ion
hence resonance more important
It is important to note that although carboxylic acids and alcohols both contain —OH group, the later are not acidic
in nature. It is due to the absence of resonance (factor responsible for acidic character of —COOH) in both the
alcohols as well as in their corresponding ions (alkoxide ions).
R—O—H R — O– + H+
Alcohol Alkoxide ion
(No resonance) (No resonance)
Alkoxide ions are stabilized by solvation forces, while carboxylate ions are stabilized by solvation as well as resonance
and inductive effect of the carbonyl group.
Role of inductive effect of the carbonyl group. The carbonyl group is electron-withdrawing, and by attracting
electrons away from the negatively charged oxygen, carboxylate anion is stabilized.
Relative acidic character of carboxylic acids with common species not having —COOH group.
RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC º CH > NH3 > RH
Effect of Substituents on Acidity : We know that the carboxylic acids are acidic in nature because of stabilisation
(i.e., dispersal of negative charge) of carboxylate ion. So any factor which can enhance the dispersal of negative
charge of the carboxylate ion will increase the acidity and vice versa. Thus electron-withdrawing substituents (like
halogens, —NO2, —C6H5 etc.) would disperse the negative charge and hence stabilise the carboxylate ion and thus
increase acidity of the parent acid. On the other hand, electron-releasing substituents would intensify the negative
charge, destabilise the carboxylate ion and thus decrease acidity of the parent acid.
Now since alkyl groups are electron-releasing, their presence in the molecule will decrease the acidity. In general,
greater the length of the alkyl chain, lower shall be the acidity of the acid. Thus formic acid (HCOOH), having no
alkyl group, is about 10 times stronger than acetic acid (CH3COOH) which in turn is stronger than propanoic acid
(CH3CH2COOH) and so on. Similarly, following order is observed in chloro acids.
Cl 3CCOOH Cl 2CHCOOH ClCH 2COOH CH 3COOH
Trichloroacetic acid
> Dichloroacetic acid
> Monochloroacetic acid
> Acetic acid
Trichloroacetic acid is more than 10,000 times more stronger than acetic acid, actually it is almost as strong acid as
a mineral acid. For further details of the relative acidities of the carboxylic acids, consult inductive effect in Chapter
on “General Organic Chemistry”.
Decreasing order of aliphatic acids
(i) O2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH
(ii) HCOOH > CH3COOH > (CH3)2CHCOOH > (CH3)3 CCOOH
(iii) CH3CH2CCl2COOH > [Link] > ClCH2CHClCH2COOH
(iv) F3CCOOH > Cl3CCOOH > Br3CCOOH
C-28 Chemistry
Benzoic acid is somewhat stronger than simple aliphatic acids. Here the carboxylate group is attached to a more
electronegative carbon (sp2 hybridised) than in aliphatic acids (sp3 hybridised). Remember that carbon becomes
more electron-withdrawing as its s character increases.
(ii) Reactions in which –OH of –COOH Group is Replaced (Conversion into Functional Derivatives)
O O
O O
H+
R–C + R¢–OH R–C + H2O
OH OR¢
Acid Alcohol Ester
The yield of esterification can also be increased by removing water (one of the products) from the reaction mixture as
soon as it is formed. Note that it is the C—OH bond of the carboxylic acid that breaks up during esterification.
O O
18 H+ 18
C6H5 — C —— OH + CH3O ——H C6H5—C—O CH3 + H2O
Esterification through acid chloride gives better results when tert-alcohols are used as one of the components
because in the direct esterification, the acid used may cause dehydration by elimination reaction.
(c) Conversion into amides. Acids are converted into amides by treating acid chlorides with ammonia, primary amines,
and secondary amines.
SOCl NH
RCOOH ¾¾¾¾
2 ® RCOCl ¾¾¾
3
® RCONH2
SOCl NH 3
C6H5CH2COOH ¾ ¾ ¾2 ® C6H5CH2COCl C6H5CH2CONH2
Phenylacetic acid Phenylacetal chloride Phenylacetamide
(Phenacyl chloride)
(iii) Formation of Anhydrides : It is prepared by the reaction of acetic acid with ketene (CH2 = C = O), which in turn
is prepared by high temperature dehydration of acetic acid.
AlPO , 700°C
CH 3 COOH
CH3COOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾
4
® CH2 = C = O ¾¾ ¾¾¾ ¾® (CH3CO)2O
- H 2O
Acid anhydrides, in general, can be prepared by treating acyl chloride with —COOH in the presence of pyridine or by
treating sodium salts of carboxylic acids with acyl chlorides.
RCOCl + R¢COOH (or R¢COONa) ¾¾¾® [Link]¢ + HCl (or NaCl)
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-29
(v) Halogenation of a-Hydrogens : Aliphatic carboxylic acids react with bromine or chlorine in the persence of
phosphorus (or a phosphorus halide) to give a-halo acids, the reaction as known as Hell-Volhard-Zelinski (or HVZ)
reaction.
Cl
Cl2, P Cl2, P
RCH2COOH ¾ ¾ ¾ ® RCHCOOH ¾ ¾ ¾ ® R C COOH
Cl Cl
The function of phosphorus is to convert a little of the acid into acid halide which is the actual molecule on which
halogenation takes place and not on acid itself. Specific halogenation at a-position is due to formation of enols which
are readily formed by acyl halides than from carboxylic acids itself.
: :
O O OH
P + Br2 ¾¾®
RCH2 — C ¾¾¾¾® RCH2 — C ¾® ¾ RCH = C
(PBr3)
OH Br Br
Acyl bromide Enol form
Br—Br
O O
H2O
RCH — C ¾¾¾¾® RCH — C + HBr
Br OH Br Br
Harpp reaction is the modification of HVZ reaction. This reaction involves a-halogenation of carboxylic acid with
N-halosuccinimide in presence of HCl or HBr and SOCl2.
O O
SOCl2 HX
RCH 2 COOH ¾¾¾¾ ® RCH2COCl + N—X ¾¾® RCHCOCl + NH
X
O O
(X = Cl or Br)
Halogenation occurs specifically at the a-carbon ; because of this regioselectivity and the ease with which it takes
place, HVZ reaction is of considerable importance in synthesis.
(vi) Decarboxylation of Carboxylic Acids : The loss of a molecule of carbon dioxide from a carboxylic acid is known
as decarboxylation.
RCOOH ¾¾¾® RH + CO2
O
ôô
CH 3 – C – ONa + NaOH + CaO ¾¾® CH 4 + Na 2CO3
144244 3
Soda lime Methane
O
C – ONa + NaOH
¾¾¾¾
®
CaO,D + Na2CO3
C-30 Chemistry
heat
(ii) (CH 3 COO) 2 Ca ¾¾® CH 3 COCH 3 + CaCO3
Cal. acetate Acetone
heat
(iii) (CH 3 COO) 2 Ca + (HCOO) 2 Ca ¾¾® 2CH 3CHO + 2CaCO3
Cal . accetate Cal . formate Acetaldehyde
CH2CH2COO
(iv) Ca heat
O + CaCO3
CH2CH2COO
(e) Sodium formate on heating gives sodium oxalate and hydrogen.
COONa
300°C
2HCOONa ¾¾¾¾
® ï + H2
COONa
(f ) Silver salt of a carboxylic acid on heating with bromine gives alkyl halide (Hunsdiecker reaction).
CCl , heat
RCOOAg + Br2 ¾¾¾¾¾
4 ® R — Br + CO 2 + AgBr
KMnO4
hot
No hydrogen atom
KMnO4
heat No reaction
(ii) Side chain, like —CH2Cl, —CH2OH, and —CH2NH2, attached to benzene ring is also oxidised to —COOH group.
CH2X COOH
KMnO4
(iii) Presence of electron withdrawing group like —NO 2 makes the ring resistant to oxidation, while presence of electron-
repelling group like —NH2 makes the benzene ring susceptible to oxidation.
NO2 NO2
HOOC
oxidation Ring B containing —NO2
A B ¾¾¾¾® B group is retained
HOOC
NH2
COOH
oxidation Ring B containing —NH2
A B ¾¾¾¾® A group is oxidised
COOH
PROPERTIES
Physical Properties
(i) It is a crystalline solid (M.P. 122ºC)
(ii) Sparingly soluble in cold water but rapidly in hot water, also, soluble in organic solvents like alcohol, ether, etc.
Chemical Properties
(i) Acidity of aromatic acids : Benzoic acid itself is somewhat stronger acid than acetic acid. Its carboxyl group is
attached to an sp2 hybridized carbon and ionizes to a greater extent than one that is attached to an sp3 hybridized
carbon (recall that carbon becomes more electron-withdrawing as its s character increases).
Moreover, benzoate anion is more stable, due to presence of benzene ring, than acetate ion.
– – – – – – –
O = C—O O—C—O O—C—O O—C—O
+ +
+
Resonance in benzoate anion due to benzene ring
O O
C C
sp2 OH OH
O O
sp 3
; H3C—C H3C C
–
OH O
—COOH group attached –ve charge on O —COOH group on –ve charge on O
dispersesed intensified
on sp2C, hence more sp3 C, hence less
(hence more stable) (hence less stable)
electronegative electronegative
Like aliphatic acids, acidity of aromatic acids is affected by substituents : electron-releasing groups like —CH3,
—OH and NH2 make benzoic acid weaker, while electron-withdrawing groups like —Cl, —NO 2, —CN, etc. make
benzoic acid stronger.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-33
OH OH
G G
O2N NO2
Fuming
G (—NO2, —Cl; —CN) G (—CH3, —OH; —NH2, —OCH3)
withdraws electrons, disperses releases electrons, intensifies –ve HNO3
–ve charge on O, stabilises the charge on O, destabilises the anion
anion, hence strengthens acidity hence weakens acidity COOH NO2
(ii) Substitution in benzene nucleus : As described
earlier, —COOH group is m-directing and deactivating USES
group, so substitution takes palce in meta- position (i) As an antiseptic
and require stronger conditions.
(ii) Sodium benzoate for the preservation of food products,
COOH COOH etc.
(iii) In manufacturing of many synthetic dyes
Br 2, Fe
heat
(iv) In the form of esters, benzoic acid is used in perfume
Br industry.
COOH COOH
ILLUSTRATION 8 :
Conc. HNO 3 A hydrocarbon of the molecular formula C6H10 has
Conc. H2SO4, heat
two isomers ; X and Y. On oxidation X gives butanoic
NO2 acid and ethanoic acid, while Y gives 1, 6-hexanedioic
acid. Assign structures to X and Y.
COOH COOH
Sol. Molecular formula C6H10 indicates that it has two degree
Conc. H2SO4
of unsaturation which may be in the form of a triple
heat bond or one double bond and one ring. Proceed
SO3H backward from the oxidation product(s) in each case.
When some activating group e.g., —OH is present oxidation
n-C3H7COOH + CH3COOH ¬¾¾¾¾ n-C3 H 7 C º CCH 3
along with —COOH, substitution occurs w.r.t. —OH [X]
and —COOH group is replaced by the new group. For
example, COOH ¬¾¾¾
COOH
OH OH 1, 6-Hexanedioic acid Cyclohexene
COOH Br Br [Y]
Br2 water ILLUSTRATION 9 :
An organic compound with the molecular formula
Br
C9H10O forms 2, 4-DNP derivative, reduces Tollen’s
reagent and undergoes Cannizzaro reaction. On
vigorous oxidation, it gives 1, 2-benzenedicarboxylic
OH OH acid. Identify the compound.
COOH COOH Sol. The given reactions indicate the compound C H O to
Br 2 9 10
be an aromatic aldehyde with another carbon-substitu-
CH 3 COOH
ent at carbon number 2 (of the ring). Then,
Br Substituent =C6H4 – (CHO) = C2H5
C-34 Chemistry
H+ , (–H 2O)
rearrangement
CH3 CH3
| | +
CH3 – C – CH2OH ¾¾¾® CH3 – C – CH2
| |
CH3 CH3
Neopentyl alcohol 1° Carbocation
Mechanism of conversion of R+ to RCOOH by means of CO
– + + H O
R+ + : C º O : ¾¾¾® R–CºO: ¾¾¾2 ® R–C=O
– H+ |
Acylium ion
(every atom has octet) OH
Carboxylic acid
O O O O
R—C R—C R—C R—C
Cl O NH2 OR
R—C
O
Acid chloride Acid anhydride Amide Ester
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-35
O
||
They all contain the acyl group R ¾ C ¾ , and may be hydrolyzed to the parent acid using dilute OH– or H3O+.
O O O
+ –
R—C ; R—C + H2O H or OH R—C + HX
¾¾¾®
X OH
Acyl group Carboxylic acid Water Carboxylic acid Conjugate acid
derivative of the leaving group, X
O O
P P
R - C - OH + PCl5 ¾¾¾® R - C - Cl + HCl + POCl3
O O
|| ||
Ex. CH3 - C - OH + PCl5 ¾¾¾® CH 3 - C - Cl + HCl + POCl3
O
P
3C6H5COOH + PCl3 ¾¾¾® 3C6H5 – C – Cl + H3PO3
(ii) With Thionylchloride :
O O
P Pyridine P
R - C - OH + SOCl2 ¾¾¾¾® R - C - Cl + HCl + SO 2
O O
P P
Pyridine
Ex. CH 3 - C - OH + SOCl 2 ¾¾¾¾® CH3 - C - Cl + HCl + SO 2
Cl O
O ||
|| C – Cl + SO2 + HCl
C –– O + S = O ¾¾®
H Cl
Mechanism :
(i) with SOCl2 O– O
O O S Cl
O S
Cl O Cl
S ¾¾® ¾¾®
R OH + H H
Cl R O
+ R O
Cl +
O
S O
O Cl
¾¾® ¾¾® + SO2 + HCl
H
R O R Cl
Cl
C-36 Chemistry
Cl Cl Cl Cl
O Cl Cl P P
O Cl O Cl
+ P ¾¾® ¾¾®
R OH Cl Cl
Cl Cl
R O–H – R O: H – Cl
Cl Cl
+
unstable intermediate
¬¾¾
O
Cl Cl Cl Cl
R Cl P P
+ ¬¾¾ O Cl ¬¾¾ O
Cl Cl Cl Cl
H +
O=P Cl R O R
Cl OH
Cl
Cl –
(b) Preparation of Acid Anhydrides
(i) Of the four carboxylic acid derivatives, acid anhydrides are less reactive (i.e. more stable) only from acid chlorides;
hence acid anhydrides can be prepared only from acid chlorides.
O O O O
ïï ïï Pyridine
ïï ïï
R — C— Cl + HO — C— R ¢ ¾¾¾¾® R — C— O — C— R ¢ + HCl
This method is applicable to the preparation of both symmetrical (R and R¢ are same) and mixed anhydrides.
(ii) Cyclic anhydrides can sometimes be prepared by simply heating the appropriate dicarboxylic acid. However, this
method succeeds, only when anhydride formation leads to a five- or six -membered ring.
O O O O
OH ¾300°C
¾¾® OH ¾130°C
¾¾®
O : O
OH OH
O O O O
Succinic acid Succinic anhydride Maleic acid Maleic anhydride
O O
OH ¾230°C
¾¾® O
OH
O O
Phthalic acid Phthalic anhydride
(iii) The most important member of acid anhydrides, acetic anhydride, is prepared by the reaction of acetic acid with
ketene, CH2 = C = O, which itself is prepared by high temperature dehydration of acetic acid.
AlPO , 700° C
4 CH3COOH
CH3COOH ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
®
( - H 2 O) CH2 = C = O ¾¾¾¾¾ ® (CH 3CO) 2 O
Acetic anhydride
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-37
3. Preparation of Esters
Esters are usually prepared by the reaction of alcohols (or phenols) with acids or acid chlorides.
(i) From Carboxylic Acids (Esterification) : Carboxylic acids react with alcohols to form esters through a condensation
reaction known as esterification, or Fischer esterification.
O O
½½ ½½
R— C ¾ OH + R¢—OH R— C ¾ OR ¢ + H2O
Mechanism of esterification. This is a typical mechanism of acid-catalyzed nucleophilic addition-elimination at acyl carbon
atom.
O O
P HA P
¾¾¾
® C6 H 5 - C - O - CH 3 + H 2O
C6 H5 - C – OH + H - O - CH 3 ¬¾¾
¾
The essential steps of the mechanism are summarised below.
OH
:
+
O:
:
:
O
:
+
+
: :
: :
:
R — C — OH + H R — C — OH R — C — OR¢
H
+
R¢OH
OH
Carboxylic acid accepts Alcohol attacks the protonated A proton is lost at
proton from strong carbonyl group to give a one oxygen and gained
acid catalyst tetrahedral intermediate at another
+
:
:
OH : O — H + H2O: O:
:
:
+
: :
R — C — OR¢ R — C — OR¢ R — C — OR¢ + H3O :
+ OH
R — C — Cl + R¢ OH ¾ ¾ ® R — C — OR¢ +
N N Cl–
:
H+
Aromatic acid chlorides (ArCOCl) are considerably less reactive than the aliphatic acid chlorides.
(RCO)2O + R¢OH ¾¾® RCOOR¢ + RCOOH
(iii) Transesterification : When an ester is treated with an alcohol in presence of acid (H2SO4 or dry HCl) or base
(usually alkoxide ion), alcoholysis (cleavage by an alcohol) of an ester takes place to form new ester.
O O
½½ ½½
R— C ¾ OR ¢ + R²OH R— C ¾ OR ² + R¢OH
High boiling High boiling Higher boiling Lower boiling alcohol
Since the reaction is reversible, to carry out the reaction toward completion, it is necessary either to use a large
excess of the alcohol or to remove one of the products from the reaction mixture (when the alcohol formed has low
boiling point).
(iv) Lactones: Those compound which have a hydroxyl group on a g or d carbon with respect to carboxylic acid group
lead to intramolecular esterification to give cyclic esters known as g or d lactones. This reaction is acid catalysed.
C-38 Chemistry
g a R
R OH HA
d b O
HO: O
O
:
4. Preparation of Amides
Among the four acid derivatives, amides are the least reactive, hence these can be prepared by treating acyl chlorides,
anhydrides, or esters with ammonia or amines (acylation of amines or ammonia). As expected, acid chlorides are the
most reactive and carboxylate ions are the least.
RCOCl + 2NH3
1442443 ¾¾® RCONH + NH Cl
2
1 : 2 molar ratio 4
(RCO) 2O + 2R¢ NH 2 +
144424443 ¾¾® RCONHR¢ + RCOO–H N R¢
1 : 2 molar ratio 3
RCOOR ¢ + R ²2 NH
144424443 ¾¾® RCONR ² + R¢OH
2
1 : 1 molar ratio
In industry, amides are more often made by heating ammonium salts of carboxylic acids.
NH3 evaporate to dryness
RCOOH ¾¾¾ ® RCOO– NH4+ ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® RCONH2 + H2O
Since carboxylate ion has low reactivity toward nucleophilic addition-elimination, further reaction does not take
place in aqueous solution. However, if the dry ammonium salt is heated, dehydration takes place forming amide.
PROPERTIES OF ACID DERIVATIVES
Physical Properties
(i) Amides have quite high boiling points because they are capable of forming strong intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
Since N, N-disubstituted amides cannot form hydrogen bonds to each other, they have lower melting and boiling
points.
R
H
C
O N H O N H---
C
H
R
(ii) Lower esters and amides are soluble in water as these are capable of forming hydrogen bonding with water.
(iii) Acid chlorides have sharp, irritating odors, at least partly due to their ready hydrolysis to HCl and carboxylic acids.
Low molecular weight esters are fairly volatile and have pleasant odors ; hence these are often used in the preparation
of perfumes and artificial flavourings.
1. Chemical Properties of Acyl Chlorides
(i) Since acyl chlorides are the most reactive of the acyl derivatives, they are easily converted to less reactive ones,
viz. anhydrides, esters, and amides and also acids very easily.
O O O
½½ - ½½ ½½
OH
R— C ¾ O- + Cl– ¬¾¾¾
H2O
R— C ¾ Cl ¾¾¾
2 ®HO R— C ¾ OH + HCl
O O O O
½½ ½½ ½½ ½½
R ¢OH
R—C ¾ OR ¢ ¬¾¾¾ R— C ¾ Cl NaCOOR¢
¾¾¾¾¾
® R — C ¾ O — C ¾ R ¢ + NaCl
base
O O O O
½½ ½½ RNH ½½ ½½
R— C ¾ NR 2 or R— C ¾ NHR ¬¾¾¾¾
2
R— C ¾ Cl ¾¾¾®
32NH R— C ¾ NH 2 + NH4Cl
or R 2 NH
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-39
Na / C H OH, or LiAlH , or
(v) Reduction : RCOOR¢ ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 5 4
H , Copper chromite
® RCH OH + R¢OH
2
2
high pressure, 150°C
Hydrogenolysis (cleavage by hydrogen) of esters may also be carried out by heating ester with H2 in presence of
Pd/C.
Pd/C
C6H5COOCH2C6H5 + H2 ¾¾¾ ® C6H5COOH + CH3C6H5
(vi) Due to acidic nature of a-hydrogens, esters when treated with a strong base (generally C2H5ONa) undergo condensation
to form b-keto ester (Claisen condensation).
O O O
½½ ½½ ½½
(i) C2 H5ONa/C2 H5OH
CH3 COC2 H 5 + CH3 COC2 H 5 ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ + ® CH 3 CCH 2 COOC 2 H 5 + C2H5OH.
(ii) H3O Ethyl acetoacetate *
(Acetoacetic ester)
H + or OH -
(vii) Esters hydrolysis : CH3COOC2H5 + H2O ¾¾¾® CH3COOH (or CH3COO–) + C2H5OH
Since acid catalyzed esterification and acid hydrolysis of esters are reversible, if we reverse the mechanism of
esterification (discussed earlier), we get the mechanism of acid catalyzed ester hydrolysis.
Mechanism of base promoted ester hydrolysis. Unlike acid catalyzed, base promoted hydrolysis of ester, also
known as saponification, forms an alcohol and sodium salt of the acid.
O O
½½ ½½
R— C ¾ OR ¢ + OH– ¾¾® R— C ¾ O – + R¢OH
The carboxylate ion is very unreactive toward nucleophilic substitution because it is quite stable and negatively
charged, hence base-catalyzed hydrolysis of ester is an irreversible reaction. Since base is consumed in the reaction,
we generally speak base-promoted rather than base-catalyzed. The base-promoted hydrolysis of an ester is also an
example of nucleophilic addition-elimination at the acyl carbon.
–
:
: O:
R
– slow ½
¾¾® ¾¾®
: :
C = O + : OH
: :
–
OH attacks the The tetrahedral intermediate
carbonyl carbon expels an alkoxide ion
(acyl-oxygen fission)
O O
½½ –
½
½ –
: :
: :
R—C—O—H
:
(iii) Hofmann degradation of amides : On treatment with bromine in basic solution, unsubstituted amides are
degraded to amines with one carbon atom less. This is a useful method for the preparation of 1° amines, and
discussed in detail in amines.
RCONH2 + Br2 + 4OH– ¾¾® RNH2 + 2Br– + CO32– + 2H2O
(iv) Conversion to imides : Compounds containing acidic as well as amide group in the same molecule at the two
ends when heated, lose a molecule of water and produce a cyclic compound in which two acyl groups have
become attached to nitrogen ; such compounds are called imides.
O
CONH2 CONH2
2NH3 H+
O
– +
COO NH 4 COOH
O
Phthalic anhydride Phthalamic acid
NH3, heat heat, 300 °C heat
NH
O
Phthalimide
ILLUSTRATION 11 :
7. (a) Arrange the following acid chlorides in decreasing order of reactivity to hydrolysis.
C6H5COCl, p-NO2C6H4COCl, p-CH3OC6H4COCl
(b) Arrange the following in the decreasing ease of alkaline hydrolysis.
CH3COOC2H5, CH3COCl, (CH3CO)2O and CH3CONH2.
COCl COCl COCl
NO2 OCH3
Greater the partial +ve charge on carbonyl carbon, higher is the reactivity of carbonyl group towards nucleophilic
substitution.
Lesser the basic character of the leaving group (Cl– < OCOCH3 < –OC2H5 < NH2–), more easily it is removed.
CH3COCl > (CH3CO)2O > CH3COOC2H5 > CH3CONH2
ILLUSTRATION 12 :
Describe simple chemical tests that would serve to distinguish between
(i) Acetyl chloride and acetic anhydride.
(ii) Benzoyl bromide and p-bromobenzoic acid.
(iii) Acetic anhydride and n-butyl alcohol.
Sol. (i) On reaction with water, acetyl chloride reacts with water and liberates HCl which is detected by giving a white
precipitate of AgCl on adding AgNO3. Acetic anhydride on reaction with water liberates only acetic acid and no
HCl.
(ii) Only benzoyl bromide (C6H5COBr) gives yellow precipitate of AgBr with alcoholic AgNO3.
(iii) Only acetic anhydride reacts with aq. NaHCO 3 solution and evolve CO2.
C-42 Chemistry
Points to Remember
(1) Beckmann Rearrangement :
Oximes on treatment with catalysts such as conc. H2SO4, SOCl2, PCl5, etc. undergo a rearrangement to form
substituted amides. This reaction is called Beckmann rearrangement.
O O
H5C6 CH3 H5C 6 CH3
(i) conc. H 2SO 4 (i) conc. H 2SO 4
C=N ¾¾¾¾¾¾® CH3 – C – NHC6H5 ; C=N ¾¾¾¾¾¾® C6H5 – C – NHCH3
(ii) H2 O (ii) H 2O
OH Acetanilide HO N-Methylbenzamide
(2) Decarboxylation of b -keto acids :
Carboxylic acids containing an EWG such as CO , – COOH or –NO2 at b-carbon atom wrt the – COOH group
readily undergo decarboxylation on heating. For ex :
O O O
P D
P P D
CH3 - C - CH 2 - COOH ¾¾ ® CH3 - C - CH3 + CO 2 HO - C- CH 2 - COOH ¾¾ ® CH3 - COOH + CO 2
b a b a
3-Oxobutanoic acid Propanone Malonic acid Acetic acid
(3) Claisen Condensation :
Esters containing a-H-atoms undergo self-condensation in presence of a strong base such as sodium ethoxide to
form b-ketoesters. For ex :
O O
P C2H 5ONa P
CH3 - C -OC2 H5 + H - CH 2COOC2 H5 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH3 - C - CH 2COOC 2 H 5 + C 2 H 5 OH
Ethyl acetate Ethylacetoacetate
(2 molecules) (b -ketoester)
(4) Comparative reactivity of Acid Derivatives :
The relative reactivities of different acid derivatives towards nucleophilic acyl substitution reactions follow the
order :
O O O O O
P P P P P
R - C - Cl > R - C - O - C - R ' > R - C - OR ' > R - C - NH 2
Acid chloride Anhydride Ester Amide
This order can be explained in terms of relative basic strength of the leaving groups (LG). Here, the LG’s are :
Cl- , R 'COO - , R 'O - and NH -2 . Their relative basic strength decrease in the order : NH -2 > R 'O - > R 'COO - > Cl -
Since stronger base is a poor LG, the ease with which these LG’s depart decreases in the reverse order, i.e.,
Cl - > R 'COO - > R 'O - > NH -2 .
Consequently, relative reactivities of the acid derivatives decrease in the order :
RCOCl > RCO - O - COR ' > RCOOR ' > RCONH 2
(5) Electron withdrawing nature of halogen : F > Cl > Br > I
Thus, the acidic strength decreases in the order :
FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > BrCH2COOH > ICH2COOH
Similarly : CCl3COOH > CHCl2COOH > CH2ClCOOH > CH3COOH
(6) Inductive effect is stronger at a-position than b-position; similarly at b-position it is more stronger than at
g-position.
Example : CH3 - CH 2 - CH - COOH > CH3 - CH - CH 2 - COOH > CH 2 - CH2 - CH 2 - COOH
| | |
Cl Cl Cl
(7) Relative acid strength in different compounds
RCOOH > HOH > ROH > HC º CH > NH3 > RH
(8) Greater the value of Ka or lesser the value of pKa stronger is the acid, i.e., pKa = – log Ka
(9) Acidic nature (Ka) µ 1/molecular weight.
HCOOH > CH 3COOH > C 2 H 5COOH
K a Value 1.77 ´ 10-5 1.75 ´ 10-5 1.3 ´ 10-5
(10) Formic acid is strongest of all fatty acids.
(11) Acetic acid is weak acid than sulphuric acid due to smaller degree of ionisation.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-43
42. Which of the following is best method for reducing 50. Cannizaro’s reaction is not given by :
3-bromopropanal to 1-bromopropane? CHO
(a) Wolf-Kishner reduction (a) CHO (b)
(b) Clemmensen reduction CH 3
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(c) CH3CHO (d) HCHO
(d) Stephen's reduction
51. The reaction,
43. Which one of the following reactions will not result in
the formation of carbon-carbon bond? Zn ( Hg )/Conc. HCl
CH 3CHO ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® CH 3CH 3 is
(a) Reimer-Tieman reaction
(b) Friedel Craft’s acylation (a) Cannizaro’s reaction (b) Rosenmund reduction
(c) Wurtz reaction (c) Wolf-Kishner reduction(d) Clemmensen reduction
(d) Cannizzaro reaction 52. When ethanal reacts with propanal in the presence of a
O OH base, the number of products formed is
HCN (a) 2 (b) 3
44. R C R (catalyst)
R C R (c) 4 (d) 5
CN 53. Which of the followng acts as a nucleophile in the aldol
condensation of ethanal?
Which of following can be used as a catalyst in the
above reaction? (i) OH– (ii) H2O (iii) –CH2CHO
O (a) only (ii) (b) (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the three
(a) Cl– (b) CH3 C O 54. Ketone upon treatment with Grignard reagent gives
(c) Et — O– (d) HSO4— (a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol
45. Which of the following gases does not form a ketone (c) tertiary alcohol (d) aldehyde
on treatment with dil H 2SO 4 and 1% HgSO4 ? 55. Tollen’s reagent and Fehling solutions are used to
(a) C 4 H 6 (b) C 2 H 2 distinguish between
(c) C 3 H 4 (d) All of these (a) acids and alcohols
OH OH H (b) alkanes and alcohols
(c) ketones and aldehydes
(1)NaOH O; (d) n-alkanes and branched alkanes
46. + (X) ¾¾¾¾
(2) H +
®
58. Rancidity of butter is due to the formation of (a) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true and
(a) butanoic acid (b) butene -1 statement 2 is the correct explanation for
(c) lactic acid (d) lactose statement 1
(b) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are true but
2 ® A ¾[Link]
KOH statement-2 is not the correct explanation for
59. CH3CH2COOH ¾¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® B. What is B?
red P
statement-1
(a) CH3CH2COCl (b) CH3CH2CHO (c) Statement 1 is true but statement 2 is false
(d) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are false
(c) CH2=CHCOOH (d) ClCH2CH2COOH.
66. The acid which contains the aldehyde group is
60. Strongest acid among the following is :
(a) acetic acid (b) formic acid
(a) CF3 COOH (b) CBr3 COOH (c) benzoic acid (d) propionic acid
(c) CH 3 COOH (d) CCl 3COOH 67. Formic acid is obtained when
61. Benzoic acid reacts with conc. HNO3 and H2SO4 to (a) calcium acetate is heated with conc. H2SO4
give : (b) calcium formate is heated with calcium acetate
(c) glycerol is heated with oxalic acid at 373 K
(a) 3-Nitrobenzoic acid
(d) acetaldehyde is oxidised with K2Cr2O7 and H2SO4.
(b) 4-Benzene sulphonic acid
68. When CH2 = CH — COOH is reduced with LiAlH4, the
(c) 4-Nitrobenzoic acid
compound obtained will be
(d) 2-Nitrobenzoic acid (a) CH2 = CH — CH2OH
62. The compound not soluble in acetic acid is : (b) CH3 — CH2 — CH2OH
(a) CaCO3 (b) CaO (c) CH3 — CH2 — CHO
(c) CaC2O4 (d) Ca(OH)2 (d) CH3 — CH2 — COOH
63. Consider the following transformations : 69. The correct acidity order of the following is
CaCO heat I OH COOH COOH
CH3COOH ¾¾¾¾
3® ¾® B ¾¾®
A ¾¾ 2
C OH
NaOH
OH Cl CH3
|
(a) CH 3- C - CH 3 (b) ICH2 — COCH3
| (I) (II) (III) (IV)
I (a) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)
(c) CHI3 (d) CH3I (b) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(c) (III) >(II) >(I) > (IV)
64. In a set of the given reactions, acetic acid yielded a
(d) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)
product C.
70. Select the acid(s) which cannot be prepared by Grignard
CH3 COOH + PCl5 ¾¾
® A ¾¾¾®
6 6 CH
B ¾¾¾¾¾
2 5 ®C
C H MgBr reagent.
[Link] 3 Ether
(a) Acetic acid (b) Succinic acid
Product C would be (c) Formic acid (d) All of the above
71. ¾® P , here P is
CH 3 CH = CHCOOH + HBr ¾
C2 H 5
| (a) CH 3 CHCH 2COOH (b) CH3 CH2 C HCOOH
(a) CH 3 - C (OH)C 6 H 5 (b) CH 3 CH (OH)C 2 H 5 | |
Br Br
(c) CH 3 COC 6 H 5 (d) CH 3 CH (OH ) C 6 H 5 (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None
72. The strongest acid among the following is –
65. Statement-1 : Acetic acid does not undergo haloform
(a) Salicylic acid
reaction.
(b) m-Hydroxybenzoic acid
Statement-2 : Acetic acid has no alpha hydrogen.
(c) p-Hydroxybenzoic acid
(d) Benzoic acid
C-48 Chemistry
73. Silver benzoate will react with bromine in CCl4 to form: 76. The decreasing order of ease of alkaline hydrolysis for
COOBr the following esters is
COOAg
(a) (b) COOC2H5
I
Br Br
COOH Cl COOC2H5
(c) (d)
II
O O O
(a) (c) CH — C — O –
3 + CH3 — C — Cl
CO2Et
O O
O (d) CH3 — C — O– + Cl — C — CH3
(b)
CO2Et
78. H2O18 + Na ® (A) + (B)
(base)
O
(c) O
O O
18
O–
–
(c) CH3 C (d) CH3 C O Na+
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-49
O CONH2
CO2Et COCH3
+
(i) H O
79. ¾¾¾¾ 3
® Product;
(ii) D
HOH2C
Product of the reaction is: CN
O O H
CH3 O O
(c) (d) O O
O
Br NH (alc.) OH - ,Cl
2 ® Product P is
81. CH 3CH 2 COOH ¾¾
¾2 ® X ¾¾ ¾
3 ¾
¾® Y 86. CH 3 COCH 2 Cl ¾¾ ¾ ¾
¾
Re d P
Y in the above reactions is (a) ClCH2COCH2Cl (b) CH3COCHCl2
(a) lactic acid (c) both a and b (d) ClCH2COOH + CH3Cl
(b) ethylamine 87. At high temperature iodoform reaction is given by –
(c) propylamine
(a) CH3COOCH3 (b) CH3COOC2H5
(d) alanine
(c) C6H5COOCH3 (d) CH3COOC6H5
82. The most suitable reagent for the given conversion is:
A
88. CH 3COOH ¾¾® CH 3 COCl . What is A ?
CH3 (a) PCl5 (b) Cl2 (c) HCl (d) COCl2
CONH2
C=O
?
¾¾®
HO2C
CN
C-50 Chemistry
CH3 C Cl + NH3 ¾¾
® Intermediate ¾¾
® product.
O
+ +
(a) (b) (a) C H3 NH 3 (b) CH3 C
OH O–
+ NH3 +NH3
6. The reactant (X) in the reaction
(c) (d)
CH COONa
(X) ¾¾¾¾¾
3 ¾® Cinnamic acid, is
(CH CO) O
3 2
(c)
NO2 CH3
(d) CH3OH and HCO2H (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
4. The cyanohydrin of a compound on hydrolysis gives
an optically active a-hydroxy acid. The compound is (a) (ii) > (iii) > (i) > (iv) (b) (ii) > (i) > (iv) > (iii)
(c) (iii) > (ii) > (i) > (iv) (d) (iii) > (i) > (iv) > (ii)
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-51
9. What is the final product (B) of this sequence? 13. The major product of the following reaction is:
CH3 CN
(i) DIBAL-H
Br2 1. KCN ¾¾¾¾¾®
+
¾¾¾
hight
® A ¾¾¾¾¾¾
+ ®B O (ii) H 3O
2. H 3O , heat
CH3 CO2H O
CO2H CHO CH = NH
(a) (b) (a) (b)
O OH
CH3 CH2CO2H
O OH
CHO CHO
(c) (d)
CO2H
(c) (d)
OH O
CH3
Br CHO
1. Mg/Ether
10. ¾¾¾¾¾¾®
+
A; 14. The major product obtained in the following reaction
2. H3O
3. KMnO 4 /OH - is:
4. H+
Product A is; O OH
COOH OH
OH CH3 LiAlH
(a) (b) ¾¾¾®
4
CH3 (excess)
COOH NO2 O
(c) (d)
O OH OH
11. How many cross aldol products (without counting
stereoisomers) are produced in the following reaction?
(a) (b)
O CH3 CH3
||
NaOH
CH3 - CH = O + CH3 - C - CH3 ¾¾¾¾ ®
NO2 OH NH2 OH
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1
12. The major product of the following reaction is:
OH OH
NaBH
¾¾¾®
4
OH (c) (d)
(a) CH3N CH3 CH3
OH
(b) CH N NH2 OH NO2 OH
3
COOH
19. Ozonolysis
(a) X +Y
(b)
O CH = CH – CHO Ozonolysis
C+D
CHO
B
(c)
From the ozonolysis products, the two isomers A and
OH
B can be distinguished with the help of
OHC (a) Fehling solution (b) Tollen’s reagent
(d) (c) Haloform test (d) Only spectroscopy
OH
O
16. In the presence of a small amount of phosphorus,
aliphatic carboxylic acids react with chlorine or HNO3
¾¾®
Ca(OH)2
(A) ¾¾¾® (B)
bromine to yield a compound in which a-hydrogen 20.
has been replaced by halogen. This reaction is known
Product (B) in this reaction is:
as :
O
(a) Wolff - Kishner reaction O
(b) Rosenmund reaction (a) (b)
(c) Etard reaction
(d) Hell - Volhard - Zelinsky reaction O O
17. The compound that undergoes decarboxylation most
readily under mild condition is (c) (d)
COOH COOH
21. Correct order of reactivity of following compounds
CH2COOH O towards Grignard reagent?
(a) (b)
O
O O
COOH CH2COOH CH3 C
CH3 C H H C H
COOH O (I) (II) (III)
(c) (d) (a) I > II > III (b) II > I > III
(c) II > III > I (d) I > III > II
OH 22. Which of the following pairs of reactants is most
effective in forming an enamine?
18. PCC
¾¾® dil. NaOH
(A) ¾¾¾® (B) O
D
(a) CH3CH2CH + [(CH3)2CH]2 NH
Product (B) is: O
O O
(b) + CH3 NH CH3
(a) (b)
O
(c) (CH3)3CCH + (CH3)2NH
O O
(d) None of these form an enamine.
(c) (d)
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-53
(a) (b)
N N
H H
(c) (d)
N O N OH
(a) (b)
H H
Å
Conc. KOH
CHO ¾¾¾¾¾ H
28. ® (A) ¾¾¾ ® (B)
D D
CHO Cyclic product
COOH
(a) O (b)
(b) CH2OH
(c)
O
O COOK
(c) (d)
CH2OH
(d)
C-54 Chemistry
29. Which of the following is the product of aldol 32. The compund having formula,
condensation?
O O
O OH O || ||
OH CH 3 - C- CH 2 - C - OC 2 H 5
(a) (b)
(a) forms dioxime
O O (b) undergoes iodoform test
HO
(c) (d) (c) both (a) & (b)
OH (d) neither of the two
33. The structure of the compound Y in the following
30. Which of the following reacts with (CH 3CH 2 ) 2 NH
reactions should be
to give the compound ?
CH 3 CH 2 CH = CHN (CH 2 CH 3 ) 2 CH3COCl
[X]
SeO2
[Y]
AlCl3
(a) CH 3 CH 2 CH 2 CH 2 Br
O COCH3 COOH
(b) CH3CH2 — C — CH3 (a) (b)
O
O
COCHO COCOOH
(c) CH3 — CH2CH2 — C — H
(c) (d)
O
(d) CH3CH2CH2 — C — OH 34. In which of the following, the number of carbon atoms
does not remain same when carboxylic acid is obtained
O by oxidation
+
H
31. X , most likely the compound X is (a) CH3COCH3 (b) CCl3CH2CHO
(c) CH3CH2CH2OH (d) CH3CH2CHO
R R
35. Polarization of electrons in acrolein may be written as:
OH OH
d- d+
(a) C H 2 = CH — CH = O
(a) (b)
R d+ d-
R R R (b) C H 2 = C H — CH = O
OH d+ d-
OH (c) C H 2 = CH — CH = O
R
(c) (d) R R
d- d+
R (d) C H 2 = C H — C H = O
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-55
Chapter Test 1
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true
2H
1. CH3 COCl ¾¾¾¾¾
® CH3CHO + HCl; (b) Both statement I and Statement II are true
Pd / BaSO4
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
The above reaction is called (d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
(a) Reimer-Tiemann reaction 7. Acetophenone is prepared by the reaction of which of
(b) Cannizzaro reaction the following in the presence of AlCl3 catalyst ?
(a) Phenol and acetic acid
(c) Resenmund reaction
(b) Benzene and acetone
(d) Reformatsky reaction (c) Benzene and acetyl chloride
2. Calcium acetate, on heating, gives : (d) Phenol and acetone
(a) Acetic anhydride (b) Acetone 8. Which of the following reaction can produce
(c) Acetaldehyde (d) Ethyl alcohol R – CO – Ar ?
AlCl3
3. Predict the product ‘B’ in the sequence of reactions (a) ArCOCl + H - Ar ¾¾¾®
30% H SO
CH º CH ¾¾¾¾¾®
2 4 A ¾¾¾¾
®B
NaOH (b) RCOCl + ArMgX ¾¾
®
% HgSO4
(c) ArCOCl + RMgX ¾¾
®
(a) CH3COONa (b) CH3COOH
AlCl3
(d) RCOCl + H - Ar ¾¾¾®
(c) CH3CHO (d) CH3 - CH - CH 2 - CHO 9. If formaldehyde and KOH are heated, then we get
|
OH (a) methane (b) methyl alcohol
4. In the scheme given below, how many number of (c) ethyl formate (d) acetylene
intramolecular aldol condensation products formed from 10. Which of the following compound gives a ketone with
Grignard reagent ?
‘Y’?
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Ethyl alcohol
1. O 1. NaOH (aq) (c) Methyl cyanide (d) Methyl iodide
¾¾¾¾®
3
Y ¾¾¾¾¾®
2. Zn, H2O 2. heat 11. Phenylmethyl ketone can be converted into ethylbenzene
in one step by which of the following reagents?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 (a) LiAlH4 (b) Zn-Hg/HCl
5. By which one of the following reaction ketones cannot (c) NaBH4 (d) CH3MgI
be prepared? 12. 2-Pentanone and 3-pentanone can be distinguished by :
(a) Hydration of alkynes (a) Cannizzaro reaction
(b) Aldol condensation
(b) Hydrolysis of gem-dihalides
(c) Iodoform reaction
(c) Dry distillation of calcium carboxylates (d) Clemmensen reduction
(d) Stephen's reaction 13. Which of the following is an example of aldol
6. Given below are two statements. condensation?
CH3
|
Statement I: Hydroxyketones are not directly used in (a) 2CH3COCH3 ¾¾¾¾¾
[Link]
® CH3C(OH)CH 2 COCH3
Grignard reaction.
dil. NaOH
Statement II: Grignard reagents react with hydroxyl (b) 2HCHO ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH3OH
group. dil. NaOH
(c) C6H5CHO + HCHO ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct C6H5CH2OH
answer from the options given below. (d) None of the above
C-56 Chemistry
14. Hydride ion transfer takes place in: (a) electronegativity difference of carbon and oxygen
(a) Frankland method atoms.
(b) Wurtz reaction (b) electromeric effect.
(c) Cannizzaro reaction (c) more stable anion with negative charge on oxygen
(d) Wolff-Kishner reduction atom and less stable carbonium ion.
15. Which is not true about acetophenone ? (d) None of these.
(a) It reacts with 2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazine to form
21. Methyl ethyl ketone is prepared by the oxidation of
2,4-dinitrophenylhydrazone.
(b) It reacts with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror. (a) 2-propanol (b) 1-butanol
(c) It reacts with I2/NaOH to form iodoform. (c) 2-butanol (d) t-butyl alcohol
(d) On oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by H SO
hydrolysis it gives benzoic acid. 22. CH3 - CH 2 - C º CH ¾¾¾¾
2 4® A
, the compound A
HgSO4
16. (CH3)2C = CHCOCH3 can be oxidised to
is
(CH3)2C = CHCOOH by
(a) Chromic acid (b) NaOI O
||
(c) Cu at 300ºC (d) KMnO4
(a) CH3 - CH 2 - C - CH3
17. Aldehydes and ketones are generally reduced by :
(a) Clemmensen reduction (b) CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CHO
(b) H2S
(c) H2/Ni (c) CH3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - COOH
(d) None of these
18. Match the columns . (d) None of these
Column-I Column-II O
H
(Reactions) (Reagents) 23. Ph C OH ¾¾® 2 SOCl
(A) ¾¾¾®2
(B)
Pd-BaSO4
(A) Benzophenone ® (p) LiAlH4
Product (B) is:
Diphenylmethane
O
(B) Benzaldehyde ® (q) DIBAL–H
1-Phenylethanol (a) Ph C H (b) Ph—CH2—OH
(C) Cyclohexanone ® (r) Zn(Hg)/Conc HCl (c) Ph—CH2—Cl (d) Ph—CH CH2
Cyclohexanol
(D) Phenyl benzoate ® (s) CH3MgBr
Integer/Numerical Value Type Questions
Benzaldehyde 24. How many of the following compound is
(a) A – (p), B – (s), C – (r), D – (q) decarboxylated on heating ?
(b) A – (q), B – (s), C – (p), D – (r)
CH 2 COOH
(c) A – (s), B – (r), C – (q), D – (p) (I) ½ (II) C2H5CH(COOH)2
(d) A – (r), B – (s), C – (p), D – (q) CH 2 COOH
19. Which one of the statements about
O
HOH2CCH(OH)CHO is not correct ? It
COOH
(a) is an isomer of 1, 3-dihydroxypropanone.
(III)CH3COCH2COOH (IV)
(b) contains a tertiary alcoholic group.
(c) has the same empirical formula as glucose i.e., 25. How many of the following compounds can be used
CH2O. as an acylating agent ?
(d) can show optical isomerism. (I) CH3COCl (II) (CH3CO)2O
20. Carbonyl compounds undergo nucleophilic addition (III)CH3COOH (IV)CH3CH2COCl.
reaction because of
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-57
(c) (d)
(a) (b)
O
KOH
5. (P) ¾¾¾®
D
KOH
(c) (d) (Q) ¾¾¾ ® Ph—CH2—OH + Ph— CO-2
D
O
(R) ¾¾®
3
P + Q, Structure of (R) is:
CH3
(a) Ph CH CH CH 3 (b) Ph CH C
CH3
O3 NH2 NH2
2. C16H16 ¾® (B) ¾¾¾¾®
HO–/D ; CH3 CH3
C8H8O
(A)
(c) Ph C CH CH3 (d) Ph C CH2
Reactant (A) in this reaction is:
Ph CH3 Ph CH3 6. Which of the following is true regarding preparation of
(a) C C (b) C C aldehydes and ketones?
Ph CH3 CH3 Ph (i) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the
Ph Ph concerned alcohol with copper at about 250ºC.
(c) C C (d) both (b) and (c) (ii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of the
CH3 CH3 concerned alcohol by Oppenauer oxidation.
3. The major product in the following reaction is: (iii) Both can be prepared by the oxidation of respective
alcohol with acidic dichromate.
(a) (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) All the three
OH O
PCC NH2 NH C NH2
O 7. Ph CH CH 3 (A) (B)
CH3
4. In the following reaction A is: O
H O
(i) Br2, hv
(c) Ph CH N N C NH NH2
(ii) KOH (alc.)
A ¾¾¾¾¾¾® CH3
(iii) O3
(iv) (CH3)2S O
(v) NaOH(aq) + D
(d) Ph CH N C NH2
C-58 Chemistry
D
(a) A = CH3 ; B = CH3
9. ¾¾
® (A) ¾¾¾¾¾
Zn(Hg)/HCl
® (B)
O HO
H O
In the above reaction, product (B) is: O O
CH3 CH3
(b) A = CH3 ; B = CH3
(a) (b)
HO
O
(c) (d) O
OH C CH3
H3C H H
CºCH 2+
(c) A = ;B =
H2SO4, Hg
10. A, H3C H3C
CH3 CH3
O
CºCH 2+ O O
H 2SO4, Hg OH H2C
B
H3C H H
(d) A = ;B =
The respective compounds A and B are
H3C H3C
O
COCH3 CH3 CH3
COCH3
(a) and CrO2 Cl2 [Link]
13. Ph—CH3 ¾¾¾¾ ® (A) ¾¾¾¾¾ ®
O Ph—CH2OH + (B)
CH2CHO CH2CHO Product (B) of above the reaction is :
(b) and (a) Ph — CO2H (b) PhCO2–
(c) Ph — CHO (d) PH — CH3
O OH
COCH3 CH2CHO PCC OH PCC
14. ¾¾® (A); ¾¾® (B)
(c) and
(A) and (B) are differentiated by:
O (a) NaH (b) 2,4 DNP
CH2CHO COCH3 (c) Tollen's reagent (d) NaHSO3
(d) and 15. The final product (III) obtained in the reaction
sequence–
11. An ester (A) with molecular fomula, C9H10O 2 was PCl
3® I
CH3 - CH 2 - COOH ¾¾¾
treated with excess of CH3MgBr and the complex so
formed was treated with H2SO4 to give an olefin (B). 6 6C H /AlCl
3 ® II ¾¾¾¾¾
2 2 ® III NH - NH
¾¾¾¾¾¾
Ozonolysis of (B) gave a ketone with molecular formula base/heat
C8H8O which shows positive iodoform test. The
structure of (A) is (a) CH 2 – CH 2 – CH 3
(a) C6H5COOC2H5
(b) C2H5COOC6H5
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-59
CH3
(b) CH – CH2 – CH3
dil. KMnO HIO OH-
¾¾¾¾¾
4 ® A ¾¾¾®
4 B ¾¾¾® C
OH
CH3
O
||
(c) C – O CH2 – CH3 O
CHO
O
|| (a) (b)
(d) C – CH2 – CH3 CH3 CH3
16. The major products of the following reaction are:
CHO
CH3 CHO
|
(i)KO t Bu / D (c) (d)
CH3 - CH - CH - CH3 ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
| (ii)O3 / H 2 O 2
OSO2 CH3 CHO
CH3
O O
(a)
CH3 O PhMgBr
3 CH MgBr
2 ¾ H + /H O
19. ¾¾¾¾® ¾¾¾¾¾
® ¾¾¾¾ ®
(1 eq.) (1 eq.) (2 eq.)
CH3
(b) + CH3COOH O
CH3 O Product.
The product formed in the reaction is –
CH3
+ HCHO OH OH
(c)
O O
CH3 CHO || ||
(a) Me Ph (b) Me - C - C - Ph
CH3
(d) + HCOOH O
CH3 COOH
OH O O
17. The suitable reaction steps to carry out the following | || ||
transformation (c) Me - C - COOH (d) Ph - C - C - O - Me
|
? ? H Ph
¾¾¾® ¾¾¾®
O 20. Which of the following reaction is possible ?
(i ) BH 3 , THF PCC (i) CH 3COCl + H 2O ® CH 3COOH + HCl
(a) ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾® ¾¾¾®
(ii ) H 2O 2 , NaOH CH 2Cl 2
(ii) CH 3COOCH3 + HBr ® CH 3COBr + CH 3OH
(i ) BH 3 , THF
(b) ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾ ¾¾® ¾¾¾® HIO4
(iii) CH 3CONH 2 + HBr ® CH 3COBr + NH 3
(ii ) H 2O 2 , NaOH
H2 O, H2SO4
(iv) CH 3COOCOCH 3 + H 2O ® 2CH 3COOH
(c) ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ® ¾PCC
¾¾®
CH 2Cl 2 (a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv) (d) All the four
OsO4 K Cr O , H SO
(d) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾–
® ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 2 7 2 4® 21. The increasing order of the rate of HCN addition to
(CH3 )3 [Link], OH H2 O
compounds, A – D is
18. Suggest appropriate structures for the missing final (A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3
compound. (The number of carbon atom remains the (C) PhCOCH3 (D) PhCOPh
same throughout the reaction) (a) D < C < B < A (b) C < D < B < A
(c) A < B < C < D (d) D < B < C < A
C-60 Chemistry
22. The major products of the following reaction are : 25. The best combination of reagents for carrying out the
conversion
RCH2CH2OH ® RCH2CH2COOH is
3
(a) PBr3, KCN, H3O+ (b) PBr3, KCN, H2/Pt
(c) KCN, H3O + (d) PBr3, H3O+
3
26. The major product [R] in the following sequence of
reactions is :
(i) LiNH2/ether
HC º CH ¾¾¾¾¾® [P]
(ii) H3C
CH – Br
(a) (CH3)2CH
(i) HgSO4/H2SO4 Conc. H2SO4
¾¾¾¾¾® [Q] ¾¾¾¾® [R]
(ii) NaBH4 D
H2C
OH
| Identify the correct sequence:
(c) CH 3CH = C COOH (d) CH 3CH 2 C HCH 3 CH2 OH
|
CH3 (A) = (B) = NaBH4
OH CH2 OH
Ni/3H
(C) = KMnO4 (D) = H3O+
Cu
31. ¾¾¾¾¾
2
® (A) ¾¾® (B) (a) A, C, B, D (b) A, D, B, C
(High temp
& pressure)
(c) A, B, D, C (d) A, B, C, D
NH OH H+ HO – O
¾¾¾¾
2
® (C) ¾¾¾ ® (E) ¾¾
® (D) ¾¾¾ ®
(i) SOCl
34. Ph CH CH C O H ¾¾ ¾ ¾®2 (A);
polymer; (ii) NH 2
Product (E) is:
(a) Nylon 66 (b) Nylon 6 Product (A) of the reaction is:
(c) Styrene (d) Polystyrene
O
O (a) Ph CH CH C CH2 NH
C
PCl5 LiAlH 4
32. O ¾¾¾ ® (A) ¾¾¾¾ ® (B) O
C (b) Ph CH CH C NH
O
PCC HO –
¾¾¾ ® (C) ¾¾¾
D
® (D) O
What is the final product (D) of the sequence? (c) Ph CH CH C H
CH2 OH CO2–
(d) Ph CH CH NH
(a) (b)
CO2– CO2– 35. Identify X in the following sequence of reactions?
CH2 OH CH2 O–
(c) (d) C4 H 7OCl ¾¾¾
3 NH
® C 4 H 9ON ¾¾¾¾
2
® CH3CH2CH2NH 2
Br , KOH
CH2 OH CH2 O– (X)
(a) (CH3)2CHCOCl
(b) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH2Cl
(c) CH3CH2CH2COCl
(d) ClCH2CH2CH2CHO
C-62 Chemistry
Chapter Test 2
1. Acetophenone when reacted with a base, C2H5ONa, CHO
yields a stable compound which has the structure. 5.
(i) KOH/D
[X] . What is [X]?
(ii) H2O/H +
— C = CH – C —
(a) CHO
CH3 O
CH2 – OH CHO
— CH – CH2C —
(b) (a) (b)
CH O
CH33CH3 COOH COOH
O O
O
(i) O3 (a) yellow ppt. of CHI3,
(C) ¾¾¾¾¾
(ii) Zn, H2O
® + H
O COOH
O
The ketone (A) is:
(b) yellow ppt. of CHI3,
CHO
(a) (b)
O O O
(c) yellow ppt. of CHI3,
(c) (d)
O O
COOH
11. What is the product of the following reaction ? (d) yellow ppt. of CHI3, COOH
CHO
14. The order of reactivity of phenyl magnesium bromide
| (PhMgBr) with the following compounds
NaCN , ethanol
¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾¾®
dil. HCl H3C H3C Ph
C=O, C=O and C=O
| H3C
Br H Ph
I II III
OH OH (a) III > II > I (b) II > I > III
H CN H Cl (c) I > III > II (d) I > II > III
(a) (b) 15. Which of the following is not a good method to make
2, 2- dimethyl propanoic acid ?
Mg
Br Br (a) (CH 3 ) 3 CBr ¾¾¾ ® ¾CO
¾¾ 2®
Et OEt H 2O ,H +
CN OH NaCN +
H H H Cl (b) (CH 3 ) 3 CBr ¾¾ ¾® ¾H
¾ O, H
¾2 ¾ ¾®
D
(c) (d) (c) (CH 3 ) 3 C - C º CH ¾¾®
¾
H O
¾¾2¾®
O3
K Cr O , H SO
Br Br (d) (CH 3 ) 3 CCH 2OH ¾¾2¾2¾7¾2¾¾
4®
H 2O D
C-64 Chemistry
C H OH
C ¾¾
2 ¾
5 ¾® D
+
O O H
Identify D :
(c) O (d)
OH HO CH2 – CH – COOC 2H5
(a)
18. Given below are two statements. Br
Statement I: The p-chlorobenzoic acid is stronger than
benzoic acid. Br
Statement II: This is due to –I effect of chlorine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct (b)
answer from the options given below. Br
(a) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true CH2 COOC2H5
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(c) Both Statement I and Statement II are false COOH COOC2H5
(d) Statement I is correct but statement II is false
19. In a set of reactions, acetic acid yielded a product D. (c) (d)
CH3COOH ¾¾¾¾
SOCl2
® (A) ¾¾¾¾® (B)
Benzene OCH2CH3 Br
AlCl3
22. The intermediate formed when CH3COOH react with
HCN
¾¾¾® (C) ¾¾¾® (D)
HOH CH3CH2OH
The structure of (D) would be – OH OH
COOH
(a) H 3C OH (b) H 3C OH
CH2 – C – CH3
(a) CH 2 CH 3 OCH 2 CH 3
OH
OCH 2 CH 3 OCH 2 CH 3
CN (c) H 3C OH (d) H 3C OH
C – CH3
OCH 2 CH 3 CH 2 CH 3
(b)
OH
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-65
X
Cu
573K
A
[Ag(NH3)2]
– OH/D
+
( )
NH2 – NH – C – NH2
!
Z (d) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2
Identify A, X, Y and Z
(a) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanol, Y-Ethanoic acid, 13. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points than aldehydes,
Z-Semicarbazide. ketones and even alcohols of comparable molecular
(b) A-Ethanal, X-Ethanol, Y-But-2-enal, mass. It is due to their [2018]
Z-Semicarbazone (a) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
(c) A-Ethanol, X-Acetaldehyde, Y- Butanone, (b) Formation of carboxylate ion
Z- Hydrazone (c) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(d) A-Methoxymethane, X-Ethanoic acid, Y-Acetate (d) More extensive association of carboxylic acid via
ion, Z-hydrazine. van der Waals force of attraction
10. The correct sequence of reagents for the following 14. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following
conversion will be : [2017] sequence of reactions: [2018]
Anhydrous
O HO CH3 AlCl
+ CH3CH2CH2Cl ¾¾¾¾®
3
(i) O
P ¾¾¾¾®
2
+ Q+R
(ii) H3O /D
HO CH3 P Q R
CHO CH3 CH2CH2CH3 CHO
(a) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH–, H+/CH3OH, CH3MgBr
(b) CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH– (a) , , CH3CH2 – OH
(c) CH3MgBr, [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH–, H+/CH3OH
(d) [Ag(NH3)2]+ OH–, CH3MgBr, H+/CH3OH CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
11. The major product obtained in the following reaction
is : [2017] (b) , ,
O
OH
O CH(CH3)2
(c) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
DIBAL–H
CH(CH3)2 OH
(d) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
COOH
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-67
15. The major product of the given reaction is: [2018] 19. The major product of the following reaction is :[2019]
(i) OHC CH COCl O
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 ®
(ii) H 2SO4 , heat NaBH
MeO OH ¾¾®
EtOH
4
OMe O
OH OH
(a) (b)
MeO O O
O (a) (b)
O OMe
OEt
(c) (d) O OH
MeO O O O
16. The major product B formed in the following reaction (c) (d)
sequence is: [2018]
20. The aldehydes which will not form Grignard product
CHO
(i) C H MgBr HCl with one equivalent of Grignard reagent are : [2019]
¾¾¾¾¾¾®
2 5 A ¾¾¾
®B
(ii) H2 O CHO
MeO
(A)
(a)
Cl Cl CHO
(B)
(b) HO2C
MeO
CHO
(c) (C)
MeO H3COC
Cl CHO
(D)
(d)
HOH2C
MeO (a) (B), (D) (b) (B), (C)
17. Which of the following compounds will most readily be (c) (B), (C), (D) (d) (C), (D)
dehydrated to give alkene under acidic condition? [2018] 21. Identify compound X in the following sequence of
(a) 4-Hydroxypentan-2-one reactions [2020]
(b) 3-Hydroxypentan-2-one CHO
(c) 1-Pentanol
(d) 2-Hydroxycyclopentanone Cl /hv H O
¾¾®
2
X ¾¾®
2
18. The increasing order of the acidity of the following 373K
carboxylic acids is: [2018]
CH2Cl CHCl2
CO2H CO2H CO2H CO2H
(a) (b)
NO2 OH Cl CCl2 Cl
I II III IV
(a) III < II < IV < I (b) I < III < II < IV (c) (d)
(c) IV < II < III < I (d) II < IV < III < I
C-68 Chemistry
22. What is the product of following reaction? [2020] (a) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
Hex-3-ynal (b) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(i) ¾¾¾¾NaBH4 (ii) PBr3 (c) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
®
(d) A - (i), B - (iv), C - (iii), D - (ii)
(iii) Mg/ether (iv) CO2/H3O+
25. Identify products A and B [2021]
(a) COOH
CH3
(b) COOH dil. KMnO4 CrO3
(c) COOH A B
273 K
(d) COOH CH3 CH3
23. The intermediate compound 'X' in the following (a) A : OH
B:
chemical reaction is:
OH O
CH3
CS H O+ CH3 CH3
+ CrO2 Cl2 ¾¾¾
2
® X ¾¾¾®
3
(b) A : B:
O OH OH
OH O
C
H [2021] O
CH(OCOCH3)2 OH O
(c) 26. Which of the following reagent is used for the following
reaction? [2021]
Cl CH 3CH 2 CH 3 ¾¾
?
® CH 3CH 2CHO
CH
(d) Cl (a) Manganese acetate
(b) Copper at high temperature and pressure
24. Match List-I with List-II (c) Molybdenum oxide
List-I List-II (d) Potassium permanganate
CO, HCl O
(A) ¾ ¾¾¾¾¾® (i) DiBAl-H
Anhyd. AlCl /CuCl
3 27. EtO — C — H 2C CH 2CH 2CN ¾¾¾¾® ?
(ii) H2O
(i) Hell-Volhard-
Zelinsky reaction Consider the above reaction and predict the major
product. [2022]
O
|| (a) OHC — H 2C CH 2CH2CHO
(B) R - C - CH3 + (ii) Gattermann-
NaOX ¾¾ ® Koch reaction O
(C) R — CH2 — OH (iii) Haloform
+R¢ COOH reaction (b) EtO — C — H2C CH2CH2CHO
Conc. H SO
¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 4
®
O
(D) R — CH2 COOH (iv) Esterification
(i) X / Re d P (c) EtO — C — H2C CH2CH2COOH
¾¾¾¾¾¾
( )
2
® [2021]
ii H 2O
Choose the correct answer from the options given (d) OHC — H 2C CH2CH 2COOH
below.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-69
(a) OH (b) O
CHO CH2 Cl
O O (c) (d)
OH O
31. Highest enol content will be shown by : [2024]
OH
(c) O (d) O
OH O O
OH O (a) (b)
O O
O
O
AlCl3 Zn–Hg O
29. + O ¾¾® A ¾¾® B [2024]
HCl O O
(c) (d)
O Conc.H2SO4
C O
What is the structure of C ? 32. Which of the following has highly acidic hydrogen?
O [2024]
O
(a)
C CH3
(a) H 3C C
O O
C OH O
C (b) H 3C CH2
(b) C
C CH2 CH3
O
O
CH2 OH
C CH3
(c) (c) H 3C
O
O O
(b)
(a) I > II > III > IV (b) II > I > IV > III
(c) I > III > II > IV (d) III > II > I > IV
6. Choose the correct option(s) for the following reaction
sequence
(c)
7. Answer the following by appropriately matching the lists based on the information given in the paragraph. List–I
includes starting materials and reagents of selected chemical reactions. List–II gives structures of compounds that
may be formed as intermediate products and/ or final products from the reactions of List–I. [Matching 2019]
List–I List–II
(I) (P)
(II) (Q)
(III) (R)
C-72 Chemistry
(IV) (S)
(T)
(U)
Which of the following options has correct combination considering List–I and List–II?
(a) (I), (S), (Q), (R) (b) (II), (P), (S), (U)
(c) (I), (Q), (T), (U) (d) (II), (P), (S), (T)
CH3 O
H3C H3C CH3
H3C O 9. In the reaction given below, the total number of atoms
Q having sp2 hybridization in the major product P is _____
AlCl3 1. O 3 (excess)
then Zn/H 20
P P [Interger 2021]
2. NH2OH (excess)
(i) CH3MgBr 10. Consider the following reaction scheme and choose the
(i) Zn–Hg/HCl (ii) H3O
+
correct option(s) for the major products Q, R and S.
R S
(ii) H 3PO 4 (i) B H (i) CrO , H SO
(iii) H 2SO 4/ D 2 6
Styrene ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾® P ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
3 2 4
®Q
(ii) NaOH, H 2 O 2 , H 2 O (ii) Cl 2 , Red phosphorus
The correct structure of (iii) H 2 O
CH3
CH3
(b) Q is H3C H3C CH3 (a)
H3C
Cl COOH COOH
HO2C O
(b)
CH3 R O
(c) R is H3C H3C CH3 Q S
H3C O
Cl COOH
O (c)
Q R O
S
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-73
Br H3C CH3
( i ) Mg, dry ether
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾®
( ii ) CO2 , then H 3OÅ
S (b) Reaction of R with O2 in the presence of light gives
O phosgene gas
( iii) Ammoniacal AgNO3 , H3OÅ
O (c) Q reacts with aqueous NaOH to produce
The correct statement(s) about P, Q, R, and S is(are)
Cl3CCH2OH and Cl3CCOONa
(a) P and Q are monomers of polymers dacron and
(d) S on heating gives P
glyptal, respectively.
16. The option(s) with correct sequence of reagents for
(b) P, Q, and R are dicarboxylic acids.
(c) Compounds Q and R are the same. the conversion of P to Q is(are): [More than one 2024]
(d) R does not undergo aldol condensation and S does O HO
not undergo Cannizzaro reaction. CO2Et reagents
CO2H
O CN
12. Complete reaction of acetaldehyde with excess O P
CHO
formaldehyde, upon heating with conc. NaOH solution, H3C HO Q
gives P and Q. Compound P does not give Tollens’ (a) (i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; (ii) SnCl2/HCl; (iii) NaBH4;
test, whereas Q on acidification gives positive Tollens’ (iv) H3O+
test. Treatment of P with excess cyclohexanone in the (b) (i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; (ii) H3O+; (iii) SnCl2/HCl;
presence of catalytic amount of p-toluenesulfonic acid (iv) NaBH4
(PTSA) gives product R. Sum of the number of (c) (i) NaBH4; (ii) SnCl2/HCl; (iii) H3O+; (iv) Lindlar’s
methylene groups (-CH2-) and oxygen atoms in R is
catalyst, H2
______. [Integer 2024]
13. An organic compound P having molecular formula (d) (i) Lindlar’s catalyst, H2; (ii) NaBH4; (iii) SnCl2/
C6H6O3 gives ferric chloride test and does not have HCl; (iv) H3O+
intramolecular hydrogen bond. The compound P reacts An organic compound P with molecular formula C9H18O2
with 3 equivalents of NH2OH to produce oxime Q. decolorizes bromine water and also shows positive iodoform
Treatment of P with excess methyl iodide in the presence test. P on ozonolysis followed by treatment with H2O2 gives
of KOH produces compound R as the major product. Q and R. While compound Q shows positive iodoform test,
Reaction of R with excess iso-butylmagnesium bromide compound R does not give positive iodoform test. Q and R
followed by treatment with H3O+ gives compound S on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate (PCC) followed
as the major product. by heating give S and T, respectively. Both S and T show
The total number of methyl (–CH3 ) group(s) in positive iodoform test.
compound S is _____. [Integer 2024] Complete copolymerization of 500 moles of Q and 500 moles
14. In the following reaction sequence, the major product of R gives one mole of a single acyclic copolymer U.
P is formed. [Given, atomic mass: H =1, C = 12, O =16]
17. Sum of number of oxygen atoms in S and T is _____.
2+ +
(i) Hg , H3O
(ii) Zn-Hg/HCI
H +
(iii) H3O , D
[Passage Based 2024]
CO Et P
( )15 2 18. The molecular weight of U is _____.
[Passage Based 2024]
C-74 Chemistry
1. The conversion PhCN ® PhCOCH 3 , can be achieved 7. (CH3)3C–CHO does not undergo aldol condensation due
to
most conveniently by reaction with
(a) CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis (a) three electron donating methyl groups
(b) I2 – NaOH, CH3I (b) cleavage taking place between —C— CHO bond
(c) Dil. H2SO4 followed by reaction with CH2N2 (c) absence of alpha hydrogen atom in the molecule
(d) LiAlH4 followed by reaction with CH3I (d) bulky (CH3)3 C—group
2. 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by reaction of benzal- 8. Acetaldehyde reacts with semicarbazide and forms
dehyde with semicarbazone. Its structure is
(a) methyl bromide (a) CH3CH = NNHCON = CHCH3
(b) ethyl iodide and magnesium (b) CH3CH = NNHCONH2
(c) methyl bromide and aluminium bromide
(d) methyl iodide and magnesium (c) CH 3CH = N — N — CONH 2
|
3. The following reaction OH
OH OH (d) CH3CH = N—CONHNH2
Anhyd.
+ HCN + HCl ¾¾¾¾
ZnCl
® 9. Appropriate reducing agent for the following conversion
2
CHO is–
is known as O
(a) Perkin reaction ||
(b) Gattermann aldehyde synthesis CH2 = CH - CH 2 - C - H
(c) Kolbe’s reaction ¾¾
® CH 3 - CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 OH
(d) Gattermann-Koch reaction (a) LiAlH4/H2O (b) NaBH4/H2O
4. The correct reagents to carry out the following (c) Na + C2H5OH (d) B2H6/H+
conversion is O
?
HC º CCH 2CH 2CH3 ¾¾
¾® OH -
O 10. 2 ¾¾¾® Product is
D
||
CH 3 - C - CH 2 CH 2 CH 3
O
(a) H2/Lindlar Pd followed by H 2SO 4 / H 2O (a) (b)
(b) H 2O, H 2SO4 / HgSO 4
(c) LiAlH4 followed by H2O
(d) O3 followed by H2O (c) (d) O
5. Benzaldehyde reacts with ethanoic KCN to give O
(a) C6H5CHOHCN 11. Aldol condensation would not occur in :
(b) C6H5CHOHCOC6H5 (a) CH3COCH3 (b) CH3CH2CHO
(c) C6H5CHOHCOOH (c) HCHO (d) CH3CHO
(d) C6H5CHOHCHOHC6H5
12. Cannizzaro reaction occurs with
6. Aldehydes and ketones will not form crystalline
(a) CH3 – CH2OH (b) C6H5CHO
derivatives with
(a) sodium bisulphite (c) CH3CHO (d) CH3 – CO – CH3
(b) phenylhydrazine 13. In an alkaline medium, acetaldehyde undergoes:
(c) semicarbazide hydrochloride (a) benzoin condensation (b) aldol condensation
(c) polymerisation (d) Cannizzaro reaction
(d) dihydrogen sodium phosphate.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-75
30. Which one of the following compounds undergoes (a) glycol/LiAlH4/H3O+ (b) glycol/NaH/H3O+
decarboxylation upon heating ? (c) LiA1H4 (d) NaBH4
O 37. Statement-1 : RCOCl, (RCO)2O and RCOOR’ all react
with Grignard reagents to form 3º alcohols.
(a) OH Statement-2 : RCOCl reacts with R2Cd to form
ketones but (RCO)2O and RCOOR' do not react at all.
O
(a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-
O 2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
(b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(b) OH
Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
O Statement-1.
O O (c) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(c) (d) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
OH 38. Statement-1 : During the preparation of esters from a
O O carboxylic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid
(d) catalyst, the water or the ester should be removed as fast
OH as it is formed.
31. Which of the following cannot convert caboxylic acid Statement-2 : The reaction between an acid and an
into its acyl chloride ? alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst is a reversible
(a) PCl3 (b) SOCl2 reaction.
(c) PCl5 (d) NaCl (a) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-
2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
LiAlH
32. In C6H5COOCH3 ¾¾ ¾¾ 4®
X will be (b) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;
(a) C6H5COOH +CH3OH Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(b) C6H5CH2OH + CH3OH Statement-1.
(c) C6H5CHO +CH3COOH (c) Statement -1 is True, Statement-2 is False.
(d) All of these (d) Statement -1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-77
39. Benzoin is b g b a
OH –
(a) Compound containing an aldehyde and a ketonic C6 H5CH = CHCHO + C H3CH = CHCHO ¾¾¾®
group Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about
(b) a, b-unsaturated acid the above reaction ?
(c) a-hydroxy aldehyde (a) Aldol condensation takes place and a-carbon atom
(d) a-hydroxy ketone of crotonaldehyde provides the carbanion,
40. Which are the starting materials for the preparation of (b) Aldol condensation takes place and b-carbon atom
O of crotonaldehyde provides the carbanion.
(c) Aldol condensation takes place and g-carbon atom
of crotonaldehyde provides the carbanion.
NO2 (d) Aldol condensation takes place and a-carbon atom
of cinnamic aldehyde provides the carbanion.
O 44. Each of the following two ketones is treated with a
conc. HNO3 base (KOH)
(a) conc. H2SO4 O CH 3
|| | OH –
(+) – C6H5— C — CH— C6H 5 ¾¾¾® PI ;
COCl
anhydrous I
(b) + AlCl3
O CH3
NO2 || | OH –
(+) – C6H5— C— C —C6H5 ¾¾¾® PII
COCl |
C2H5
anhydrous II
(c) + AlCl3 Which of the following statement(s) is/are false regarding
above reactions?
NO2 (a) Both PI as well as PII are racemic mixtures
(d) Any of the three (b) Both PI as well as PII are optically pure enantiomers
(c) PI is optically pure while PII is a racemic mixture
One or More Than One Option Correct (d) PI is a racemic mixture while PII is optically pure.
45. RCOOR¢ can be prepared by
41. Pentaerythritol, an important industrial chemical, is
(a) esterification of RCOOH
prepared by the following reaction
(b) esterification of (RCO)2O
Ca (OH) (c) Baeyer-Villiger oxidation of RCOR¢ with peroxy
2
4CH2O + CH3CHO ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH2OH acid
CH2OH (d) reaction of RCOCl with R¢OH.
46. The following conversion reaction can be carried out
C CH2OH
by using reaction sequence(s).
CH2OH O O COOH
Pentaerythritol
This reaction involves OH
Heat I /NaOH, D
H +
(d) crossed aldol condensation (c) ¾¾® ¾¾¾¾®
2
¾¾®
42. Which of the following undergoes Cannizzaro reaction? KMnO4 / OH /heat–
(d) ¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
(a) (CH3)3C CHO (b) (CH3)3CCDO 47. Formic acid and formaldehyde can be distinguished by
(c) C6H5CH2Cl (d) CH3CHO using
43. A mixture of cinnamaldehyde and crotonaldehyde is (a) 2, 4 - D.N.P. (b) Tollen’s reagent
treated with concentrated alkali, (c) Conc. H2SO4 (d) Fehling’s reagent
C-78 Chemistry
H H OH H (A) (B)
(a) (b)
(c) (d) O
OH OH OH H O2N Me
49. Which of the following are crossed aldol products in OH
the given reaction? (d) The major product formed is:
- OH
OH
MeCHO + MeCH 2CHO ¾¾¾®
25°C
O2N Me
OH O
CHO
(a) Me 52. Consider the following reaction using isotopically
labelled Cl35, Cl37, and C14 (C*).
Me
35
Cl
(b) Me CHO (*)
37 H O
Cl + NaOH ¾¾¾®
2
OH Me
What are the products of this SN reaction?
OH
35
CHO Cl
(c) Me (*)
Me (a) Me OH
(d) Me CHO OH
(*)
OH 37
(b) Me Cl
50. Which of the following statements are correct about
the reaction given below? OH
(*)
O (c) Me OH
HCN Sn + HCl HNO 35
¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® (B) ¾¾ ¾ ¾® (C) ¾ ¾ ¾¾
2 ® (D)
Cl
Traces of KOH (*)
(A)
CH2
(d) Me
OH
(a) In the formation of (D) from (C), ring expansion
takes place. 53. Which of the following statements are wrong about
the given reaction?
(b) The product (D) is cyclopentanone. O
(c) The product (D) is a, b-unsaturated cyclopentanone
Me (i) Mg/Hg H+
(d) Conversion of (B) to (C) can also be carried out ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾ + ® (B)
¾¾ ¾® (C)
Me (ii) H3O
with LAH.
O
51. Which of the following statements are true about the (a) Formation of (B) from (A) is called bimolecular
benzoin reaction? reduction and takes place by radical anion
mechanism.
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-79
(b) Formation of (B) from (A) takes place by free (a) The compounds (B) and (C), respectively, are
radical mechanism. Me — N = C = O and MeNHCOOMe.
(c) Products (B) and (C), respectively, are: (b) The compounds (B) and (C), respectively, are
Et — N = C = O and MeNH2.
OH (c) The reaction proceeds via the formation of acyl
Me
nitrene (MeCON: ) as the intermediate species.
:
OH and O (d) The reaction proceeds via the formation of acyl
nitrene (EtCON: ) as the intermediate species.
:
Me
Me Me 57. The structure of AZT (azidothymine) is given below.
It is used to treat AIDS patients. It fights an AIDS
(d) Products (B) and (C), respectively, are infection but does not cure it.
HO Me Me O
and O NH
O N
Me O
Me OH HO
54. Which of the following reactions are correct? – +
N=N=N (AZT)
® EtCONH - Li + + MeH
(a) EtCONH 2 + MeLi ¾¾
(b) EtCON Pr2 + MeLi ¾¾
® Et — C— Me + Pr2 NLi Which of the following statements are correct about
ôô AZT?
(c) MeCONH 2 + HNO 2 ¾¾ ® O
MeCOOH + N 2 + H 2O (a) It shows acidic property.
(d) Me — CONHMe + HNO 2 ¾¾
® (b) It undergoes tautomerisation.
O Me (c) It gives white precipitate with (ZnCl2 + HCl)
ôô ô (Lucas reagent).
Me — C — N — N =O + H 2O
55. Which of the following statements are correct about (d) Azide ion ( N 3- ) cannot replace Br – by S N 2
the given reaction? reaction.
58. Which of the following statement(s) is/are false?
O
(a) No aldehyde can be prepared by the oxidation of
BF
Me Cl + Me ¾ ¾ 3¾
® (C) primary alcohol with acidic KMnO4.
(A) (B)
O
(b) Aldehyde having a boiling point less than 100°C
can be prepared by the oxidation of primary alco-
(a) The product (C) is Me Me hol with acidic dichromate.
(c) Secondary alcohols on oxidation with PCC in
O
dichloromethane give carboxylic acids having
(b) The product (C) is Me lesser number of carbon atoms
(c) The formation of (C) proceeds via the formation (d) Tertiary alcohols can't be oxidised at all
of acylium ion. 59. Which of the following can be used for the
(d) The formation of (C) proceeds via the formation preparation of chloroform ?
of carbocation. (a) C6H5CHCl2 (I) (b) CH3CHO (II)
(i) NH NH MeOH
(c) CD3COCH3 (III) (d) CCl3CHO (IV)
56. 2 2 ®(B) ¾¾¾¾
MeCOOCEt ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®(C)
(ii) HNO2
(iii) - OH
Directions : Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements (A,
B, C, D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s, t, u) in column II.
60. Column-I Column-II
(Reaction) (Reagent)
(A) (p)
CHO
(B) (q)
CHO
(C) (r)
CHO
(D) (s)
(B) (q) 2
O
-
OH
Me + MeCHO ¾¾®
(C) Me (r) 4
O
-
OH
Me + Ph Me ¾¾®
(D) Me (s) 1
O
63. Column-I Column-II
(Reactions) (Products)
HCN
(A) ¾¾¾¾¾¾
® A ¾¾
® B ¾¾
®C (p) Formation of six membered ring takes place.
trace of KOH
O O
P P
OH -
(C) H3C - C- CH 2 - CH 2 - CH 2 - C - H ¾¾¾ ®A (r) Final product formed will give positive Tollen’s test.
D
Ph
H+
(D) CH3 ¾¾¾ ®A (s) Final product formed will react with 2, 4-DNP
D
OH OH (t) Ring expansion takes place
C-82 Chemistry
O O
CH2CH2CH2Cl
(B) CH 3MgI
CH3 (q) Electrophilic substitution
18
O O
18
CH2CH2CH2OH
(C) H2SO 4 (r) Dehydration
CH2CH2CH2C(CH3)2
H 2SO4
(D) OH (s) Nucleophilic addition
H3C
CH3
Directions : This section contains groups of multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question has
4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which only one is correct.
Passage - 1
Aldehydes containing no a-hydrogen atom, when treated with concentrated alkali (aqueous or alcoholic), undergo self
oxidation-reduction to yield a mixture of an alcohol and a salt of a carboxylic acid. This reaction, known as Cannizzaro
reaction, is carried out at room temperature. Cannizzaro reaction may be crossed, e.g.
conc . NaOH
C 6 H 5 CHO + HCHO ¾¾ ¾ ¾¾® C 6 H 5 CH 2 OH + HCOONa
Further, Cannizzaro reaction may be internal too.
Aldehydes, having a-hydrogen atom, undergo reaction in different way.
OH
- |
OH
2CH 3CHO ¾¾¾® CH 3 C HCH 2 CHO
66. Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) Different behaviour of CH3CHO and HCHO is due to difference in their acidic character
(b) Both reactions (Cannizzaro reaction and aldol condensation) involve nucleophilic addition
(c) Both are correct
(d) None is correct
67. Which of the following can't undergo Cannizzaro reaction?
O
||
(a) C6H5CHO (b) [Link] (c) C6 H5 CCHO (d) None of these
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-83
68. When (CH3)3CCHO and C6H5CHO are treated with 72. The structure of the product I is –
aq. NaOH, the possible number of products are
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) Me Br
(c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Me
Passage - 2
When methyl ketones react with halogens in the presence of Br
a base, all a-hydrogen atoms are replaced by halogens, one
after the other. (c) Me Br
O O O
(d) Me Br
|| X 2 , OH -
|| ||
CH 3 - C - CH 3 ¾¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® CH 3 - C - CX 3 ¾
¾® X 3C - C - CX 3 73. The structures of compound J and K, respectively, are
Trihaloketone
Moreover, the trihaloketone also undergoes hydrolysis in (a) Me COOH and SOCl2
presence of OH– forming
O O (b) OH and SOCl2
|| - ||
OH
CH 3 - C - CX 3 ¾¾¾® CH 3 - C - O - + CHX 3 Me
69. During formation of trihaloketone, which halogen is O
introduced most easily?
(a) First (b) Second Me
(c) Third (d) All at the same rate (c) and CH3SO2Cl
COOH
70. Acetone as well as trihaloacetone, both contain C = O (d) Me COOH and CH3SO2Cl
group, only the latter is hydrolysed by alkali while the
former does not undergo hydrolysis. This is because 74. The structure of product L is
O O (a) Me CHO
|| ||
(a) CH 3 - C - CH 3 is stable, while CH 3 - C - CX 3
is unstable
(b) –CX is stable while –CH is unstable (b) Me CHO
3 3
O CHO
|| (c) Me
(c) CH 3 - C - CH 3 undergoes nucleophilic addition,
O (d) Me CHO
|| Passage-4
while CH 3 - C - CX 3 undergoes nucleophilic
alc. Zn–Hg/HCl
substitution PhCHO ¾¾¾¾ ® (B) (C14H12 O2)
KCN
(d) Size of bromine is more than that of H. (A)
NaBH4/EtOH Unsaturated
71. Which of the following compound does not undergo compound
Acetone (C)
haloform reaction? (D) ¾¾¾¾ ® Cyclic
compound
(a) CH3CHO (b) C6H5CHOHCH3 Conc. H 2SO 4
(E)
(c) CH3CH2COCH2Cl (d) None of these
(F)
Passage - 3
75. Compound (B) is:
In the following reaction sequence, product I, J and L are
formed. K represents a reagent. O O
Ph Ph
(i) Mg/ether
(i) NaBH (ii) CO 2 K (a) Ph (b) Ph
Hex - 3 - ynal ¾¾¾¾¾
4 ® I ¾¾¾¾¾® J ¾¾
+
®
(ii) PBr3 (ii) H3O O
OH
6
5
OH
2
7 4 Cl Ph
Me 1 H
3
¾¾¾¾¾¾¾¾
2 ®L (c) Ph (d) None
Pd/BaSO 4 quinoline
O OH
C-84 Chemistry
:
(a) (b) O O N
O O (c) Me CH2
Me
Me OH
Ph Ph
:
Ph N
(d) Me CH2
(c) O O (d) O O
80. Compound (A) is:
Me Me Ph Me O
Passage-5
O /Red. (a) Me
(i) Compound (X) ¾¾¾¾
3 ® (A) (C10 H10O) + (B) (C8H 8O 2 )
(C18H20O)
Me
(ii) O
(d) HO CHO
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-85
O O O O (a) Ph COOH
Br
Me Me
(a) OH (b) Br
Me
(b) Ph COOH
(c) Both (a) and (b)
COOH
O O O O (d) Ph
(c) Me (d) Me Br
OH 86. Compound (C) is:
CHO COOH
COOH
(a) (b) Ph
83. Compound (E) is: Ph
O O (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
Passage-8
Me Me
(a) OH (b)
Me
O O
Me CH2
(c) (d)
Passage-7
(i) Carboxylic acid 87. Compound (B) is:
[O]
(a) CH2 = O (b) HCOOMe
(A) (C9H10O3) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® PhCOOH
KMnO (c) HCOOEt (d) Both (b) and (c)
4
HBr 88. Which statement(s) is/are correct about the formation of
(D)?
alc. KOH H /Pd
(B) (C9H9O2Br) ¾ ¾ ¾ ¾® (C) ¾ ¾ 2¾ ¾
® (D) (a) It is a Claisen–Schmidt reaction.
(ii) Compound (D) is prepared by carbonation (Mg/ether, (b) It is a Michael addition reaction.
(c) The (CHO) group is introduced in (C) to increase
Me
the acidity of a-H atom.
CO2/H3O+) of compound . (d) The (CHO) group is lost as (CO) in the formation
Ph Br
of (D).
(iii) Compounds (A) and (D) give positive test with CrO3 89. Product (E) is:
in acid. Et Et
84. Compound (A) is: O O
OH (a) (b)
Me
COOH COOH Et Et
(a) Ph (b) Ph
OH O O
COOH (c) (d)
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Ph
OH
C-86 Chemistry
COOH
HOOC COOH
COOH
(I) (II)
COOH
COOH
HOOC
COOH
(III)
They can be distinguished by anhydride formation by treating with one equivalent and two equivalents of SOCl 2.
90. The number of isomeric monoanhydrides formed by reaction of one equivalent of SOCl2 with tetracarboxylic acid
(I).
91. How many number of tetracarboxylic acid among I, II and III gives only one monoanhydride with one equivalent of
SOCl2?
Passage cum Matching Based Questions
Passage-1
Column I contains some reaction and Column II & Column III contains Reagent used and Products formed respectively.
Column I Column II Column III
(Reaction) (Reagent) (Product)
– CHO
(A) (I) (i) BH 3 /THF (ii) H 2 O 2 /OH (P)
CHO
CHO
CHO
OH
H
(C) (III) (i) Glycol + HCl (R)
(iv) H3OÅ
Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic Acids C-87
O O
-
(A) (I) H + / D(ii)O3 , Zn (iii) OH/ D (P)
OH
O
OH
(B) (II) (i) NH2OH (ii) H2SO4/D (Q)
O
(C) (III) H2SO4/H2O (R) O
O O
-
O
(D) (IV) OH / D (S)
O
95. Find appropriate combination in which product is formed through retro aldol followed by intermolecular aldol reaction
(a) (C) (II) (Q) (b) (D) (III) (P) (c) (A) (IV) (Q) (d) (A) (II) (S)
96. Product ‘R’ is formed by
(a) (C) (II) (R) (b) (D) (IV) (R) (c) (A) (II) (R) (d) (B) (I) (R)
97. Incorrect statement is
(a) (C) (II) (Q) (b) (D) (III) (P) (c) (A) (IV) (Q) (d) (B) (I) (R)
ANSWER KEYS
Exercise 27.1: Multiple Choice Questions MCQs
1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (d)
11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (c) 15 (d) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (a) 20 (b)
21 (a) 22 (c) 23 (c) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (b) 27 (a) 28 (c) 29 (b) 30 (b)
31 (c) 32 (b) 33 (d) 34 (d) 35 (c) 36 (c) 37 (b) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (d)
41 (d) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (c) 50 (c)
51 (d) 52 (c) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (c)
Exercise 27.2: Multiple Choice Questions MCQs
56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (a) 59 (c) 60 (a) 61 (a) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (a) 65 (c)
66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (a) 70 (c) 71 (a) 72 (a) 73 (c)
Exercise 27.3: Multiple Choice Questions MCQs
74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (b) 77 (c) 78 (c) 79 (b) 80 (c) 81 (d) 82 (a) 83 (a)
84 (d) 85 (c) 86 (b) 87 (b) 88 (a)
Question Bank Lev el-1
1 (a) 5 (d) 9 (d) 13 (c) 17 (b) 21 (b) 25 (d) 29 (b) 33 (c)
2 (d) 6 (b) 10 (c) 14 (c) 18 (b) 22 (c) 26 (b) 30 (c) 34 (a)
3 (c) 7 (b) 11 (b) 15 (a) 19 (c) 23 (c) 27 (c) 31 (b) 35 (c)
4 (c) 8 (b) 12 (d) 16 (d) 20 (c) 24 (b) 28 (a) 32 (b)
Chapter Test 1
1 (c) 4 (a) 7 (c) 10 (c) 13 (a) 16 (b) 19 (b) 22 (b) 25 (3)
2 (b) 5 (d) 8 (d) 11 (b) 14 (c) 17 (a) 20 (c) 23 (a)
3 (d) 6 (b) 9 (b) 12 (c) 15 (b) 18 (d) 21 (c) 24 (3)
Question Bank Lev el-2
1 (d) 5 (b) 9 (b) 13 (b) 17 (a) 21 (a) 25 (a) 29 (d) 33 (d)
2 (d) 6 (a) 10 (c) 14 (c) 18 (a) 22 (d) 26 (c) 30 (c) 34 (b)
3 (d) 7 (b) 11 (a) 15 (a) 19 (c) 23 (d) 27 (a) 31 (b) 35 (c)
4 (a) 8 (a) 12 (a) 16 (b) 20 (a) 24 (d) 28 (a) 32 (a)
Chapter Test 2
1 (a) 4 (b) 7 (b) 10 (b) 13 (c) 16 (d) 19 (d) 22 (b) 25 (4)
2 (b) 5 (a) 8 (b) 11 (a) 14 (d) 17 (b) 20 (b) 23 (1)
3 (b) 6 (a) 9 (c) 12 (a) 15 (b) 18 (b) 21 (d) 24 (5)
Past Years JEE Main Questions
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (d) 7 (d) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (a)
11 (b) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (c) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (a) 18 (a) 19 (b) 20 (a)
21 (b) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (d) 29 (a) 30 (c)
31 (b) 32 (d)
Past Yea rs JEE Advanced Questions
1 (a, b, d) 2 (d) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (a) 6 (a, d) 7 (b) 8 (b, d) 9 (12) 10 (b)
11 (c, d) 12 (18) 13 (12) 14 (909) 15 (a, b, d ) 16 (c, d) 17 (2) 18 (102018)
JEE Advanced Level Questions
1 (a) 11 (c) 21 (b) 31 (d) 41 (b,c) 51 (a,c) 60 A-r;B-p;C-s;D-t 71 (d) 81 (d) 91 (2)
2 (d) 12 (b) 22 (c) 32 (b) 42 (a,b,c) 52 (a,d) 61 A-q,r;B-p,s;C-t;D-u 72 (d) 82 (c) 92 (c)
3 (b) 13 (b) 23 (d) 33 (c) 43 (a,b,d) 53 (b,d) 62 A-q;B-q;C-p;D-r 73 (a) 83 (c) 93 (d)
4 (b) 14 (a) 24 (a) 34 (b) 44 (a,b,c) 54 (a,b,c,d) 63 A-q,s;B-p,q,t;C-p,q,s,t;D-p,q,s,t 74 (c) 84 (b) 94 (c)
5 (b) 15 (d) 25 (a) 35 (b) 45 (a,b,c,d ) 55 (a,c) 64 A-p,q,s,t; B-p,t; C-p,q,s; D-p,q,s,t 75 (a) 85 (b) 95 (c)
6 (d) 16 (d) 26 (c) 36 (a) 46 (b,c,d) 56 (a,c) 65 A-r,s;B-p,s;C-r,s;D-q,r 76 (b) 86 (a) 96 (d)
7 (c) 17 (a) 27 (c) 37 (b) 47 (a,c) 57 (a,b,d) 67 (d) 77 (c) 87 (d) 97 (a)
8 (b) 18 (b) 28 (a) 38 (a) 48 (a) 58 (a,c,d) 68 (d) 78 (b) 88 (b) 98 (3)
9 (d) 19 (a) 29 (c) 39 (d) 49 (c,d) 59 (b,c,d) 69 (c) 79 (a) 89 (b) 99 (4)
10 (c) 20 (d) 30 (d) 40 (c) 50 (a,b,d) 66 (c) 70 (b) 80 (a) 90 (2) 100 (2)
16 Determinants
a21 a23
a31 a32 a33 VALUE OF A DETERMINANT OF ORDER THREE
M12 = Value of a determinant of order three can be obtained by
a31 a33
expanding the determinant of order three along any of the
a11 a12 three rows or any of the three columns of the determinant as
Minor of element of a 21 of of order 2 is
a21 a22
a11 a12 a13
M21 = a12 a21 a22 a23 =
a31 a32 a33
CO-FACTOR ìa11 A11 + a12 A12 + a13 A13 , expanding along first row
ïa A + a A + a A , expanding along second row
The co-factor of an element aij of a determinant is denoted ï 21 21 22 22 23 23
by Aij (or Cij) and is equal to (–1)i+j mij, where mij is the ïïa31 A31 + a32 A32 + a33 A33 , expanding along third row
í
minor of the element aij. ïa11 A11 + a21 A21 + a31 A31, expanding along first column
Thus co-factor of element a23 of the determinant ïa12 A12 + a22 A22 + a32 A32 , expanding along second column
ï
ïîa13 A13 + a23 A23 + a33 A33 , expanding along third column
a11 a12 a13
a21 a22 a23 of order 3 is Thus the value of a determinant of order three is the sum of the
a31 a32 a33 products of element of any row or column with their
corresponding co-factor.
a11 a12
A23 = (–1)2+3 M23 = -
a31 a32 a11 a12 a13
a11 a12 a13 \ a21 a22 a23 = a111A11 + a12 A12 + a13 A13
Similarly, co-factor of element a31 of a21 a22 a23 is a31 a32 a33
a31 a32 a33 (expanding along the first row,)
Determinants M-3
Note : p -1 p -1 1
It should be noted that while applying property-6, at least = 0 + log R q - 1 q - 1 1 = 0 [by C2 ® C2 – C1]
one row (or column) must remain unchanged. r -1 r -1 1
ILLUSTRATION 5 :
Property-7
If D = f (x) and f (a) = 0 then (x – a) is a factor of D. a + b + nc (n - 1)a (n - 1)b
Prove that (n - 1)c b + c + na (n - 1)b is equal to
1 1 1 (n - 1)c (n - 1)a c + a + nb
a b c
Ex. D = n(a + b + c)3
2 2 2
a b c Sol. Applying C1 ® C1 + C2 + C3 and taking n(a + b + c)
1 1 1 common from C1, we get
If we replace a by b, then D = b b c =0
2 2 2 1 (n - 1)a (n - 1)b
b b c
Þ (a – b) is a factor of D D = n (a + b + c) 1 b + c + na (n - 1)b
1 (n - 1)a c + a + nb
NOTATIONS USED IN EVALUATING A
DETERMINANT 1 (n - 1)a (n - 1)b
= n (a + b + c) 0 a + b + c 0
(i) Ri to denote ith row.
0 0 a+b+c
(ii) Ri « Rj to denote the interchange of ith and jth rows.
[By R2 ® R2 – R1, R3 ® R3–R1]
(iii) lRi to denote the multiplication of all elements of ith = n (a + b + c)3
row by l.
Determinants M-5
In above two cases the order of determinant which are provided each of nine limiting values exist finitely.
multiplied are same, if the order is different then for their
multiplication first of all they should be expressed in the DIFFERENTIATION OF A DETERMINANT
same order. 1. Second Order Determinant
Ex. -3 0 5
1 -5 0
M-6 MATHEMATICS
é2 5 1ù
Let A = ê 0 -1 2 ú . To find the adj (A) follow the steps:
ê ú
êë 3 -2 4 úû
Write all elements First write first two rows Delete first row and first From the product of
as in the given below the third row, then column and mark cross sign (×) –1 and 4, subtract the
matrix write first two columns between the remaining product of –2 and 2
after third column elements as shown and so on.
0 6 3
2 5 1 2 5 –1 2 0 –1 First column of adj (A)
2 5 1 0 -1 2 0 -1 –22 5 19
–2 4 3 –2
0 -1 2 ¾¾
® 3 -2 4 3 -2 ¾¾
® ¾¾
® Second column of adj (A)
5 1 2 5 11 – 4 –2
3 -2 4 2 5 1 2 5
–1 2 0 –1 Third column of adj (A)
0 -1 2 0 -1
Determinants M-7
é 0 -22 11 ù
INVERSE OF A MATRIX
ê ú
Hence adj (A) = ê 6 5 -4 ú If A and B are two matrices such that
êë 3 19 -2 úû AB = I = BA,
then B is called the inverse of A and it is denoted by A–1, thus
PROPERTIES OF ADJOINT OF A MATRIX A–1 = B Û AB = I = BA
If A, B are square matrices of order n and In is corresponding To find inverse matrix of a given matrix A, we use following
unit matrix, then adj.A
formula A–1 = , if |A| ¹ 0
(i) A (adj. A) = | A | In = (adj A) A |A|
Thus A–1 exists Û | A | ¹ 0
(ii) |adj A| = | A |n–1
To Compute the Inverse of a Non-Singular Matrix by
(iii) adj (adj A) = | A |n–2 A
Elementary Operations (Gauss-Jordan Method)
2
(iv) |adj (adj A)| = | A |(n -1) If A be a non-singular matrix of order n, then write A = In A.
(v) adj (AT) = (adj A)T If A is reduced to In by elementary operations (LHS), then
suppose In is reduced to P(RHS) and not change A in RHS, then
(vi) adj (AB) = (adj B) (adj A)
after elementary operations, we get In = PA, then P is the inverse
(vii) adj (Am) = (adj A)m, m Î N of A \ P = A–1
(viii) adj (kA) = kn–1 (adj. A), k Î R (i) Matrix A is called invertible, if A–1 exists.
(ix) adj (In) = In (ii) Inverse of a matrix is unique.
(x) adj O = O
(xi) A is symmetric Þ adj A is also symmetric PROPERTIES OF INVERSE OF A MATRIX
(xii) A is diagonal Þ adj A is also diagonal Let A and B are two invertible matrices of the same order, then
(xiii)A is triangular Þ adj A is also triangular (i) (AT)–1 = (A–1)T
1 1 é 2 3ù 1 é 1 -2 ù é1/ 6 -1/ 3ù
\ A–1 = adj A = – ê M–1 = 6 ê 2
|A| 8 ë 4 2 úû ë 2 úû
= ê1/ 3 1/ 3 ú
ë û
Now,
2 -1 3
(i) If |A| ¹ 0, then the system is called consistent having unique
Now, | A | = 3 2 -1
solution. The unique solution is find out by equating the
corresponding elements from both sides of the matrix 4 5 -5
equation = 2(–10 + 5) + 1(–15 + 4) + 3(15 – 8) = 0
X = A–1 B
So, A is singular. Thus, the given system of equations is
(ii) If |A| = 0 and (adj A) B ¹ O, then the system is inconsistent either inconsistent or it is consistent with infinitely many
i.e., the system has no solution.
solutions according as (adj A) B ¹ O or (adj A) B = O
(iii) If |A| = 0 and (adj A) B = O, then (a) the system is consistent
respectively.
and dependent having infinitely many solutions in case of
the system of two equation in two variables. (b) the system Let Cij be the co-factors of elements aij in A = [aij].
may or may not be consistent in case of more than two Then,
equations in more than two variables. However, if it is
consistent, then it is dependent also having infinitely many 2 -1
C11 = (–1)1+1 = - 5,
solutions. 5 -5
In order to find the solution of a system of three linear
equations in three variables, 3 -1
C12 = (–1)1+2 = 11,
a1x + b1 y + c1z = d1 4 -5
a2x + b2 y + c2z = d2 -1 3
3 2
a3x + b3 y + c3z = d3 C13 = (–1)1+3 = 7, C21 = (–1)2+1 5 -5 = 10,
4 5
replace one of the variables (say z) by any real number
(say k) in all three equations. This will reduce the number of 2 3
variables by one. Now take any two out of the three C22 = (–1)2+2 = –22,
4 -5
equations and solve them by matrix method. By which, we
get the value of x and y in term of k. Now put the value of 2 -1
the two variables x and y in terms of k in third equation. If C23 = (–1)2+3 = –14,
4 5
the value of the variables x and y satisfy the third equation,
then the system is consistent and the value of the three -1 3
variables in terms of k constitute a solution. For each value C31 = (–1)3+1 = –5,
2 -1
of k, there is a unique set of solution and hence for infinite
values of k, there are infinitely many set of solutions. If the 2 3
value of the two variables x and y do not satisfy the third C32 = (–1)3+2 = 111
3 -1
equation, then the system is inconsistent and hence the
system has no solution. 2 -1
and C33 = (–1)3+3 =7
ILLUSTRATION 10 : 3 2
Show that the following system of equations is consistent. T
é -5 11 7 ù é -5 10 -5 ù
2x – y + 3z = 5, 3x + 2y – z = 7, 4x + 5y – 5z = 9. \ (adj A) = 10 -22 -14 = êê 11 -22 -11úú
ê ú
ê ú
Also, find the solution. êë 7 -14 7 úû
ëê -5 11 7 ûú
Sol. The given system of equation can be written in matrix
form é -5 10 -5ù é 5 ù
é 2 -1 3 ù é x ù é5ù Þ (adj A) B = êê 11 -22 11 úú êê 7 úú
ê 3 2 -1 ú ê y ú = ê 7 ú êë 7 -14 7 úû êë 9 úû
ê úê ú ê ú
êë 4 5 -5 úû êë z úû êë 9 úû
é -25 +70 - 45ù é0ù
é 2 -1 3 ù = êê 55 -154 + 99 ú = êê 0 úú
ê ú ú
or, AX = B, where A = ê 3 2 -1 ú , êë 35 -98 + 63úû êë 0 úû
êë 4 5 -5 úû
éxù Thus, AX = B has infinitely many solutions. To find
ê yú é5ù
these solutions, we put z = k in the first two equations
X = ê ú and B = êê 7 úú
êë z úû and write them as follows :
ëê 9 ûú
M-10 MATHEMATICS
Then AX = O
Determinants M-11
then f(A) = a0 + a1A + a2 A2 + a3 A3 + ..... + anAn is called Therefore, 1/l is an eigen value of A–1 and X is a
a matrix polynomial. corresponding eigen vector.
Here, to obtain f(A) replace x by A in f(x) and the constant
term is multiplied by the identity matrix of order equal to MAXIMUM AND MINIMUM VALUES OF
that of A. DETERMINANTS WHEN ELEMENTS
ILLUSTRATION 18 : ARE KNOWN
Show that if l1, l2, …, ln are n eigen values of a square
a1 a2 a3
matrix A of order n, then the eigen values of the matrix
If | A | = a 4 a5 a6
A2 be l21, l22, … ln2.
a7 a8 a9
Sol. AX = lX Þ A(AX) = A(lX)
Þ A2X = l(AX) = l(lX) = l2X where ai¢ s Î {a1, a2,....., an}, then
i.e., A2X = l2X | A |max when diagonal elements are {min (a1, a2,....., an)}
Hence, eigen value of A2 is l2. Thus if l1, l2, …, ln and non-diagonal elements are {max (a1, a2,....., an)}.
are eigen values of A, then l1, l2 , … ln2 are eigen
2 2 also, | A |min = – | A |max
values of A2.
ILLUSTRATION 19 : ILLUSTRATION 20 :
The maximum and minimum value of (3 × 3)
If A is non-singular, prove that the eigen values of A–1
determinant where elements belongs to (0, 1, 2, 3) is
are the reciprocals of the eigen value of A. (a) 9, –9 (b) 0
Sol. Let A be an eigen value of A and X be a corresponding (c) 54, –54 (d) None of these
eigen vector. Then, 0 3 3
AX = lX Þ X = A–1 (lX) = l(A–1X) Sol. (c) We have, | A |max = 3 0 3 , i.e., diagonal
1 3 3 0
Þ X = A–1 X [Q A is non-singular Þ l ¹ 0] elements are {min (0, 1, 2, 3)} = 0 and non-diagonal
l
elements are
1 {max (0, 1, 2, 3)} = 3
Þ A–1X = X \ | A |max = 0 – 3 (–9) + 3 (9) = 54 and
l
| A |min = – | A |max = –54
Determinants M-15
Points to Remember
1. Minor : The determinant that is left by cancelling the row and column intersecting at a particular element of
a determinant is called the minor of that element of the determinant. Minor of an element aij of a determinant
is denoted by mij.
2. Co-factor : The co-factor of an element aij of a determinant is denoted by Aij (or Cij) and is equal to (–1)i+j mij,
where mij is the minor of the element aij.
a11 a12
3. (i) = a11a 22 - a 21a12
a 21 a 22
4. (i) Symmetric determinant : A determinant [aij] is called symmetric determinant if aij = aji for all i, j .
(ii) Skew-symmetric determinant : A determinant [aij] is called skew-symmetric determinant if aij = –aji for all i, j.
5. Singular and Non-singular Matrix :
A matrix A is said to be singular matrix if its determinant |A| = 0, other wise non-singular matrix.
6. Properties of Determinant :
(i) The value of determinant remains unchanged, if the rows and the columns are interchanged.
(ii) If any two rows (or columns) of a determinant are inter-changed, the determinant is unaltered in numerical
value, but is changed in sign only.
(iii) If a determinant has two rows (or columns) equal, then its value is zero.
(iv) If each element of any row (or column) of a determinant is multiplied by the same number, then the value
of determinant is multiplied by that number.
(v) If each element of any row (or column) are expressed as a sum of two terms, then the determinant can
a1 b1 c1 x y z
a1 + x b1 + y c1 + z
be expressed as the sum of the two determinants as a 2 b2 c2 = a 2 b2 c2 + a 2 b2 c2
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
(vi) If any multiple of any row (or column) of a determinant is added or subtracted from corresponding
element of any other row (or column) of the determinant, then value of the determinant is not altered.
(vii) If D = f(x) and f(a) = 0, then (x–a) is a factor of D.
M-16 MATHEMATICS
7. Adjoint of a Matrix :
If every element of a square matrix A be replaced by its co-factor, then the transpose of the matrix so
obtained is called the adjoint of matrix A and it is denoted by adj A.
8. Inverse of a Matrix :
adj A
A -1 = , if | A | ¹ 0
|A|
(ii) If D = 0 and one of D1, D2,..., Dn is non-zero, then the system is inconsistent i.e. the system has no
solution.
(iii) If D = 0 and also D1= D2 = ...=Dn = 0, then
(a) the system is consistent and dependent having infinitely many solutions in case of the system of
two equations with two variables.
(b) the system may or may not be consistent in case of more than two equations in more than two
variables. However, if it is consistent, then it is dependent also having infinitely many solutions.
10. Solution of Homogeneous System of Linear Equations :
(i) If D ¹ 0, then the system of equations has unique solution x = 0, y = 0, z = 0. This solution is called
trivial solution.
(ii) If D = 0, then the system of equations has infinitely many solution. This solution is called non-trivial
or non-zero solution.
Determinants M-17
æD ö æD ö
(c) log ç 1 ÷ and log ç 2 ÷ a1 b1 c1
è D3 ø è D3 ø
(c) 3 a 2 b 2 c 2 (d) None of these
(d) eD1 / D3 and e D 2 / D 3 a3 b3 c3
2. If a = cos q + i sin q, b = cos 2q – i sin 2q, c = cos
éa b cù 3 5 6 x 10 5
ê ú
3 q + i sin 3 q and if A = êb c a ú , then find the 7. If D = 7 8 9 , then 5 3 6 equal to:
10 x 5 8 7 9
êë c a b úû
values of q if matrix A is non-invertible (a) D (b) –D (c) D x (d) 0
(a) np; n Î ¢ (b) 2np; n Î ¢ 8. If rows and columns of the determinant are
(c) (2n + 1) p/2; n Î ¢ (d) None of these interchanged, then its value
3. If a2 + b2 + c2 + ab + bc + ca £ 0 " a, b, c Î R, then (a) remains unchanged (b) becomes change
value of the determinant,
(c) is doubled (d) is zero
2 2 2
(a + b + 2) a +b 1 9. If any two rows (or columns) of a determinant are
1 (b + c + 2) 2 2
b +c 2 equals identical (all corresponding elements are same), then
2 2
the value of determinant is
c +a 1 (c + a + 2)2
(a) 1 (b) –1 (c) 0 (d) 2
(a) 65 (b) a + b + c + 31
2 2 2
10. If each of third order determinant of value D is multiplied
(c) 4(a2 + b2 + c2) (d) 0 by 4, then value of the new determinant is:
4. If a, b, c, are real, and
(a) D (b) 21D (c) 64D (d) 128D
2
x+a ab ac 11. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0, then the determinant
f (x) = ab x+b 2
bc > 0if pa qb rc
2 D = qc ra pb equals
ac bc x +c
rb pc qa
(a) x > a2 + b2 + c2 (b) x > – (a2 + b2 + c2)
(c) x > abc (d) None of these (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) pa + qb + rc (d) None of these
M-18 MATHEMATICS
x sin q cos q
(a) x2 (x + 10) (b) x3 (x + 10)
26. If D1 = - sin q - x 1 and (c) x4 (x + 10) (d) None of these
cos q 1 x 1 bc a(b + c )
33. The value of the determinant 1 ca b( c + a ) is
x sin 2q cos 2q 1 ab c(a + b)
D 2 = - sin 2q -x 1 ,x ¹ 0; (a) 0 (b) a + b + c
cos 2q 1 x (c) bc + ca + ab (d) a3 + b3 + c3 – 3abc
æ pö x2 + x + 2 2x 2 + 3x + 1 3x 2 + 5x + 3
then for all q Î ç 0, ÷ :
è 2ø
34. D = 20x2 + 20x + 59 40x2 + 60x + 20 60x 2 +100x + 70
3
(a) D1 - D 2 = -2 x
2x2 + 2x + 6 4x2 + 6x + 2 6x 2 + 10x + 7
(b) D1 - D 2 = x(cos 2q - cos 4q)
= Ax2 + Bx + C, where A and B are determinants of
(c) D1 ´ D 2 = - 2( x3 + x - 1) order 3 not involving x, then A, B and C is
(a) A = 2, B = 3, C = 1 (b) A = 3, B = 2, C = – 1
(d) D1 + D 2 = -2 x3 (c) A = 4, B = 3, C = – 1 (d) None of these
27. If x, y, z are complex numbers, and 35. Which of the following is INCORRECT?
0 -y -z (a) If A is a skew-symmetric matrix and n is a positive
integer, then An is always symmetric
D= y 0 - x then D is
(b) If A and B are two matrices such that AB = B and
z x 0 BA = A, then A2 + B2 = A + B
(a) purely real (b) purely imaginary (c) If A and B are two matrices such that AB = O,
(c) complex (d) 0 then : |A| = 0 or |B| = 0.
28. If A, B, C are the angles of a triangle, then the value of (d) All three are correct
36. Which of the following is NOT true?
-1 cos C cos B (a) Every skew-symmetric matrix of odd order is non-
D = cos C -1 cos A is singular.
cos B cos A -1 (b) If determinant of a square matrix is non-zero, then
it is non-singular.
(a) cosA cosB cosC (b) sinA sinB sinC
(c) Adjoint of a sysmmetric matrix is symmetric.
(c) 0 (d) None of these (d) Adjoint of a diagonal matrix is diagonal.
é 2 1 ù é1 0 ù a b c
If A = ê T T 2
29. ú ,B = ê1 1ú , C =ABA and X =A C A,
ëê -1 2 ûú ë û 37. If a ¹ a, b ¹ b, g ¹ c and a b c = 0 , then
then det X is equal to: a b g
(a) 243 (b) 729 (c) 27 (d) 891
a b g
30. If a2 + b2 + c2 = – 2 and + + is equal to:
a -a b-b g -c
1+ a2 x (1 + b 2 ) x (1 + c 2 ) x (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1
2 2 2
f (x) = (1 + a ) x 1+ b x (1 + c ) x a cot A / 2 l
2
(1 + a ) x (1 + b ) x 2 2
1+ c x 38. If b cot B / 2 m = 0 , where a, b, c, A, B, and
then f (x) is a polynomial of degree c cot C / 2 g
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 0 (d) 1 C are elements of a triangle ABC with usual meaning.
Then, the value of a (m – g) + b (g – l) + c (l – m)
a 2 + 2a 2 a + 1 1 is
31. The determinant 2a + 1 a + 2 1 is (a) 0 (b) abc
3 3 1
(c) ab + bc + ca (d) 2abc
(a) > 0 if a > 1 (b) = 0 if a = 1 39. The maximum and minimum value of (3 × 3)
(c) < 0 if a < 1 (d) all of these determinant whose elements belongs to {0, 1} is
(a) 1, – 1 (b) 2, – 2
1+ x 2 3 4
(c) 4, – 4 (d) None of these
1 2+ x 3 4
32. The value of the determinant 1 2 3+ x 4
is
1 2 3 4+ x
M-20 MATHEMATICS
40. If C = 2 cos q , then the value of the determinant Statement II : The determinant of a skew
éC 1 0 ù symmetric matrix of odd order is zero.
(a) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
D = êê 1 C 1 úú is
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II
ëê 6 1 C úû is a correct explanation for Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II
2sin 2 2q is not a correct explanation for Statement I.
(a) (b) 8 cos3q – 4 cosq + 6
sin q (d) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
2sin 2q é cos 2q - sin 2q ù
(c) (d) 8 cos3 q + 4 cosq + 6 48. Inverse of the matrix ê is
sin q ë sin 2q cos 2q úû
é1 2 ù
41. If A ê ú , then the value of the determinant é cos 2q - sin 2q ù é cos 2q sin 2q ù
(a) ê (b) ê
ë3 5û
ë sin 2q cos 2q úû ú
ë sin 2q - cos 2q û
| A2009 – 5A2008 | is
(a) – 6 (b) – 5 (c) – 4 (d) 4 é cos 2q sin 2q ù é cos 2q sin 2q ù
(c) ê ú (d) ê ú
-5 3 + 4i 5 - 7i ë sin 2q cos 2q û ë - sin 2q cos 2q û
42. If z = 3 - 4i 6 8 + 7i , then z is sin x cos x sin x
5 + 7i 8 - 7i dy
9 49. If y = cos x - sinx cos x , then is
dx
(a) Purely real x 1 1
(b) Purely imaginary (a) 0 (b) 1
(c) a + ib, where a ¹ 0, b ¹ 0 (c) –1 (d) None of these
(d) a + ib, where b = 4 50. The value of the determinant
43. Let A(–1, 1) and B(2, 3) be two points and P be a variable
point above the line AB such that the area of DPAB is 10. cos a - sin a 1
If the locus of P is ax + by = 15, then 5a + 2b is : sin a cos a 1 is
12 6 cos( a + b) - sin(a + b) 1
(a) - (b) - (c) 4 (d) 6
5 5
(a) independent of a (b) independent of b
10 10 11
C4 C5 Cm (c) independent of a & b (d) None of these
44. The value of 11
C6 11
C7 12
C m + 2 = 0 , when m is 51. If x, y, z are in A.P., then the value of the determinant
12
C8 12
C9 13
Cm +4 a + 2 a + 3 a + 2x
a + 3 a + 4 a + 2 y is
equal to
(a) 6 (b) 5 (c) 4 (d) 1 a + 4 a + 5 a + 2z
45. For all values of A, B, C and P, Q, R the value of the (a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2a (d) a
determinant
x 3 7
cos(A - P) cos(A - Q) cos(A - R) 52. If one root of the determinant 2 x 2 = 0, is – 9,
(x + a)3 cos(B - P) cos(B - Q) cos(B - R) is 7 6 x
cos(C - P) cos(C - Q) cos(C - R)
then the other two roots are
(a) 1 (b) 0 (a) 2, 7 (b) 2, – 7
(c) 2 (d) None of these (c) – 2, 7 (d) – 2, – 7
46. Let w be a complex number such that 2w + 1 = z where
a 2b 2c
1 1 1
53. If a ¹ 0, b, c satisfy 3 b c = 0 , then abc =
z= 2 2
-3 . If 1 -w - 1 w = 3k, then k is equal to : 4 a b
1 w2 w7 (a) a + b + c (b) 0
(a) 1 (b) –z (c) z (d) – 1 (c) b 3 (d) ab + bc
47. Statement I : The determinant of a matrix 6i - 3i 1
é 0 p - q p - rù 54. If 4 3i – 1 = x + iy, then (x, y ) is
ê ú
êq - p 0 q - r ú is zero. 20 3 i
êë r - p r - q 0 úû (a) (3, 1) (b) (1, 3) (c) (0, 3) (d) (0, 0)
Determinants M-21
a + 2 a + 3 a + 2x 1 2 1 1
(a) (b) (c) (d)
a + 3 a + 4 a + 2y is 5 5 2 3
a + 4 a + 5 a + 2z 64. If 1, w, w2 are the cube roots of unity, then
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2a (d) a 1 wn w 2n
x +a b c
D = wn w2n 1 is equal to
57. If c x+b a =0 2n n
w 1 w
a b x +c
then the value of x is equal to (a) =1 (b) 0 (c) –1 (d) 2
(a) abc (b) 1 é2 b 1ù
(c) – (a + b + c) (d) abc + a + b + c ê 2 ú
65. Let A = ê b b + 1 b ú where b > 0. If the minimum
– a2 ab ac ê1 b 2úû
58. If 2 = l a 2 b 2 c 2 , then the value of ë
ab –b bc
det (A) r
ac bc – c2 value of is q r , then is equal to
b q
l is (a) 1.5 (b) 2.5 (c) 1 (d) 2
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3
x 2 + 2 2x + 1 1 Topic-16.2 : Multiplication of Two Determinants,
59. Let x < 1, then value of 2x + 1 x + 2 1 is Adjoint of a Matrix, Inverse of a Matrix,
3 3 1 Orthogonal Matrix, Differentiation of a Determinant
(a) Non-negative (b) Non-positive é -4 -3 -3ù
(c) Negative (d) Positive 66. If A = êê 1 0 1 úú , then adj A =
a+b a b ëê 4 4 3 úû
60. a a +c c = (a) A –1 (b) AT
b c b+c (c) A (d) Both (a) and (c)
é1 2 2ù
(a) 4 a 2 b 2 c 2 (b) 4abc
67. If A = ê 2 1 2ú , then find A–1.
ê ú
(c) a 2 b 2 c 2 (d) 4 a 2 bc êë 2 2 1 úû
61. If the determinant
é b-c c-a a -b ù éa b cù é -3 2 2 ù é 3 2 2ù
1ê 1ê
ê b¢ - c¢ c¢ - a¢ a¢ - b¢ ú = m ê a¢ b¢ c¢ ú (a) 2 -3 2 ú (b) 2 3 2ú
ê ú ê ú 5ê ú 5 ê ú
êë 2 2 -3úû êë 2 2 3úû
ëê b² - c² c² - a ² a² - b²ûú ëê a² b² c²úû
then the value of m is é 3 2 2ù é3 2 2 ù
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) –1 (d) 1 1ê
2 -3 2ú
1ê
(c) (d) 2 3 2ú
écos a – sin aù 5ê ú 5ê ú
62. The inverse of the matrix ê is êë 2 2 3úû êë 2 2 -3úû
ë sin a cos a úû
M-22 MATHEMATICS
é1 1 2 ù x1 y1 1 a1 b1 1
68. Computer (AB)–1, if A = êê0 2 -3úú and 75. If x2 y2 1 = a2 b2 1 then two triangles with vertices
x3 y3 1 a3 b3 1
ëê 3 -2 4 úû
( x1 , y1 ), ( x 2 , y 2 ), ( x 3 , y3 ) and (a1, b1); (a2, b2); (a3, b3) are
é1 2 0 ù (a) congruent (b) similar
B = 0 3 -1ú
-1 ê (c) triangles of equal area (d) none of these
ê ú
ëê1 0 2 úû l 2 + 3l l - 1 l + 3
é16 12 1 ù é16 12 10 ù 76. Let pl4 + ql3 + rl2 + sl + t = l +1 -2 l l - 4
1 ê 1 ê
(a) 21 11 -7ú (b) 21 11 -2ú l-3 l + 4 3l
19 ê ú 19 ê ú
ëê10 -2 3 úû ëê10 -7 3 úû be an identity in l, where p, q, r, s and t are constants.
Then, then value of t is
é 16 12 1 ù é16 -21 1 ù (a) – 2 (b) – 1 (c) 0 (d) 1
1 ê
-21 -11 7 ú
1 ê
(c) (d) 21 11 7 ú 77. Let A be a matrix of order 3 × 3 and matrix B, C, D
19 ê ú 19 ê ú
ëê 10 -2 3úû êë10 -2 3úû are such that B = adj (A), C = adj (adj A), D = adj
(adj(adj A)), if |adj(adj(adj(adj ABCD)))| is |A|k, then
é1 -2 ù é6 0 ù k is equal to
69. Find a 2 × 2 matrix B such that B ê ú=ê ú. (a) 256 (b) 240 (c) 360 (d) 270
ë1 4 û ë0 6 û
é 4 2ù é 4 2ù éx y - zù
(a) ê -1 1 ú (b) ê1 1 ú 78. Let matrix A = êê1 2 3 úú , where x, y z, Î N.
ë û ë û
êë1 1 2 úû
é 1 2ù é 1 -2 ù
(c) ê -1 4 ú (d) ê -1 4 ú If |adj (adj (adj (adj A)))| = 48 × 516, then the number of
ë û ë û such (x, y, z) are
écos a - sin a 0ù (a) 28 (b) 36 (c) 45 (d) 55
ê sin a cos a 0ú 79. If A is a skew symmetric matrix, then B = (I – A)
70. A =
If ê ú , then find adj A. (I + A)–1 is (where I is an identity matrix of same
êë 0 0 1úû order as of A)
(a) idempotent matrix (b) symmetric matrix
é cos a sin a 0ù é cos a - sin a 0ù (c) orthogonal matrix (d) None of these
(a) ê - sin a cos a 0ú (b) ê - sin a cos a 0ú
ê ú ê ú é2 0 0ù
êë 0 0 1úû êë 0 0 1úû ê ú
80. If A = ê 2 2 0 ú , then adj (adj A) is equal to
é cos a sin a 0ù é - cos a - sin a 0ù êë 2 2 2 úû
ê sin a cos a 0ú ê sin a cos a 0ú
(c) ê ú (d)
ê ú é1 0 0 ù é1 0 0ù
êë 0 0 1úû êë 0 0 1úû ê ú ê ú
(a) 4 ê1 1 0 ú (b) 8 ê1 1 0ú
71. If A is a square matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 5, êë1 1 1úû êë1 1 1úû
then |Adj (4A)| =
(a) 53 × 42 (b) 52 × 43 é1 0 0 ù
2
(c) 5 × 16 3 (d) 53 × 162
72. If the area of a triangle ABC, with vertices A(1, 3), (c) 16 êê1 1 0 úú (d) None of these
B(0, 0) and C(k, 0) is 3 sq. units, then the value of k is êë1 1 1úû
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 81. Find the cofactors of elements a12, a22, a32 respectively
73. If area of triangle is 4 sq. units with vertices (–2, 0),
(0, 4) and (0, k), then k is equal to é 1 sin q 1 ù
(a) 0, –8 (b) 8 (c) – 8 (d) 0, 8 ê - sin q 1 sin qú .
of the matrix ê ú
74. Area of the triangle whose vertices are (a, b + c), (b, c + a)
ëê -1 - sin q 1 úû
and (c, a + b), is
(a) 2 sq units (b) 3 sq units (a) 0, 2, – 2 sin q (b) 2, 0, 2 sin q
(c) 0 sq unit (d) None of these (c) 2, 0, – 2 sin q (d) – 2 sin q, 2, 0
Determinants M-23
82. If cij is the co-factor of the element aij of the determinant 90. A be a square matrix of order 2 with |A| ¹ 0 such that
2 -3 5 |A + |A| adj (A)| = 0, where adj (A) is a adjoint of
matrix A, then the value of |A– |A| adj (A)| is
6 0 4 , then write the value of a32 × c32.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
1 5 -7
91. If there are three square matrix A, B, C of same order
(a) 110 (b) 22 (c) – 110 (d) – 22 n
83. If Aij denotes the cofactor of the element aij of the satisfying the equation A2 = A–1 and let B = A2 and
( n - 2)
2 -3 5 C = A2 then det (B – C) =
determinant 6 0 4 then the value of (a) 2n (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0
1 5 -7
é 3 -1 3 + 1ù
a11A31 + a12A32 + a13A33 is ê ú
2 2 é 1 0ù
92. Let S = êê
2 2 ú
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) – 5
æ 3 + 1ö ú , A = ê -1 1 ú and
84. Find the cofactor of the element of third row and ê- ç 3 - 1ú ë û
second column of the following determinant êë è 2 2 ÷ø 2 2 úû
1 x y+z
éA Bù
1 y z+x . P = S(adj A) ST. If ST P10 S = ê ú , then
ëC D û
1 z x+ y
A + B + C + D is equal to
(a) x – y (b) y – x (c) x – z (d) z – x
(a) 8 (b) 12 (c) 55 (d) 20
é 0 1 -1ù
é 3 2ù
85. If A = êê 2 1 3 úú , then [A (adj A) A–1] A =
–1 3
93. (a) If A = ê ú , then (A ) is equal to
ë 0 1 û
êë 3 2 1 úû
1 é1 -26 ù 1 é1 26 ù
é 3 0 0ù é -6 0 0 ù (a) (b)
27 êë0 27 úû 27 êë0 27 úû
(a) 2 ê 0 3 0ú (b) êê 0 -6 0 úú
ê ú
êë 0 0 3úû êë 0 0 -6úû 1 é1 -26 ù 1 é-1 -26 ù
(c) (d)
27 êë0 -27 úû 27 êë 0 -27 úû
é 1 1ù
ê0 – 94. If the value of a third order determinant is 11, then the
2 6ú
ê ú é1 0 0ù value of the determinant formed by its cofactors will be
1 1 1ú
(c) êê (d) êê 0 1 0úú (a) 11 (b) 121 (c) 1331 (d) 33
3 6 2ú
ê ú êë 0 0 1úû
ê1 1 1ú x3 sin x cos x
êë 2 3 6 úû 95. Let f(x) = 6 -1 0
86. If P is non-singular matrix then value of adj(P–1) in p p 2
p3
terms of P is
P d3
(a) (b) P|P| where p is a constant. Then [f(x)] at x = 0 is
|P| dx 3
(c) P (d) None of these
(a) p (b) p + p2
87. If A and B are symmetric non-singular matrices such 3
that AB = BA and A–1B–1 exist then matrix A–1 B–1 is (c) p + p (d) independent of p
(a) symmetric (b) skew-symmetric 96. If fr(x), gr(x), hr(x), r = 1, 2, 3 are polynomials in x
(c) null (d) None of these such that fr(a) = gr(a) = hr(a), r = 1, 2, 3
88. Let A = [aij] be a 3 × 3 invertible matrix. If determinant of f1 (x ) f 2 (x ) f 3 (x)
A is 2, then the value of |(adj AT)T| + |(adj A–1)–1| equals
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16 and F(x) = g1 ( x ) g 2 ( x ) g 3 ( x) then F'(a) =
89. If A and B are two non-singular matrices which h1 (x ) h 2 (x ) h 3 (x )
commutes, then (A(A + B)–1 B)–1 (AB) =
(a) A + B (b) A–1 + B–1 (a) 0 (b) f1(a) + f2(a) + f3(a)
–1
(c) A + B (d) None of these (c) 3 [f1(a) + f2(a) + f3(a)](d) f1(a) f2(a) f3(a)
M-24 MATHEMATICS
é3 2ù 103. If x, y, z are not all zero and a, b, c are distinct such that
97. If A = ê ú then A(adj A) is equal to ax + by + cz = 0, bx + cy + az = 0, cx + ay + bz = 0 then
ë1 4 û (a) a + b + c = 0 (b) a2 + b2 + c2 = abc
é 10 0 ù é 0 10 ù (c) a + b + c = abc (d) None of these
(a) ê (b) ê
ú
ë 0 10 û ë 10 0 úû 104. The equations 2x + 3y + 4 = 0; 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 and
4x + 5y + 8 = 0 are
é 10 10 ù é 0 0 ù (a) consistent with unique solution
(c) ê ú (d) ê ú
ë 0 0 û ë 10 10 û (b) inconsistent
98. If A is a square matrix of order n, then adj (adj A) is (c) consistent with infinitely many solutions
equal to (d) None of the above
105. The system ax – 3y + 5z = 4, x – ay + 3z = 2, 9x – 7y +
(a) | A |n-1 A (b) | A | n A
8az = 0 has
(c) | A | n-2 A (d) None of these (a) a unique solution for all a
99. Find the cofactor of the element a32 of the determinant (b) no solution for all a
(c) unique solution if 4a3 – 45a + 58 = 0
2 3 -4 (d) no solution if 4a3 – 45a + 58 = 0
3 6 5 106. The maximum and minimum value of (3 ´ 3)
1 8 9 determinant whose elements belongs to {0, 1} is
(a) –2 (b) –4 (c) –6 (d) –9 (a) 1, –1 (b) 2, –2
(c) 4, –4 (d) None of these
12 22 32 107. Let l and a be real. Let S denote the set of all values of
100. If D = 22 32 42 , the minor of a22 is l for which the system of linear equations.
lx + (sin a) y + (cos a) z = 0
32 42 52 x + (cos a) y + (sin a) z = 0
(a) – 46 (b) 46 (c) –56 (d) 56 –x + (sin a) y – (cos a) z = 0
has a non-trivial solution then S contains
Topic-16.3 : Solution of System of Linear Equations (a) (–1, 1) (b) [ - 2, -1]
Using Determinant Method (Cramer's Rule), Using
Matrix Method (c) [1, 2 ] (d) [- 2, 2]
108. If the system of linear equations x + ky + 3z = 0,
x c -b 3x + ky – 2z = 0, 2x + 4y – 3z = 0 has a non-zero
101. The square of the determinant -c x a is equal to xz
solutions (x, y, z), then is equal to
b -a x y2
(a) 30 (b) – 10 (c) 10 (d) – 30
(a) 0 109. Let S be the set of all real values of k for which the
(b) the given determinant itself system of linear equations x + y + z = 2; 2x + y – z = 3;
3x + 2y + kz = 4 has a unique solution. Then S is
a2 + x2 ab - cx ac + bx (a) an empty set (b) equal to R
2 2 (c) equal to {0} (d) equal to R – {0}
(c) the determinant ab + cx b +x bc - ax 110. Sum of values of p for which, the equations x + y + z
ac - bx bc + ax c2 + x 2 = 1; x + 2y + 4z = p and x + 4y + 10z = p2 have a
solution is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
(d) None of these
111. The set of equations : lx - y + (cos q) z = 0;
102. The equations 2x + 3y + 4 = 0; 3x + 4y + 6 = 0 and
4x + 5y + 8 = 0 are 3 x + y + 2 z = 0; (cos q) x + y + 2 z = 0 ; 0 £ q < 2p , has
(a) consistent with unique solution non-trivial solutions
(b) inconsistent (a) for no value of l and q
(b) for all values of l and q
(c) consistent with infinitely many solutions
(c) for all values of l and only two values of q
(d) None of the above
(d) for only one value of l and all values of q
Determinants M-25
14 é 14 -4 -22ù é -14 4 22 ù
(a) 15 (b) 12 (c) (d) 6 ê -4 -22 14 ú ê 4 22 -14úú
2 3 (a) ê ú (b) ê
ëê -22 14 -4 ûú êë 22 -14 4 úû
cos15º sin15º
7.
sin 75º cos 72º
é 0 0 0ù
(a) 0 (b) 5 (c) 3 (d) 7 (c) êê 0 0 0úú (d) None of these
a + ib c + id êë -2 -3 5úû
8.
- c + id a - ib
(a) (a + b)2 (b) (a + b + c + d)2
(c) (a2 + b2 – c2 – d2) (d) a2 + b2 + c2 + d2
Determinants M-27
éa - b - c 2a 2a ù é1 2 ù
20. Find the adjoint of the matrix A = ê ú .
15. The matrix ê ú
ê 2b b-c-a 2b ú is singular, if ë3 4 û
êë 2c 2c c - a - b úû
é 4 2ù é 4 -2 ù
(a) ê ú (b) ê ú
(a) a = 0 (b) a + b = 0 ë3 1û ë -3 1 û
(c) a – b = 0 (d) a + b + c = 0
é1 2 ù é 1 -2 ù
(c) ê ú (d) ê ú
é0 1 1ù éb + c c - a b - a ù ë 3 4û ë -3 4 û
ê ú 1ê ú
16. If S = ê1 0 1 ú , A = êc - b c + a a - b ú ,
2 21. If a , b, g Î R, then the determinant
êë1 1 0úû êë b - c a - c a + b úû
(ei a + e- i a ) 2 (ei a - e - i a )2 4
then SAS–1 =
ib - ib 2 ib -ib 2
D = (e + e ) (e - e ) 4 is
éa 0 0ù éa 0 0ù ig -i g 2 ig -i g 2
1ê ú (e + e ) (e - e ) 4
(a) ê0 b 0ú (b) 0 b 0ú
ê ú 2ê
êë0 0 c úû êë0 0 c úû (a) independent of a , b and g
(b) dependent on a , b and g
éa 0 0 ù éa 0 0ù (c) independent of a , b only
(c) 2 ê0 b 0 ú (d) 3 êê0 b 0úú (d) independent of a , g only
ê ú
êë0 0 c úû êë0 0 c úû
b2 - ab b - c bc - ac
2
22. The value of the determinant ab - a a - b b 2 - ab is
-1
æ 1 - tan qö æ 1 tan qö é a - bù bc - ac c - a ab - a 2
17. If ç ÷ ç =ê ú , then
è tan q 1 ø è - tan q 1 ÷ø ëb a û
(a) 1 (b) 0
(a) a = sin 2q, b = cos 2q (b) a = 1, b = sin 2q
(c) –1 (d) None of these
(c) a = b = 1 (d) a = cos 2q, b = sin 2q
23. Let a1, a2, a3, ..., a10 be in G.P. with ai > 0 for i =
é 1 -5 7 ù 1, 2, ..., 10 and S be the set of pairs (r, k), r, kÎN
18. If the sum of the matrices A and êê -9 2 6úú is 3I3 (the set of natural numbers) for which
êë -10 5 2úû
log e a1r a k2 log e a 2r a 3k log e a 3r a k4
(l 3 denotes the unit matrix of order 3) and P = log e a r4 a 5k log e a 5r a 6k log e a 6r a 7k = 0
ê ú
ê 0 0 3ú Then the number of elements in S, is :
êë 5 2 4úû
(a) 4 (b) infinitely many
then det {(Adj A) . P–1} is equal to (c) 2 (d) 10
(a) –54 (b) 1/54 (c) 54 (d) 1 24. If the system of linear equations
2x + 2y + 3z = a
é a 1 2ù é 7 -1 -5ù 3x – y + 5z = b
ê ú ê ú
19. If A = ê 1 2 bú and Adj A = ê -3 9 5 ú then x – 3y + 2z = c
êë c 1 3úû ëê 1 -3 5 ûú where, a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, has more
than one solution, then :
a 2 + b 2 + c2 =
(a) b – c + a = 0 (b) b – c – a = 0
(a) 10 (b) 14 (c) 11 (d) 29
(c) a + b + c = 0 (d) b + c – a = 0
M-28 MATHEMATICS
é x 3 2ù æ 3ö æ 3 ö
(a) b Î ç -3, ÷ (b) b Î ç - , 4 ÷
30. Matrix A = êê 1 y 4úú , if x y z = 60 è 4 ø 2è ø
êë 2 2 z úû
æ 3 ö
(c) b Î ç - , 3 ÷ (d) None of these
and 8x + 4y + 3z = 20, then A (adj A) is equal to è 4 ø
Determinants M-29
Chapter Test 1
1. If A is a square matrix of order 3, then Adj.A = (a) Statement I is false, Statement II is true.
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II
–1 3 2
(a) A (b) A (c) A (d) A is a correct explanation for Statement I.
2. If c < 1 and the system of equations x + y – 1 = 0, (c) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II
2x – y – c = 0 and –bx + 3by – c = 0 is consistent, then is not a correct explanation for Statement I.
the possible real values of b are (d) Statement I is true, Statement II is false.
æ 3ö
(b) b Î æç - , 4 ö÷
3 x b b
(a) b Î ç -3, ÷ x b
è 4ø è 2 ø 5. If D1 = a x b and D 2 = are the given
a x
a a x
æ 3 ö
(c) b Î ç - ,3 ÷ (d) None of these
è 4 ø determinants, then
é1 ù d
ê a 0 0ú
(a) D1 = 3(D 2 )2 (b) D1 = 3D 2
é a 0 0ù dx
ê ú
Statement I : If A = êê 0 b 0úú then A-1 = ê 0
1
3. 0ú d
ê b ú (c) D1 = 3D 22 (d) D1 = 3(D 2 )3/2
êë 0 0 cúû ê 1ú dx
ê0 0 cú
ë û
6. If the system of linear equations
Statement II : The inverse of a diagonal matrix is a x – 4y + 7z = g, 3y – 5z = h, – 2x + 5y – 9z = k
diagonal matrix. is consistent, then :
(a) Statement I is false, Statement II is true. (a) g + 2h + k = 0 (b) g + h + 2k = 0
(b) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II (c) 2g + h + k = 0 (d) g + h + k = 0
is a correct explanation for Statement I.
(c) Statement I is true, Statement II is true; Statement II ée t e-t cos t ùe-t sin t
is not a correct explanation for Statement I. ê -t -t -t
ú -t
7. If A = êet -e cos t - e sin t -e sin t + e cos t ú
(d) Statement I is true, Statement II is false. ê t ú
ëêe 2e-t sin t -2e-t cos t ûú
é1 4 2ù
4. Statement I : The inverse of the matrix êê 2 -2 4 ú
ú
then A is:
êë - 3 7 - 6úû (a) invertible for all tÎR.
does not exist. (b) invertible only if t = p.
(c) not invertible for any tÎR.
é1 4 2ù
ê
Statement II : The matrix ê 2 - 1 4 úú is singular. p
(d) invertible only if t = .
êë- 3 7 - 6 úû 2
Determinants M-31
(c) 2 ( )
2 +1 (d) 2 ( 2+2 ) (a) x + 15
(c) x + p + q + r
(b) x + 20
(d) None of these
10. If the system of linear equations x + y + z = 5,
écos a - sin a 0ù
x + 2y + 2z = 6, x + 3y + lz = m, (l, m Î R), has
infinitely many solutions, then the value of l + m is : 17. Let F(a ) = êê sin a cos a 0úú where a Î R . Then
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 10 êë 0 0 1úû
2 -3 5 ax by cz
column in the following determinant 6 0 4 . 8. If x + y + z = 0, then cy az bx is not divisible by
1 5 -7 bz cx ay
26. In a third order determinant, each element of the first 33. The parameter on which the value of the determinant
column consists of sum of two terms, each element of
the second column consists of sum of three terms and 1 a a2
each element of the third column consists of sum of cos( p - d )x cos px cos( p + d) x does not depend
four terms. Then it can be decomposed into n sin(p - d) x sin px sin(p + d )x
determinants, where n has the value
upon is
(a) 1 (b) 9 (c) 16 (d) 24
(a) a (b) p (c) d (d) x
27. If a, b, c are different, then the value of x satisfying
34. If a, b, c are sides of a triangle and
0 x 2 - a x3 - b
2
x +a 0 x 2 + c =0 a2 b2 c2
x4 + b x - c 0 (a + 1) 2 (b + 1) 2 (c + 1) 2 = 0 , then
(a - 1) 2 (b - 1) 2 (c - 1) 2
(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) 0
28. Let a and b be the roots of the equation x2 + x + 1 (a) DABC cannot be equilateral triangle
= 0. Then for y ¹ 0 in R, (b) DABC is a right angled isosceles triangle
y +1 a b
(c) DABC is an isosceles triangle
(d) None of these
a y+b 1 is equal to:
35. For positive numbers x, y, z the numerical value of the
b 1 y+a
1 log x y log x z
(a) y(y2 – 1) (b) y(y2 – 3)
determinant log y x 3 log y z is
(c) y3 (d) y3 – 1
log z x log z y 5
29. Let l be a real number for which the system of linear
equations: x + y + z = 6, 4x + ly – lz = l –2, (a) 0 (b) log x log y log z
3x + 2y – 4z = –5 has infinitely many solutions. Then (c) 1 (d) 8
l is a root of the quadratic equation :
(a) l2 + 3l – 4 = 0 (b) l2 – 3l – 4 = 0 36. If f ( x ) = ax 6 + bx 5 + cx 4 + dx 3 + ex 2 + fx + g
2
(c) l +l – 6 = 0 (d) l2 – l – 6 = 0
30. The sum of the real roots of the equation x 2 - 2x + 3 7x + 2 x+4
2
= 2x + 7 x -x+2 3x then g =
x -6 -1 3 2x - 1 2
x - 4x + 7
2 -3x x - 3 = 0, is equal to :
-3 2 x x+2 (a) –200 (b) 100 (c) 112 (d) –108
(a) 6 (b) 0 (c) 1 (d) –4 37. If a be a repeated root of the quadratic equation f(x) =
31. The system of linear equations lx + 2y + 2z = 5, 0 and A(x), B(x), C(x) be polynomials of degrees 3, 4
2lx + 3y + 5z = 8, 4x + ly + 6z = 10 has: A( x ) B( x ) C( x )
(a) no solution when l = 8
and 5 respectively, then A(a ) B(a ) C(a )
(b) a unique solution when l = –8
A' (a ) B' (a ) C' (a )
(c) no solution when l = 2
(d) infinitely many solutions when l = 2 (a) is divisible by f(x) for all x
32. The following system of linear equations (b) is not divisible by f(x) for all x
7x + 6y – 2z = 0, 3x + 4y + 2z = 0, x – 2y – 6z = 0, (c) vanishes
has (d) None of these
(a) infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z) satisfying y = 2z. 38. If A is a non-zero column matrix of order m × 1 and B
(b) no solution. is a non-zero row matrix of order 1× n, then rank of AB
(c) infinitely many solutions, (x, y, z) satisfying x = 2z. is equal to
(d) only the trivial solution. (a) n (b) m
(c) 1 (d) None of these
Determinants M-35
39. If B is a non-singular matrix and A is a square matrix, 0 < y < 1; 1 < z < 2 , then the value of the determinant
then det (B–1 AB) is equal to
[ x] + 1 [ y] [z]
(a) det (A–1) (b) det (B–1) [ x ] [ y ] + 1 [ z ] is
(c) det (A) (d) det (B) [ x] [ y] [ z] + 1
40. If the system of equations lx + 2y – 2z = 1, 4x + 2ly
– z = 2, 6x + 6y + lz = 3 has a unique solution, then (a) [z] (b) [y]
(a) l ¹ 1 (b) l ¹ 2 (c) [x] (d) None of these
(c) l ¹ 3 (d) None of these sin x cos x cos x
46. The number of distinct real roots of cos x sin x cos x
41. Let Sk = a k + b k + g k , then cos x cos x sin x
S0 S1 S2
π π
D = S1 S2 S3 is equal to = 0 in the interval - £x£ is
S2 S3 S4
4 4
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 3
(a) S6 (b) S5 – S3
47. If a, b, c are in A.P. then the determinant
(c) S6 – S4 (d) None of these
2 y + 4 5y + 7 8y + a
1 n n n 3 y + 5 6 y + 8 9 y + b is equal to
42. If D r = 2r n2 + n + 1 n2 + n and å D r = 56 then n 4 y + 6 7 y + 9 10 y + c
2r - 1 n 2 2
n + n +1 r =1 (a) 0 (b) y2 + 10
equals (c) 4(y2 + 5) (d) y3
(a) 4 (b) 6 x sin q cos q
(c) 7 (d) 8 48. The determinant - sin q -x 1 is independent of
cos q 1 x
b2 + c 2 a 2 + l a 2 + l
43. If pl 4 + ql 3 + r l 2 + s l + t = b 2 + l c 2 + a 2 b 2 + l (a) x only (b) q only
c 2 + l c 2 + l a 2 + b2 (c) x and q both (d) None of these
49. Consider the system of equations in x, y, z as
is an identity in l where p, q, r, s, t are constants, then 2x sin 3q – y + z = 0, x cos 2q + 4y + 3z = 0,
the value of t is 2x + 7y + 7z = 0. If this system has a non-trivial solution,
(a) 1 (b) 2
then for integer n, values of q are given by
(c) 0 (d) None of these
44. If f(x), g(x) and h(x) are three polynomials of degree 2 æ (–1)n ö æ (–1)n ö
(a) p ç n + ÷ (b) p çè n + ÷
è 3 ø 4 ø
f ( x) g ( x) h( x)
and D(x) = f '( x ) g '( x ) h '( x ) , then D(x) is a æ (–1)n ö np
f "( x ) g "( x ) h "( x ) (c) p ç n + ÷ (d)
è 6 ø 2
polynomial of degree 50. Let P is a non-singular matrix such that 1 + P + P2 + ...
(a) 2 (b) 3 + Pn = O (O denotes the null matrix), then P–1 is
(c) at most 2 (d) at most 3 (a) P n (b) – Pn
45. If [ ] denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to (c) – (1 + P + .... + Pn) (d) None of these
the real number under consideration and –1 < x < 0;
Chapter Test 2
1. If a be a repeated root of the quadratic equation f(x) = 0
and A(x), B(x), C(x) be polynomials of degrees 3, 4 and (a) is divisible by f(x) for all x
(b) is not divisible by f(x) for all x
A( x) B( x ) C ( x) (c) is equal to 0
5 respectively, then A(a) B (a ) C (a) (d) None of these
A '(a) B '(a) C '(a )
M-36 MATHEMATICS
4. If ab 2
b +1 bc 2 2 2
= K + a + b + c , then K is 11. If ar= (cos 2 r p + i sin 2rp) 9 ,then the value of
2
ac bc c +1 a1 a2 a3
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 3 a4 a5 a6 is
a7 a8 a9
yz zx xy
5. The value of p 2q 3r , where x, y, z are (a) 1 (b) – 1
(c) 0 (d) None of these
1 1 1
é1 1 ù é1 1ù é1 0ù é0 1ù (1 + x) 4 (1 + x )8 (1 + x)12
(a) ê1 0ú (b) ê0 1ú (c) ê1 1 ú (d) ê1 1ú
ë û ë û ë û ë û
24. Let k be positive real number and let
18. If D = diag(d1 , d 2 , d 3 , ......,d n ) where d i ¹ 0 for all i =
é 2k –1 2 k 2 kù é 0 2k –1 kù
1, 2, ....., n, be a diagonal matrix, then D -1 is equal to ê ú ê ú
A= ê2 k 1 –2k ú & B = ê1–2k 0 2 k ú.
(a) diag (d1-1 , d 2-1 , d3-1,....., d n-1 ) ê ú ê ú
(b) D ëê–2 k 2k –1 ûú ëê – k –2 k 0 ûú
4. Let k be an integer such that triangle with vertices 10. Let a and b be the roots of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0.
(k, –3k), (5, k) and (–k, 2) has area 28 sq. units. Then
y +1 a b
the orthocentre of this triangle is at the point : [2017]
Then for y ¹ 0 in R, a y+b 1 is equal to: [2019]
æ 1ö æ 1ö
(a) ç 2, ÷ (b) ç 2, - ÷ b 1 y+a
è 2ø è 2ø
(a) y(y2 – 1) (b) y(y2 – 3)
æ 3ö æ 3ö (c) y3 (d) y3 – 1
(c) ç1, ÷ (d) ç1, - ÷
è 4ø è 4ø 11. If the system of linear equations
5. If S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the 2x + 2ay + az = 0, 2x + 3by + bz = 0, 2x + 4cy + cz = 0,
following system of linear equations x + y + z = 1 where a, b, c Î R are non-zero and distinct; has a
x + ay + z = 1; ax + by + z = 0 non-zero solution, then: [2020]
has no solution, then S is : [2017]
1 1 1
(a) a singleton (a) , , are in A.P.. (b) a, b, c are in G.P.
a b c
(b) an empty set
(c) a + b + c = 0 (d) a, b, c are in A.P.
(c) an infinite set
12. Let a be a root of the equation x2 + x + 1 = 0
(d) a finite set containing two or more elements
é2 -3ù é1 1 1ù
6. If A = ê , then adj (3A2 + 12A) is equal to : 1 ê ú
ë -4 1 úû and the matrix A = 1 a a2 ú ,
3 êê 2 ú
[2017] ë1 a a4 û
é2 aù 3 5
é 1 -2 a ù (a) 0 (b) (c) (d) 2
17. Let A = ê ê ú 2 2
a 2 - 1ú and B = ê -1 2 ú , a Î C. Then
ë û êë 4 -5úû ê 2 0 1ú
23. Let A = êê1 1 0úú , B = [B1, B2, B3], where B1, B2,
the absolute value of the sum of all values of a for
which det(AB) = 0 is : [2022] ëê1 0 1úû
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 2 (d) 5
ê1 ú ê 2ú
18. Let A and B be two square matrices of order 2. If ê ú
B3 are column matrices, and AB1 = ê0ú , AB2 = êê3 úú ,
det(A) = 2, det(B) = 3 and det ((det(5(detA)B))A2) =
êë0úû êë0 ûú
2a3b5c for some a, b, c Î N, then a + b + c is equal to:
[2022] ê3 ú
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 13 (d) 14 AB3 = êê 2úú . If a = |B| and b is the sum of all the
19. Let the area of the triangle with vertices A(1, a ), B( a , 0) êë1 úû
and C(0, a ) be 4 sq. units. If the point ( a , – a ),
diagonal elements of B, then a3 + b3 is equal to
(– a , a ) and (a2, b) are collinear, then b is equal to
_____. [2024]
[2022]
(a) 64 (b) – 8 (c) – 64 (d) 512 3 3
1 a+
2 2
1 2k 2k - 1
1 1
n 24. The value of a, for which 1 a+ =0,
2
20. Let Dk = n n + n + 2 n2 . If å Dk = 96, 3 3
2 2 k =1 2a + 3 3a + 1 0
n n +n n +n+2
é2 x xù
13. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the determinant
(a) det R = det ê 0 4 0 ú + 8 , for all x Î R of M. Let I be the 3 × 3 identity matrix. Let E and F be
ê x x 5ú two 3 × 3 matrices such that (I – EF) is invertible. If
ë û
G = (I – EF)–1, then which of the following statements
(b) For x = 1, there exists a unit vector a$i + b $j + g k$ is (are) TRUE? [2021]
éa ù é 0ù (a) |FE| = |I – FE||FGE| (b) (I – FE)(I + FGE) = I
for which R êê b úú = êê 0úú (c) EFG = GEF (d) (I – FE)(I – FGE) = I
ë g û ë 0û 14. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the determinant
(c) There exists a real number x such that PQ = QP of M. Let
é1 ù é1 ù é1 2 3ù é1 0 0ù é1 3 2 ù
(d) For x = 0, if R = ê a ú = 6 ê a ú , then a + b = 5 E = ê2 3 4 ú, P = ê0 0 1 ú and F = ê8 18 13ú
êb ú êb ú êë 8 13 18 úû êë0 1 0 úû êë 2 4 3 úû
ë û ë û
If Q is a non-singular matrix of order 3 × 3, then which
é0 1 a ù é -1 1 -1ù
ê1 2 3 ú ê ú of the following statements is (are) TRUE ?
10. Let M = ê ú and (adj M) = ê 8 -6 2 ú where
ë3 b 1 û ë -5 3 -1û [2021]
a and b are real numbers. Which of the following options é1 0 0ù
is/are correct ? [2019] (a) F = PEP and P2 = ê0 1 0ú
(a) a + b = 3 êë0 0 1 úû
(b) det (adj M 2) = 81
-1 -1
(c) (adjM)–1 + adjM–1 = –M (b) EQ + PFQ = EQ + PFQ
éa ù é1 ù 3 2
ê ú ê ú (c) ( EF ) > EF
(d) If M ê b ú = ê 2ú , then a – b + g = 3
ë g û ë 3û (d) Sum of the diagonal entries of P–1 EP + F is equal
11. Let M be a 3 × 3 invertible matrix with real entries and to the sum of diagonal entries of E + P–1FP
let I denote the 3 × 3 identity matrix. If M–1 = adj (adj 15. Let |M| denote the determinant of a square matrix M.
M), then which of the following statements is/are é pù
Let g : ê0, ú ® ¡ be the function defined by
ALWAYS TRUE? ë 2û
(a) M = I (b) det M = 1 [2020] æp ö
(c) M2 = I (d) (adj M)2 = I where g ( q) = f ( q) - 1 + f ç - q ÷ -1
è2 ø
12. For any 3 × 3 matrix M, let |M| denote the
é1 2 3 ù 1 sin q 1
1
determinant of M. Let E = ê 2 3 4 ú , f ( q ) = - sin q 1 sin q +
êë 8 13 18úû 2
-1 - sin q 1
é1 0 0 ù é1 3 2 ù
P = ê 0 0 1 ú and F = ê8 18 13ú . If Q is a
êë 0 1 0 úû æ pö æ pö
êë2 4 3 úû sin p cos ç q + ÷ tan ç q - ÷
è 4ø è 4ø
nonsingular matrix of order 3 × 3, then which of the
æ pö p æ 4ö
following statements is (are) TRUE ? [2021] sin ç q - ÷ - cos log e ç ÷ .
è 4ø 2 è pø
é1 0 0ù æ pö æ pö
(a) F = PEP and P2 = ê0 1 0ú cot ç q + ÷ log e ç ÷ tan p
êë0 0 1 úû è 4ø è 4ø
-1
(b) EQ + PFQ = EQ + PFQ
-1 Let p(x) be a quadratic polynomial whose roots are the
maximum and minimum values of the function g(q),
3 2
(c) ( EF ) > EF and p(2) = 2 - 2. Then, which of the following is/are
TRUE ? [2022]
(d) Sum of the diagonal entries of P–1 EP + F is equal
to the sum of diagonal entries of E + P–1FP
M-42 MATHEMATICS
1 ìæ x ö æ x ö æ a12 ö ü
(S) If b ¹ ( 7a - 3) where a = 1(4) x = 11, y = –2 and ïç ÷ ç ÷ ç ÷ï
2 íç y ÷ : x , y , z Î ¡, M ç y ÷ = ç 0 ÷ ý is
and g = 28, then the system z = 0 as a solution ïç z ÷ ç z ÷ ç -a ÷ ï
has îè ø è ø è 23 ø þ
(5) x = –15, y = 4 and (S) Let M = (aij)3´3 be a (4) 6
z = 0 as a solution matrix with all entries
The correct option is: in T such that Ri = 0 for
(a) (P) ® (3), (Q) ® (2), (R) ® (1), (S) ® (4) all i. Then the absolute
value of the determinant
(b) (P) ® (3), (Q) ® (2), (R) ® (5), (S) ® (4)
of M is
(c) (P) ® (2), (Q) ® (1), (R) ® (4), (S) ® (5)
(5) 0
(d) (P) ® (2), (Q) ® (1), (R) ® (1), (S) ® (3) The correct option is [2024]
23. Let a and b be the distinct roots of the equation x2 + x – 1 (a) (P) ® (4) (Q) ® (2)(R) ® (5) (S) ® (1)
= 0. Consider the set T = {1, a, b} For a 3 ´ 3 matrix (b) (P) ® (2) (Q) ® (4)(R) ® (1) (S) ® (5)
M = (aij)3´3, define Ri = ai1 + ai2 + ai3 and Cj = a1j + (c) (P) ® (2) (Q) ® (4)(R) ® (3) (S) ® (5)
a2j + a3j for i = 1, 2, 3 and j = 1, 2, 3. Match each entry (d) (P) ® (1) (Q) ® (5)(R) ® (3) (S) ® (4)
in List-I to the correct entry in List-II.
Numeric Answer Stem Based Questions
List-I List-II
Let a, b and g be real numbers such that the system of
(P) The number of matrices (1) 1
linear equations, x + 2y + 3z = a, 4x + 5y + 6z = b,
M = (aij)3´3 with all entries
7x + 8y + 9z = g – 1 is consistent. Let |M| represent the
in T such that Ri = Cj = 0 determinant of the matrix
for all i, j is
(Q) The number of symmetric (2) 12 é a 2 gù
M = êê b 1 0úú
matrices M = (aij)3´3 with . Let P be the plane containing all those
êë -1 0 1 úû
all entries in T such that
Cj = 0 for all j, is (a, b, g) for which the above system of linear equations is
(R) Let M = (aij)3´3 be a (3) infinite consistent, and D be the square of the distance of the point
skew symmetric matrix (0, 1, 0) from the plane P. [2021]
such that aij Î T for 24. The value of M is _____.
i > j. Then the number 25. The value of D is _____.
of elements in the set
18. If xi = aibici, i = 1, 2, 3 are three-digit positive integer 23. If P, Q and R represent the angles of an acute angled
such that each xi is a multiple of 19, then for some triangle, no two of them being equal then the value of
1 1 + sin P sin P(1 + sin P)
a1 a2 a3 1 1 + sin Q sin Q(1 + sin Q)
is
integer n, D = b1 b2 b3 is given by 1 1 + sin R sin R(1 + sin R)
c1 c2 c3
(a) 0 (b) positive
(a) 19n + 1 (b) 19n + 2
(c) negative (d) can not be determined
(c) 19n (d) 19n + 3
19. If a, b, c, are the sides of a triangle ABC such that 24. Consider the set A of all determinants of order 3 with
entries 0 or 1 only. Let B be the subset of A consisting
a2 b2 c2 of all determinants with value 1. Let C be the subset of
( a + 1) 2 (b + 1) 2 ( c + 1) 2 = 0 , then A consisting of all determinants with value –1. Then
(a) C is empty
( a - 1) 2 ( b - 1) 2 ( c - 1) 2
(b) B has as many elements as C
(a) D ABC is non-isosceles right-angled triangle (c) A = B È C
(b) D ABC is an equilateral (d) B has twice as many elements as elements as C
(c) D ABC is an acute angled triangle with no two 25. Consider three points
angles being equal
(d) D ABC is an isosceles P = ( - sin(b - a ), - cos b), Q = (cos(b - a ),sin b) and
20. If a, b, c, are the sides of a triangle ABC and A, B, C p
R = (cos(b - a + q),sin(b - q)) , where 0 < a, b, q < .
are angles opposite to a, b, c, and 4
Then,
2
a b sin A c sin A (a) P lies on the line segment RQ
D = b sin A 1 cos A (b) Q lies on the line segment PR
then,
c sin A cos A 1 (c) R lies on the line segment QP
(a) D = area of triangle (d) P, Q, R are non-collinear
(b) D = perimeter of the triangle 26. If a, b, c, are non zero complex numbers satisfying
(c) D = Sa2 b2 + c 2 ab ac
(d) None of these a2 + b2 + c2 = 0 and ab 2
c +a 2
bc
a x x x
ac bc a + b2
2
x b x x
21. If = f ( x ) - xf ¢( x) , then f(x) is = ka2b2c2, then k is equal to
x x g x
x x x d (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 2
27. If B is a 3 × 3 matrix such that B 2 = 0, then
(a) ( x - a )( x - b)( x - g )( x - d)
det. [(I + B)50 – 50B] is equal to:
(b) ( x + a )( x + b)( x + g )( x + d) (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 50
(c) 2( x - a )( x - b)( x - g )( x - d) 28. Let for i = 1, 2, 3, pi(x) be a polynomial of degree
2 in x, p¢i(x) and p¢¢i(x) be the first and second order
(d) None of these derivatives of pi(x) respectively. Let,
22. X, Y and Z are positive numbers greater than 10 such
that Y and Z have respectively 1 and 0 at their unit's é p ( x ) p ¢ ( x ) p ¢¢ ( x ) ù
ê 1 1 1
ú
X 4 1 A ( x ) = p 2 ( x ) p 2 ( x ) p 2¢¢ ( x ) ú
ê ¢
place and D is the determinant Y 0 1 . If (D + 1) is ê ú
ê p3 ( x ) p3¢ ( x ) p3¢¢ ( x ) ú
Z 1 0 ë û
divisible by 10 then X has at its unit’s place and B(x) = [A(x)]T A(x). Then determinant of B(x):
(a) 1 (b) 0 (a) is a polynomial of degree 6 in x.
(c) 2 (d) None of these (b) is a polynomial of degree 3 in x.
(c) is a polynomial of degree 2 in x.
(d) does not depend on x.
M-46 MATHEMATICS
(a) k = – 1 (b) k = 1
r 2r - 1 3r - 2
(c) k = 0 (d) None of these
n 34. If A is matrix of order 3 such that |A| = 5 and B = adj
29. If D r = n -1 a
2
1 1 A, then the value of |A–1 | ( AB)T is equal to
n(n - 1) (n - 1)2 (n - 1)(3n - 4)
2 2 (where |A| denotes determinant of matrix [Link] denotes
n -1 transpose of matrix A, A– 1 denotes inverse of matrix
then the value of å Dr A. adj A denotes adjoint of matrix A)
r =1
(a) depends only on a 1
(a) 5 (b) 1 (c) 25 (d)
(b) depends only on n 25
(c) depends both on a and n 35. If a1, a2, a3, ..., an are in G.P. and ai > 0 for each i, then the
(d) is independent of both a and n
log a n log an + 2 log an + 4
30. If complex numbers z1 and z2 such that
-1 -1 determinant D = log an + 6 log an + 8 log an +10 is equal to:
é z1 - z2 ù é z1 z2 ù
|z1| = |z2| =1, then ê ú ê- z z ú is equal to log an +12 log an +14 log an +16
ë z2 z1 û ë 2 1û
é z1 z2 ù é 1 0ù æ n2 + n ö
(a) ê
ë z1 z1 û
ú (b) ê 0 1ú
ë û (a) 0 (b) log ç å ai ÷
çè i =1 ÷ø
1 é 1 0ù (c) 1 (d) 2
(c) 2 ê 0 1 ú (d) None of these
ë û 36. Area of triangle whose vertices are (a, a 2) (b, b 2)
é3; when $i = $j 1
(c, c2) is , and area of another triangle whose vertices
31. Let A = [aij]3 × 3 be such that aij = ê $i ¹ $j , 2
ëê 0; are (p, p2) , (q, q2) and (r, r2) is 4, then the value of
ì det (adj(adj A)) ü
then í ý equals: (where {×} denotes (1 + ap)2 (1 + bp)2 (1+ cp)2
î 5 þ
fractional part function) (1 + aq)2 (1 + bq)2 (1+ cq)2 is
(a)
2
(b)
1
(c)
2
(d)
1 (1 + ar )2 (1 + br )2 (1 + cr )2
5 5 3 3
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16
éx 3 2ù
ê ú é1 - 4 ù é -16 -6 ù
32. Matrix A = ê1 y 4 ú , if x y z = 60 and 8x + 4y + 3z 37. The matrix X for which ê úX = ê 7 ; is
ë 3 -2 û ë 2 úû
êë 2 2 z úû
= 20, then A(adj A) is equal to é 1 2ù
é - 2 4ù ê- 5ú
é 64 0 0ù é88 0 0ù (a) ê - 3 1 ú (b) ê 53 1ú
ê ú ë û ê- ú
(a) êê 0 64 0úú (b) ê 0 88 0ú ë 10 5û
êë 0 0 64úû êë 0 0 88úû é6 2ù
é- 16 - 6ù
(c) ê11 2ú (d) ê ú
é 68 0 0 ù é34 0 0 ù êë 2 úû ë 7 2û
ê ú ê ú
(c) ê 0 68 0 ú (d) ê 0 34 0 ú 38. If a, b, c are non-zeros, then the system of equations
êë 0 0 68úû êë 0 0 34 úû (a + a)x + ay + az = 0, ax + (a + b)y + az = 0,
33. Let x > 0, y > 0, z > 0 are respectively the 2nd, 3rd, 5th ax + ay + (a + c)z = 0 has a non-trivial solution if
(a) a –1 = – (a– 1 + b– 1 + c– 1)
xk xk +1 xk + 2
(b) a– 1 = a + b + c
terms of a G.P and D = y k y k + 1 y k + 2 = (r – 1)2 (c) a + a + b + c = 1
z k z k +1 zk + 2 (d) None of these
æ 1ö
çè1– 2 ÷ø (where r is the common ratio), then
r
Determinants M-47
49. Which of the following statements is/are true about (a) x = 3, y = 1 (b) x = 1, y = 3
square matrix A of order n? (c) x = 0, y = 3 (d) x = 0, y = 0
(a) (–A)–1 is equal to –A–1 when n is odd only. 56. Let {D1, D2, D3, ....., Dk}; (not necessary Di ¹ Dj for
(b) If An = 0, then I + A + A2 + ... + An–1 = (I – A)–1. i ¹ j) be the set of third order determinant that can be
(c) If A is skew-symmetric matrix of odd order, then made with the distinct non-zero integer a1, a2, a3, .....,
its inverse does not exist. a9, then
(d) (AT)–1 = (A–1)T holds always. k
(1 + x ) a
(1 + 2 x ) b
1 (a) k = 9! (b) å Di =0
i =1
50. If f ( x ) = 1 (1 + x ) a (1 + 2 x ) b a, b being
(1 + 2 x ) b 1 (1 + x ) a
(c) at least one Di = 0 (d) None of these
57. If ai, i = 1, 2, ..., 9 are perfect odd squares, then
positive integers, then
(a) constant term of f (x) is 0 a1 a2 a3
(b) coefficient of x in f (x) is 0 a4 a5 a6 is always a multiple of
(c) constant term in f (x) is a – b
a7 a8 a9
(d) constant term in f (x) is a + b
51. If a > b > c and the system of equations ax + by + cz = 0, (a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 16 (d) 64
bx + cy + az = 0 and cx + ay + bz = 0 has a non trivial
solution then both the roots of equation at2 + bt + c = 0 are cos 2 x sin 2 x cos 4 x
(a) real (b) of opposite sign 2 2
58. Let D(x) = sin x cos 2 x cos x
(c) positive (d) complex
cos 4 x cos 2 x cos 2 x
ex sin x 1
52. If D = cos x log e (1 + x 2 ) 1 = a + bx + cx 2 then = a0 + a1 sin x + a2sin2 x + ....., then
x x2 1 (a) a0 = – 1 (b) a1 = 0
(c) a1 = 18 (d) a1 = 5
(a) a = 0 (b) a = 1 (c) b = –1 (d) b = –2
53. The value of x for which 59. Consider the system of equations:
x sin q – 2y cos q – az = 0, x + 2y + z = 0, – x + y + z
x 2 2 1- x 2 4 = 0, q Î R
3 x 2+ 2 4- x 8 > 33 is (a) the given system will have infinite solutions for a
3 3 x 4 8 16 - x =2
1 1 (b) the number of integer values of a is 3 for the system
(a) 0 < x < 1 (b) - < x < to have non-trivial solutions
2 2
1 (c) for a = 1 there exists q for which the system will
(c) x < - (d) x > 1 have infinite solutions
7
(d) for a = 3 there exists q for which the system will
1
2i –1 sin iq have unique solution
i(i +1) 60. If a, b, c are sides of D ABC such that
n
54. If Di = x y z , then å Di is
c b cos b + cb a cos A + ba + c g
æ n + 1ö nq i=1
n
sin ç ÷ q sin a c cos b + ab b cos A + ca + ag = 0
è 2 ø 2
2n –1
n +1 q b a cos b+ bb c cos A + aa + bg
sin
2
(where a, b, g Î R+), then DABC is
(a) 0 (b) independent of n (a) isosceles (b) equilateral
(c) independent of q (d) independent of x, y and z (c) can't say (d) right angled
6i -3i 1
61. If the elements of a matrix A are real positive and distinct
55. If 4 such that det(A + AT)T = 0, then
3i -1 = x + iy, then which of the following
(a) det A > 0 (b) det A ³ 0
20 3 i
(c) det (A – AT) > 0 (d) det (AAT) > 0
are incorrect?
Determinants M-49
DIRECTIONS : Each question contains statements given in two columns which have to be matched. Statements
(A, B, C, D) in column I have to be matched with statements (p, q, r, s) in column II.
66. Let A is a non-singular and det (A) = k.
Column-I Column-II
(A) (Adj A)–1 (p) kn – 1 (adj A)
A
(B) Adj (A–1) (q)
k
(C) Adj (k A) (r) k n - 2 A
1
(D) Adj (Adj A) (s) adj ( adj A )
k2
1+ x x x2
x 1+ x x2 = ax 5 + bx 4 + cx 3 + dx 2 + ex + f
67. Let
x2 x 1+ x
Column-I Column-II
(A) The value of f is equal to (p) A is Idempotent
(B) The value of e is equal to (q) 1
(C) The value of a + c is equal to (r) –1
(D) The value of b + d is equal to (s) 3
68. Column-I Column-II
é1 0 –1ù é a11 a12 a13 ù
ê ú 2
(A) If matrix A = ê 3 4 5 ú and its inverse A = êê a21 a22
–1 a23 úú (p) –
5
êë 0 6 7 úû êë a31 a32 a33 úû
é cos x sin x ù é1 0ù
(B) If A = ê – sin x cos x ú and A (Adj. A) = k ê 0 1 ú then the value of k is (q) 1
ë û ë û
é 1 logb a ù
(C) If A = ê then |A| is equal to (r) 0
ëlog a b 1 úû
éa b ù
(D) If A = ê n
ú is nth root of 4I2, then the value of a is (s) 4
ë0 a û
69. Column-I Column-II
x (1 + sin x ) 2 cos x
(A) Coefficient of x in f (x) = 1 log (1 + x) 2 (p) 10
x2 1 + x2 0
1 3cos q 1
(B) Value of sin q 1 3cos q is (q) 0
1 sin q 1
x+a x2 + 1 1
2
(C) If a, b, c are in A.P. and f (x) = x + b 2 x - 1 1 , then f ¢(0) is (r) – 12
2
x + c 3x - 2 1
x 2 x
1 x 6
(D) If = a4 x4 + a3x3 + a2x2 + a1x + a0, then a0 is (s) – 2
x x x +1
70. Column-I Column-II
(A) If w is a cube root of unity, then a root of the equation (p) 0
x +1 w w2
w x + w2 1 = 0 is
2
w 1 x+w
a a+b a+b+c
3a 4a + 3b
5a + 4b + 3c is
6a 9a + 6b 11a + 9b + 6c
1 1 1
(C) The value of determinant 1 w 2 w is equal to (r) i
2
1 w w
Sa 2 Sab Sab
(D) Let a, b, c are real and different such that D = Sab Sa 2 Sab (s) 3 3i
Sab Sab Sa 2
Column-I Column-II
(A) L1, L2, L3 are concurrent, if (p) k = –9
6
(B) One of L1, L2, L3 is parallel to at least one of the other two, if (q) k = -
5
5
(C) L1, L2, L3 from a triangle, if (r) k =
6
(D) L1, L2, L3 do not form a triangle, if (s) k = 5
x2 2x 1 + x2
72. Let f(x) denotes the determinant f (x) = x 2 + 1 x + 1 1 .
x –1 x –1
On expansion f(x) is seen to be a 4th degree polynomial given by f (x) = a0 x4 + a1x3 + a2x2 + a3x + a4. Using
differentiation of determinant or otherwise match the entries in Column I with one or more entries of the elements of
Column II.
Column -I Column -II
2
(A) a0 + a1 is divisible by (p) 2
(B) a22 + a4 is divisible by (q) 3
2
(C) a0 + a2 is divisible by (r) 4
(D) a42 + a32 + a12 is divisible by (s) 5
73. Column-I Column-II
x (1 + sin x )3 cos x
(A) Coefficient of x in f (x) = 1 log(1 + x) 2 (p) 10
2 2
x 1+ x 0
1 3cos q 1
(B) Value of sin q 1 3cos q is (q) 0
1 sin q 1
x + a x2 + 1 1
(C) If a, b, c, are in A.P. and f (x) = x + b 2 x 2 –1 1 , then f '(0) is (r) – 12
2
x + c 3x – 2 1
x 2 x
(D) If 1 x 6 = a4x4 + a3x3 + a2x2 + a1x + a0, then a0 is (s) – 2
x x x +1
Passage 1
Passage Based Questions
Consider a system of linear equations in three variables x, y, z
DIRECTIONS : This section contains groups of
multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each a1 x + b1 y + c1 z = d1 ; a2 x + b2 y + c2 z = d 2 ;
question has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, a3 x + b3 y + c3 z = d3
out of which only one is correct.
M-52 MATHEMATICS
é 2k –1 2 k 2 kù a0 a1 a2
ê ú a1 a2 a0 = 0, then the value of 5 a is _____.
A= ê 2 k 1 – 2k ú &
b
ê ú a2 a0 a1
êë – 2 k 2k –1 úû
M-54 MATHEMATICS
ANSW E R KE YS
T opicwise Multiple Choice Questio ns MCQs
1 (d) 14 (b) 27 (b ) 40 (b) 53 (c) 66 (d) 79 (c) 92 (b ) 10 5 (d ) 11 8 (a )
2 (b) 15 (c) 28 (c) 41 (a) 54 (d) 67 (a) 80 (c) 93 (a) 10 6 (b ) 11 9 (d )
3 (a) 16 (c) 29 (b ) 42 (a) 55 (a) 68 (a) 81 (a) 94 (b ) 10 7 (d ) 12 0 (c )
4 (b) 17 (d) 30 (a) 43 (a) 56 (b) 69 (a) 82 (a) 95 (d ) 10 8 (c) 12 1 (a )
5 (a) 18 (c) 31 (d ) 44 (b) 57 (c) 70 (a) 83 (a) 96 (a) 10 9 (d ) 12 2 (b )
6 (b) 19 (b) 32 (b ) 45 (b) 58 (c) 71 (c) 84 (b) 97 (a) 11 0 (c) 12 3 (b )
7 (b) 20 (a) 33 (a) 46 (b) 59 (c) 72 (a) 85 (a) 98 (c) 11 1 (a) 12 4 (a )
8 (a) 21 (c) 34 (a) 47 (b) 60 (b) 73 (d) 86 (a) 99 (a) 11 2 (c) 12 5 (b )
9 (c) 22 (d) 35 (a) 48 (d) 61 (a) 74 (c) 87 (a) 100 (c) 11 3 (a)
10 (c) 23 (b) 36 (a) 49 (b) 62 (b) 75 (c) 88 (c) 101 (c) 11 4 (d )
11 (a) 24 (d) 37 (c) 50 (a) 63 (a) 76 (c) 89 (a) 102 (c) 11 5 (b )
12 (a) 25 (a) 38 (a) 51 (b) 64 (b) 77 (b) 90 (d) 103 (a) 11 6 (c)
13 (b) 26 (d) 39 (b ) 52 (a) 65 (a) 78 (b) 91 (d) 104 (a) 11 7 (b )
Questio n B ank L evel-1
1 (a) 6 (a) 11 (b ) 16 (a) 21 (a) 26 (c) 31 (a) 36 (c) 41 (b ) 46 (c )
2 (b) 7 (a) 12 (d ) 17 (d) 22 (b) 27 (d) 32 (c) 37 (b ) 42 (a) 47 (b )
3 (a) 8 (d) 13 (d ) 18 (c) 23 (b) 28 (a) 33 (a) 38 (d ) 43 (d ) 48 (b )
4 (d) 9 (a) 14 (c) 19 (a) 24 (b) 29 (c) 34 (c) 39 (a) 44 (a) 49 (a )
5 (d) 10 (d) 15 (d ) 20 (b) 25 (d) 30 (c) 35 (c) 40 (b ) 45 (b ) 50 (c )
Chapter T est-1
1 (d) 4 (b) 7 (a) 10 (d) 13 (a) 16 (d ) 19 (b) 22 (24) 25 (10)
2 (c) 5 (b) 8 (b ) 11 (c) 14 (a) 17 (a) 20 (a) 23 (0)
3 (c) 6 (c) 9 (a) 12 (a) 15 (d) 18 (b) 21 (0) 24 (18)
Questio n B ank L evel-2
1 (a) 6 (d) 11 (a) 16 (d) 21 (d) 26 (d) 31 (c) 36 (d ) 41 (d ) 46 (c )
2 (c) 7 (a) 12 (d ) 17 (d) 22 (d) 27 (d) 32 (c) 37 (a) 42 (c) 47 (a )
3 (a) 8 (d) 13 (a) 18 (b) 23 (c) 28 (c) 33 (b) 38 (c) 43 (d ) 48 (b )
4 (a) 9 (a) 14 (a) 19 (d) 24 (b) 29 (d) 34 (c) 39 (c) 44 (c) 49 (c )
5 (b) 10 (c) 15 (b ) 20 (d) 25 (a) 30 (b) 35 (d) 40 (b ) 45 (a) 50 (a )
Chapter T est-2
1 (a) 4 (b) 7 (d ) 10 (b) 13 (a) 16 (d) 19 (b) 22 (17) 25 (2)
2 (a) 5 (a) 8 (b ) 11 (c) 14 (a) 17 (a) 20 (b) 23 (0)
3 (c) 6 (a) 9 (a) 12 (d) 15 (b) 18 (a) 21 (0) 24 (4)
Past Years JE E M ain Questio ns
1 (d) 4 (a) 7 (b ) 10 (c) 13 (d) 16 (17) 19 (c) 22 (c) 25 (b )
2 (a) 5 (a) 8 (a) 11 (a) 14 (13) 17 (b) 20 (6) 23 (28)
3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (b ) 12 (d) 15 (d) 18 (b) 21 (b) 24 (b )
Pa st Years JE E Adva nced Questio ns
1 (d) 4 (b, c) 7 (a, d ) 1 0 (a, c, d) 13 (a, b , c ) 16 (b , c) 19 (5) 22 (a) 25 (1.50)
2 (c, d) 5 (b , c, d ) 8 (a,b, d ) 1 1 (b,c,d) 14 (a, b , d ) 17 (1) 20 (16) 23 (c)
3 (a, b) 6 (b, d) 9 (a, d ) 1 2 (a, b , d ) 15 (a, c) 18 (4) 21 (b) 24 (1.00)
J EE Advanced L evel Questio ns
1 (b ) 15 (b) 29 (d ) 43 (c) 57 (a, c, d ) 71 (A ) ® (s ); (B) ® (p , q); (C) ® (r); (D) ® (p, q , s )
2 (d) 16 (d) 30 (c) 44 (b, d) 58 (a, b , c ) 72 (A ) ® (p, s ); (B) ® (p , r); (C) ® (p , q ); (D) ® (q)
3 (c) 17 (a) 31 (b ) 45 (b, c) 59 (b, c, d ) 73 (A ) ® (s ); (B) ® (p); (C) ® (s ); (D) ® (s )
4 (b) 18 (c) 32 (c) 46 (a, c) 60 (b, d) 74 (b) 80 (a) 86 (2) 92 (7)
5 (d) 19 (d) 33 (a) 47 (a, b) 61 (a, c, d ) 75 (d) 81 (b) 87 (0) 93 (0)
6 (a) 20 (d) 34 (b ) 48 (a, b) 62 (a, b , c ) 76 (c) 82 (c) 88 (4) 94 (4)
7 (d) 21 (a) 35 (a) 49 (b, c) 63 (a, b, c, d) 77 (a) 83 (3) 89 (2) 95 (0)
8 (d ) 22 (c) 36 (d ) 50 (a, b) 64 (a, c) 78 (b) 84 (4) 90 (2) 96 (8)
9 (b ) 23 (d) 37 (c) 51 (a, c, d) 65 (a, b , c ) 79 (a) 85 (4) 91 (6) 97 (8)
10 (a) 24 (b) 38 (a) 52 (a, c) 66 (A ) ® (q); (B) ® (s ); (C) ® (p); (D) ® (r) 98 (0)
11 (b ) 25 (d) 39 (d ) 53 (c, d) 67 (A ) ® (q); (B) ® (s ); (C) ® (r); (D) ® (q ) 99 (1)
12 (a) 26 (c) 40 (b ) 54 (a, b , c, d ) 68 (A ) ® (p); (B) ® (q ); (C) ® (r); (D) ® (s ) 10 0 (8)
13 (c) 27 (a) 41 (c) 55 (a, b , c) 69 (A ) ® (s ); (B) ® (p); (C) ® (q); (D) ® (s )
14 (a) 28 (a) 42 (c) 56 (a, b) 70 (A ) ® (p ); (B) ® (r); (C) ® (s , q ); (D) ® (p )