JR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (CBSE) DATE: 22.04.

2024
Time: 3.20 Hrs WNT-33 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each incorrect
response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.

PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. A wire KMN moves along the bisector of the angle  with a constant velocity v in a uniform
magnetic field B perpendicular to the plane of the paper and directed inward. Which of the following
is correct? (KM=MN=L)


1) Effective length of the wire is 2 L sin
2

2) E.m.f induced between K and N is 2 BLv sin
2
3) The shape of KMN is immaterial, only the end points K N are important
4) All the above
2. In a step up transformer, the ratio of turns of primary to secondary is 1:10 and primary voltage is
230V. If the load current is 2A, then current in the primary is (assume ideal transformer)
1) 20A 2) 10A 3) 2A 4) 1A
3. The ratio of electric field energy density and magnetic field energy density in an electromagnetic
wave is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 2 : 3
4. Assertion(A): Eddy currents are produced in any metallic conductor when magnetic flux is changes
around it
Reason(R): Electric potential determines the flow of charge
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) Assertion is true but reason is false
4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

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5. Match the column-I column-II

Column-I Column-II
A. Flemings left hand rule 1. Application of
electromagnetic induction
B. Flemings right hand rule 2. Direction of magnetic force
C. Solenoid 3. Similar to bar magnet
D. Electric generator 4. Direction of induced
current

1) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1 2) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 3) A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 4) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
6. The r.m.s value of I  1,sin  t  I 2 cos  t is
I1  I 2 I12  I 22 1 2 I1  I 2
1) 2) 3) I1  I 22 4)
2 2 2 2
7. Statement-I: Step up transformer converts low voltage, high current to high voltage, low current
Statement -II: Transformer works on both ac and dc
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
2) Statement -I is correct and Statement -II is incorrect
3) Statement -I is incorrect and Statement -II is correct
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
8. A capacitor of capacity C is connected in A.C. circuit. If the applied emf is V  V0 sin t , then the
current is
V V0  
1) I  0 sin t 2) I  sin   t  
L C  2
 
3) I  V0C sin t 4) I  V0 C sin  t  
 2
9. A 20 volt a.c. is applied to a circuit consisting of a resistance and a coil with negligible resistance. If
the voltage across the resistance. If the voltage across the resistance is 12 volt, the voltage across the
coil is
1) 16 volt 2) 10 volt 3) 8 volt 4) 6 volt
10. A series L-C-R circuit is given in figure. The current through the circuit is

1) 10 A 2) 20 A 3) 30 A 4) 40 A
11. In series L-C-R resonant circuit, to increase the resonant frequency
1) L will have to be increased
2) C will have to be increased
3) LC will have to be decreased
4) LC will have to be increased

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12. The graph between current and frequency for LCR series circuit is drawn for three different resistor
R1 , R2 & R3 . Which one is correct regarding resistance

1) R1  R2  R3 2) R3  R2  R1 3) R1  R2  R3 4) R1  R2  R3
13. The figure shows variation of R, X L and X C with frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for
what frequency point, the circuit is inductive

1) A 2) B 3) C 4) All points
14. In an A.C. circuit, voltage applied is V = 220 sin 100t. If the impedance is 110 and phase difference
between current and voltage is 600 , the power consumption is equal to
1) 55 W 2) 110 W 3) 220 W 4) 330 W
15. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of frequency f. The
current leads the voltage by 450. The value of C is
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 f  2 fL  R   f  2 fL  R  2 f  2 fL  R   f  2 fL  R 
16. In LC circuit the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the
inductance should be changed from L to
1) 2L 2) L/2 3) L/4 4) 4L
17. A train is moving towards north with a speed of 25m/s. If the vertical component of the earth’s
magnetic field is 0.2  104 T , the emf induced in the axle 1.5m long is
1) 0.25mV 2) 0.45mV 3) 0.75mV 4) 0.50mV

18. A uniform magnetic field exists in a region given by B  3i  4 j  5k . A rod of length 5m along y-
axis moves with a constant speed of 1m/s along x-axis. Then the induced emf in the rod will be
1) 0 2) 25V 3) 20V 4) 15V
19. A coil of self-inductance 4H carries a 10A current. If direction of current is reversed in 2sec, then
induced emf in it
1) -80 2) +80 3) -40 4) +40V
20. The current decays from 5 A to 2 A in 0.01s in a coil. The emf induced in a coil nearby it is 30V. The
mutual inductance between the coils is
1) 1.0 H 2) 0.1 H 3) 0.001 H 4) 10 H

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21. A circular loop of radius r is placed in a region where magnetic field increases with respect to time as
B(t) = at then induced emf in coil :-
1)  r 2 a 2) 3 r 2 a 3) 2 r 2 a 4) 4 r 2 a
22. The transformer ratio of a transformer is 5. If the primary voltage of the transformer is 400 V, 50 Hz,
the secondary voltage will be
1) 2000 V, 250 Hz 2) 80V, 50 Hz 3) 80V, 10 Hz 4) 2000 V, 50 Hz
23. A small square loop of wire side l is placed inside a large square loop of wire of side L( L  l ) . The
loops are coplanar and their centers coincide. The mutual inductance of the system is proportional to
1) l / L 2) l 2 / L 3) L / l 4) L2 / l
24. The peak value of A.C. is 2 2A . It’s apparent value will be
1) 1A 2) 2A 3) 4A 4) zero
25. A current in circuit is given by i=3 + 4 sin  t . Then the effective value of current is:
1) 5 2) 7 3) 17 4) 10
26. An alternating voltage of E  200 2 sin(100t )V is connected to a condenser of 1  F through an
A.C. ammeter. The reading of the ammeter will be
1) 10 mA 2) 40 mA 3) 80 mA 4) 20 mA
1
27. A coil of self-inductance   H is connected in series with a 300  resistance. A voltage of 200V at
 
frequency 200Hz is applied to this combination. The phase difference between the voltage and the
current will be
4 3 1 5
1) tan 1   2) tan 1   3) tan 1   4) tan 1  
3 4 4 4
28. In an LCR series circuit the rms voltages across R, L and C are found to be 10V, 10V and 20V
respectively. The rms voltage across the entire combination is
1) 30V 2) 1V 3) 20V 4) 10 2 V
29. In an L-C-R series circuit,
R  5 , X L  9, X C  7. If applied voltage in the circuit is 50V then impedance of the circuit in
ohm will be
1) 2 2) 3 3) 2 5 4) 3 5
30. In a series resonant R-L-C circuit, if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%, then the
resonant frequency will:
1) Increases by 10% 2) Decreases by 10% 3) Remain unchanged 4) Increases by 2.5%
1
31. A voltage 10V and frequency 103 Hz is applied to  F capacitor in series with a resistor of 500 .

Find the power dissipated
1) 500 / 2W 2) 1/100W 3) 10 2W 4) 1/10W
32. For a L-C-R series circuit List-I with List-II (Terms have their usual meanin)
List-I List-Ii
a. X L  X C d. Current leads voltage
b. X L  X C e. Current lags voltage
c. X L  X C f. Current and voltage are in phase
1) a  e, b  d , c  f 2) a  f , b  e, c  d
3) a  e, b  f , c  d 4) a  f , b  d , c  e

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33. The power factor for the circuit shown below is

1) 3/ 5 2) 1/ 2 3) 4 / 5 4) 3/2
1
34. If power factor is in a series RL circuit R  100 , then L is  f  50 Hz 
2
3 
1)  H 2) H 3) H 4) 2 H
 3
35. A capacitor is connected to an ac source. If ic is the conduction current and id is the displacement
current. Then between the plates of capacitor
1) ic = 0, id = 0 2) ic  0, id = 0 3) ic  0, id  0 4) ic = 0, id  0
SECTION - B
36. In an ac circuit the reactance is equal to the resistance. The power factor of the circuit will be
1 1
1) 1 2) 3) 4) zero
2 2
37. A coil of inductance 0.1H is connected to 50V, 100Hz generator and current is found to be 0.5A. The
potential difference across resistance of the coil is
1) 15V 20 20V 3) 25V 4) 39V
38. A series resonant LCR circuit has a quality factor (Q-factor) 0.4. If R  2k , C  0.1 F , then the
value of inductance is
1) 0.1H 2) 0.064H 3) 2H 4) 5H
39. The ratio of the secondary to the primary turns in a transformer is 3:2 and the output power is P.
neglecting all power losses, the input power must be:
P 2P 3P
1) 2) P 3) 4)
2 3 2
40. A circuit contains two inductors of self-inductance L1 and L2 in series. If M is the mutual inductance
then the effective inductance of the circuit shown will be

1) L1  L2 2) L1  L2  2 M 3) L1  L2  M 4) L1  L2  2 M
41. A transformer has 1500 turns in the primary coil and 1125 turns in the secondary coil. If the voltage
in the primary coil is 200V, then the voltage in the secondary coil is
1) 100V 2) 150V 3) 200V 4) 250V
42. A transformer is used to light 140 watt 24 volt lamp from 240 volt ac mains, the current in the main
cable is 0.7 amp. The efficiency of the transformer is
1) 63.8% 2) 74% 3) 83.3% 40 48%

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43. In a electrical circuit consisting of an inductance ‘L’ and a capacitance ‘C’ at resonance. The time
period of oscillations of charge is
L 2 C
1) T  2 2) T  2 LC 3) T  4) T  2
C LC L
44. An ac source is rated at 220V, 50Hz. The time taken for voltage to change from its peak value to zero
is
1) 50 sec 2) 0.02 sec 3) 5 sec 4) 5  103 sec
45. The value of alternating emf E in the given circuit will be

1) 220V 2) 140V 3) 100V 4) 20V

2
46. The current in ampere in an inductor is given by I=4t +6t where t is in s. The self-induced e.m.f in it
coil t=0
1) 5.55 mH 2) 2.55×10-3 H 3) 3.33 mh 4) 7.5  10-3 H
47. An AC source of angular frequency  is red across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The
current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to  / 3 (but maintaining the same
voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance at the
original frequency  is
3 5 3 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 3 5 3
48. A 60 volt-10 watt bulb is operated at 100 volt-60 Hz ac. The inductance required is
1) 2.56 H 2) 0.32 H 3) 0.64 H 4) 1.28 H
49. Assertion(A): Chock coil is preferred over a resistor to adjust current in an ac circuit.
Reason(R): Power factor for inductance is zero.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
2) If Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion
3) If Assertion is true but reason is false
4) If Assertion is false but reason is true
50. A circuit consisting of an inductance and a resistance joined to a 200 volt supply (A.C). It draws a
current of 10 ampere. If the power used in the circuit is 1500 watt, then the wattless current
component is
10 7
1) 10 7 A 2) A 3) 5 / 4 A 4) 4A
4
CHEMISTRY
SECTION-A
51. Which of the following is copper(I) compound?
2 3 2
1) Cu  H 2O  4  2) Cu  CN 4  3) Cu  NH 3 4  4) All of these
52. How many EDTA (ethylenediaminetetraacetate) are required to make an octahedral complex with a
Ca 2  ion?
1) Six 2) Three 3) One 4) Two
53. Diethylenetriamine is:
1) Chelating ligand 2) Tridentate neutral molecule
3) Tridentatemono anion 4) (1) and (2) both
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54. An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100mL of a 0.01 M solution of dichlorotetraaquachromium (III)
chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitated would be.
1) 0.003 2) 0.01 3) 0.001 4) 0.002
3
55. Statement-1: In Co  en 3  Cl3 , the coordination number of Co ion is 3.
Statement-2: ‘en’ is a bidentate ligand.
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true
2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false
3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
56. The IUPAC name for the coordination compound Ba  BF4 2 is.
1) Bariumtetraflouroborate(III) 2) Bariumtetrafluoroborate(V)
3) Bariumbist(tetraflouroborate)(III) 4) None of the above
57. Which of the following are not postulates of Werner?
(P) In co-ordination compounds, metals show two types of linkage (valencies primary and
secondary).
(Q) The primary valencies are normally ionizable and are satisfied by negative ions
(R) The secondary valencies are non-ionisable. These are satisfied by neutral molecules or negative
ions. The secondary valency is equal to the co-ordination number and is fixed for a metal.
(S) The ions/groups bound by the primary linkages to the metal have characteristic spatial
arrangements corresponding to different coordination numbers
(T) Octahedral, Tetrahedral and Square planar geometrical shapes are more common in co-ordination
compounds of transition metals.
1) (P), (Q), (R) and (S) 2) (S) and (T)
3) Only (S) 4) (P), (Q) and (R)
58. The EAN of platinum in potassiumhexachloridoplatinate(IV) is.
1) 90 2) 86 3) 76 4) 88
59. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
(A)  Fe CN  3 (i) 5.92 BM
  6 
(B)  Fe H O  3 (ii) 0 BM
  2 6 
(C)  Fe CN  4  (iii) 4.90 BM
  6 
(D)  Fe H O  2 (iv) 1.73 BM
  2 6 
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1) A-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), D-(iii) 2) (A)-(ii), B-(iv), C-(iii), D-(i)
3) A-(i), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii) 4) (A)-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
2
60. The complex  Pt  NH 3  4  has…….. structure:
1) Square Planar 2) Tetrahedral 3) Pyramidal 4) Pentagonal
61. Consider the following complex ions:
3 3 3 3
(P) CrCl6  (Q) Cr  H 2O 6  (R) Cr  NH 3 6  (S) Cr  CN 6 
The correct order of  o is
1) P>Q>R>S 2) P<R<Q<S 3) P<Q<R<S 4) P<Q<S<R

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62. Incorrect statement of the following is
4
1) Statement-1:  NiF6  is high spin complex.
2
2)  NiF6  is octahedral complex.
3) F  is a weak field ligand.
4
4)  NiF6  has d 2 sp 3 hybridisation.
63. Statement-1: The  Ni  en 3  Cl2 (en = ethylenediamine) has lower stability than  Ni  NH 3 6  Cl2

Statement-2: In  Ni  en 3  Cl2 the geometry of Ni is trigonal bipyramidal.

1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are true.
2) Statement-1 is false, statement-2 is true.
3) Statement-1 is true, statement-2 is false.
4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are false.
64. A square planar complex is formed by hybridization of which atomic orbitals?
1) s , px , p y , p yz 2) d x 2  y 2 , s, p x , p y 3) s , px , p y , d z 2 4) s , px , p y , d xy
65. Assertion (A): All known mononuclear complexes of chromium with +3 oxidation state, irrespective
of the strength of the ligand must have three unpaired electrons.
Reason (R): In complex Cr  NH 3   4 BrCl ]Cl , the ‘spin only’ magnetic moment is close to 3.87 BM.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
66. The value of ‘spin only’ magnetic moment for one of the following configurations is 2.84 BM. The
correct one is: [Consider octahedral complexes only]
1) d 4 (in strong field ligand) 2) d 4 (in weak field ligand)
3) d 3 (in weak as well as strong field ligand) 4) d 3 (in strong field ligand)
67. Which of the following complex ions has electrons symmetrically filled in both t2 g and eg orbitals?
3 4 3 2
1)  CoF6  2)  Mn  CN 6  3)  FeF6  4) Co  NH 3 6 
68. Statement-I : Decacarbonyldimangnes(0) is made up of two square bipyramidal [Mn(CO)5]
units joined by a Mn–Mn bond.
Statement-II : Zero oxidation state of central metal cannot be stabilised by CO groups.
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
2
69. Crystal field stabilisation energy of Cr  NH 3 6  is
1) Zero 2) 0.4  0 3) 1.6  0  P 4) 0.6  0
70. Which one of the following complexes would exhibit the lowest value of paramagnetic behavior?
3 3 3 3
1) Co  CN 6  2)  Fe  CN 6  3)  Mn  CN 6  4) Cr  CN 6 
71. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1) Ti  NO3 4 is colorless compound 2) Cr  NH 3  6  Cl3 is a coloured compound
3) K3 VF6  is a colorless compound 4) Cu  NH 3 4   BF4  is a colorless compound

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72. Which of the following complexes formed by Cu 2 ions is most stable?
2 2 2 2
1) Cu  NH 3  4  2) Cu  CN 4  3)  CuCl4  4) Cu  H 2 O 4 
73. Statement-I : The correct order of the wavelength of absorption in the visible region is
[Ni(NO2)6]4– < [Ni(NH3)6]+2 < [Ni(H2O)6]+2
Statement-II : The stability of different complexes depends on the strength of the ligand field of the
various ligands
1) Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
3) Both Statement-I and II are incorrect.
4) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
74. Cr  H 2 O 6  Cl3 (atomic number of Cr=24) has a magnetic moment of 3.83 B.M. The correct
distribution of 3d electrons in the chromium present in the complex is.
1) 3d 1xy , 3d 1yz ,3d 1xz 2) 3d 1xy , 3d 1yz ,3d 1z 2 3) 3d 1x2  y 2 ,3d 1z 2 ,3d 1xz 4) 3d 1xy ,3d 1x2  y 2 ,3d 1yz
   
75. Which one is not an organometallic compound?
1) RMgX 2)  C2 H 5  4 Pb 3)  CH 3  Sn 4) C2 H 5ONa
76. Which of the following has carbon-oxygen bond length longer than that of free CO molecule?
1)  Ni  CO 4  2)  Fe  CO 5  3) Cr  CO 6  4) All of these
77. Number of bridged CO ligands in [Co2(CO)8] is
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Zero
78. Select the incorrect statement about metal carbonyl complex compounds.
1) Metal carbon bond in metal carbonyls possess both  and  character
2) Due to synergic bonding metal carbon bond becomes weak
3) Due to synergic bonding carbon oxygen bond strength decreases
4) In metal carbonyls, extent of synergic bonding will increase with increase in negative charge on
central metal ion (for isoelectronic species).
79. Which of the following is used as cancer antitumour agent?
1)  RhCl  PPh3 3  2) Cis  Pt  NH 3  2 Cl2 

3) trans  Pt  NH 3 2 Cl2  4) K  Pt  C2 H 4  Cl3 

80. Extraction of Ag from sulphide ore and removal of unreacted silver from photographic plate involve
complexes
3 
1)  Ag  S2 O3  2  in both 2)  Ag  CN  2  in both
4  3
3)  Ag  NH 3  2  in both 4)  Ag  CN 2  ,  Ag  S2 O3  2 

81. The hybridization and geometry of Wilkinson’s catalyst is

1) sp3 , tetrahedral 2
2) dsp , square planar
3) sp3 d 2 , octahedral 4) d 2 sp 3 , octahedral
82. An aqueous solution of titanium chloride, when subjected to magnetic measurement, measured zero
magnetic moment, Assuming the octahedral complex in aqueous solution, the formula of the
complex is
1) Ti  H 2 O 6 Cl2  2) Ti  H 2O 6  Cl4 3) TiCl3  H 2 O 3  4) TiCl2  H 2 O 4 

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 2
83. The magnetic moment of  Mn 4  is 5.9 BM. The geometry of the complex ion is
(x=monodentate halide ion)
1) Tetrahedral 2) Square planar 3) Both possible 4) Cannot be predicted
84. Colours of gems stones Ruby and Emerald are due to ---respectively
1) Cr3+ and Cr3+ 2) Cu2+ and Cu2+
3) Cr3+ and Mn2+ 4) Cu2+ and Zn2+
3
85. Assertion (A): Hund’s rule violates in Co  CN 6  complex ion.
Reason (R): Degeneracy of d-orbitals is lost under any field ligand.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
SECTION-B
86. Assertion (A): The complex Cr  NH 3 5  SCN   Cl2 is linkage isomeric with
Cr  NH 3 5  NCS   Cl2
Reason (R): SCN  is an ambident ligand in which there are two possible coordination sites.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
87. The number of geometrical isomers and optical isomers of  Pt  NH 3  Br  Cl  Py  are
respectively.
1) 2, 0 2) 3, 2 3) 3, 0 4) 2, 2
88. Match the following given in Column-I with those given in Column-II
Column-I Column-II
A) Coordination number-3 i) Pentagonal bipyramid
B) Coordination number-2 ii) Trigonal bipyramid
C) Coordination number-5 iii) linear
D) Coordination number-7 iv) Trigonal Planar
The correct answer is
1) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i 2) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 4) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv
89. Which of the following statement is correct for the complex K 4  Fe  CN 5 O2  ?
 Fe having t26g eg0 configuration 
1) d 2 sp 3 and diamagnetism 2) sp 3 d 2 and diamagnetism
3) d 2 sp 3 and paramagnetism 4) sp 3 d 2 and paramagnetism
90. In the isoelectronic series of metal carbonyls, the C-O bond strength is expected to increase in the
order
 
1)  Mn  CO  6   Cr  CO 6   V  CO  6 
 
2) V  CO 6   Cr  CO 6    Mn  CO 6 
 
3) V  CO 6    Mn  CO  6   Cr  CO 6 
 
4) Cr  CO 6    Mn  CO 6   V  CO  6 
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 4 2
91. The CFSE for octahedral  CoCl6  complex is 18000 cm 1 . Then,  for tetrahedral  CoCl4  will
be.
1) 18000 cm 1 2) 16000 cm 1 3) 8000 cm 1 4) 2000 cm 1
92. The pair in which both species have same magnetic moment (spin only value) is.
2 2 2 2
1) Cr  H 2O 6  , CoCl4  2) Cr  H 2O  6  ,  Fe  H 2 O 6 
2 2 2 2
3)  Mn  H 2O  6  , Cr  H 2 O 6  4)  CoCl4  ,  Fe  H 2O  6 
93. Of the following complex ions, the one that probably has more stability
3 3
1) Co  NH 3 6  2) Co  H 2O  6 
3 3
3) Co  NH 3  2  H 2O  4  4)  Co  en 3 
2
94. Aqueous solution of Ni 2 contains  Ni  H 2 O 6  and its magnetic moment is 2.83 B.M. When H2O
ligands replaced by NH3 ligands, then its magnetic moment
1) remain same 2) increases from 2.83 B.M
3) decreases from 2.83 B.M 4) cannot be predicted theoretically
95. Match the complex compounds with their properties:
List-I List-II
3
(A)  CoF  (1) Diamagnetic and low spin complex.
6

(B) Cr  C2O4 3 

3 (2) Paramagnetic and outer orbital complex.
3
(C) Co( NH 3 )6  (3) Paramagnetic but inner orbital complex

(D) Fe  CN 6 
3 (4) Paramagnetic and low spin complex.

1) A→2, B→3, C→1, D→4 2) A→2, B→4, C→3, D→1

3) A→1, B→3, C→4, D→2 4) A→4, B→1, C→3, D→2
3
96. Co  CO  x  according to EAN rule value of x is
1) 4 2) 6 3) 5 4) 8
2 2 2
97.  Ni  H 2 O 6  ,  Ni  H 2O  2  en  2  ,  Ni  en 3 
colours of this ions in their aqueous solutions respectively
1) blue, green, violet 2) green, blue, violet
3) violet, blue, green 4) violet, green, blue
2 2
98. Geometry of  Ni  CO 4  ,  Ni  CN  4  and  NiCl4  are respectively
1) Tetrahedral, Square planar and Tetrahedral
2) Square planar, Square planar and Tetrahedral
3) Square planar, Square planar and Square planar
4) Tetrahedral, Tetrahedral and Tetrahedral
99. Which of the following is used in the treatment of lead poisoning?
1) EDTA 2) D-Penicillamine 3) Desferrioxamanine B 4) Cis Platinic Chloride
100. Which of the following is incorrect?
1) Haemoglobin, the red pigment in blood, is a complex of Fe2+ and act as oxygen carrier
2) Chlorophyll, the green pigment in plants, is the complex of Co3+
3) Enzymes are complexes of metal ions with carboxypeptidase A and carbonic anhydrase
4) Nickel is purified by Mond’s process depending on its complex forming ability with carbon
monoxide
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 BOTANY
SECTION-A
101. If Meselson and Stahl's experiment is continued for three generations in bacteria the ratio of N15 /N15
: N15 /N14 : N14 /N14 containing DNA in third generation would be :
1) 0 : 1 : 7 2) 1 : 4 : 0 3) 0 : 2 : 6 4) 0 : 1 : 4
102. Statement-I : Splicing refers to removal of introns and joining of exons.
Statement-II : In capping an unusual nucleotide is added to 3'-end of hn-RNA.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
103. Which defines the position of templates and coding strands in the transcription unit?
1) Promoter 2) Operator 3) Repressor 4) All of these
104. Assertion : Eukaryotic hnRNA requires post transcription processing for formation of functional
mRNA.
Reason : Eukaryotic hnRNA possess extra non-coding segments called introns.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
105. Which of the following statements about genetic code is correct?
1) It is a triplet, universal, ambiguous, and degenerate
2) It is a triplet, nearly universal, non-ambiguous, and degenerate
3) It is a triplet, universal, ambiguous, and nondegenerate
4) It is a triplet, universal, non-ambiguous, and nongenerate
106. Replication of DNA on its lagging template strand take place.How many options are correct related
to this:
A) Formation of Okazaki fragments.
B) Direction of fragment formation 5'→ 3'
C) It is opposite to replication fork.
D) Need Dligase to join.
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) All
107. Taylor demonstrated chromosome replication to be semiconservative in
1) E-coli 2) Pea 3) Mouse liver cell 4) Vicia faba
108. In split genes, the coding sequence is called
1) Exons 2) Introns 3) Heterochromatin 4) All
109. In a eukaryotic cell, RNA splicing, and RNA capping takes place inside
1) Nucleus 2) Ribosomes 3) E.R. 4) Dictyosomes
110. Statement-I : Split-gene arrangements represent probably an ancient feature of the genome.
Statement-II : Process of splicing represent the dominance of RNA-world.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
111. Which of the following function is not performed by RNA?
1) It joins the gaps of DNA 2) It can function as an adapter
3) It acts as a catalytic molecule 4) It mostly functions as a messenger

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112. Select the correct statement.
(i) RNA polymerase I transcribe rRNAs (ii) RNA polymerase II transcribes snRNA
(iii) RNA polymerase III transcribes hnRNA (iv) RNA polymerase II transcribes hnRNA
1) (i) and (iv) are correct 2) (ii) and (iv) are correct
3) (i) and (ii) are correct 4) (i) and (iii) are correct
113. Identify the correct set of statement/s.
(a) Some "transforming principle" transferred from heat killed S-strain to R-strain in Hershey and
Chase experiment.
(b) Proteases and RNase do not affect transformation.
(c) S-strain bacteria have genes for synthesis of mucous coat.
(d) Genetic material should be stable and do not provide the scope for any mutations.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
1) (c) and (d) only 2) (a), (c) and (d) only
3) (b) and (c) only 4) All are incorrect
114. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
1) DNA polymerase 2) RNA polymerase
3) DNA ligase 4) DNA helicase
115. The genetic code is said to be degenerate which means that
(i) Codons are common for higher and lower organisms.
(ii) One amino acid is coded by more than one codon.
(iii) All amino acids have more than one codon.
Out of the above statements, the correct statement is
1) Both (i) and (iii) are correct 2) (ii) and (iii) are correct
3) only (ii) is correct 4) all are correct
116. Which enzyme of the following has “Capability” to catalyze Initiation, Elongation and Termination
in the process of transcription in prokaryotes?
1) DNA dependent DNA polymerase 2) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
3) DNA Ligase 4) DNase
117. Statement-I : Genetic code is nearly universal.
Statement-II : AUG codes of methionine and it also acts as 'stop' codon.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
118. The promoter site and the terminator site for transcription, respectively are located at
1) 3'(Downstream) end and 5'(upstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
2) 5'(Upstream) end and 3'(downstream) end, respectively of the transcription unit
3) The 5'(upstream) end
4) The 3'(downstream) end
119. What is correct for bacterial transcription?
1) mRNA requires processing to become active.
2) Translation begins when mRNA is fully transcribed
3) Transcription and translation take place in the same compartment
4) Rho factor initiates the process
120. Statement –I : A transcription unit in DNA consists of promoter, structural genes and terminator.
Statement – II : The promoter and regulatory sequences are also transcribed into mRNA.
1) 1 only is correct 2) 2 only is correct
3) 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect 4) both 1 and 2 are incorrect
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121. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
a) RNA polymerase associates transiently with Rho factor to initiate transcription.
b) In bacteria, translation begins while transcription is going on
c) Nirenberg developed a method for protein synthesis in a cell.
d) 200-300 Adenylate residues are added at 5’ -end of hnRNA in a template dependent manner.
e) hn-RNA is the precursor of mRNA.
1) (b) 2) (b), (c) and (e) 3) (c) and (d) 4) (b) and (e)
122. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons codes for 20 types of amino acids and it resulted in:
1) Unambiguous nature of code 2) Degeneracy of genetic code
3) Wobbling of codons 4) Universality of codons
123. Assertion : Methionine and Tryptophan aminoacids do not show degeneracy.
Reason : A codon is made up of three nuleotides.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false
124. Which one is not a termination codon?
1) UAA 2) UAG 3) AUG 4) UGA
125. Identify the incorrect set of statement/s.
(a) RNA chemically is less reactive and structurally more stable as compared to DNA.
(b) The presence of uracil at the place of 5-methyl uracil also confer additional stability to RNA.
(c) Both DNA and RNA are able to mutate.
(d) For transmission of genetic information, RNA is better.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (c) and (d) only
3) (a) only 4) (a), (b) and (c) only
126. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
1) 5 S rRNA 2) 18 S rRNA 3) 23 S rRNA 4) 5.8 S rRNA
127. Statement-I : Process of transcription shows complementarity.
Statement-II : Nirenberg's cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the first code to be
deciphered.
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
128. The chemical method developed by _______ was instrumental in synthesizing RNA molecules with
defined combination of bases
1) Marshall Nirenberg
2) George Gamow
3) Har Gobind Khorana
4) F.H.C Crick
129. Which one is False for DNA replication?
1) Ori- is a definite region in DNA where replication starts.
2) Deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) serve as substrates as well as source of energy for
polymerisation.
3) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized in 3’ → 5’ direction.
4) Replication of DNA is responsible for continuity of life on earth

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130. Consider the following statements.
a) rRNA provides the template for synthesis of proteins.
b) tRNA brings amino acids and read the genetic code (codons).
c) RNA polymerase along with sigma factor binds to promoter and initiates transcription.
d) A segment of DNA coding for polypeptide is called intron.
1) (a) and (c) are correct 2) (a) and (b) are correct
3) (a), (b) and (c) are correct 4) (b) and (c) are correct
131. Identify the correct set of statement/s.
(a) Cscl (cesium chloride) density gradient require for distinguish normal DNA from heavy DNA.
(b) N15- is radioactive isotope.
(c) In Meselson and Stall experiment DNA extracted after 2 generations have equal amount of hybrid
and heavy DNA.
(d) DNA in chromosomes also replicate semiconservatively.
Choose the correct answer from the option given below :
1) (a) and (b) only 2) (a) only
3) (a), (b), (c) only 4) (a) and (d) only
132. Identify the correct match between the codons and coding functions:

1) A = 1, B = 4, C = 2, D = 3 2) A = 2, B = 4, C = 1, D = 3
3) A = 4, B = 3, C = 2, D = 1 4) A = 2, B = 3, C = 4, D = 1
133. Which of the following modifications are necessary for most eukaryotic RNA processing?
(i) addition of poly adenylate nucleotides at the 5’- terminal.
(ii) cleavage of long inactive precursor RNA into active form.
(iii) addition of methy GTP cap at 3’- end of hnRNA.
(iv) removal of exons and joining of introns from pre-RNA.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below
1) (i) and (ii) 2) (ii) and (iii) 3) (i) and (iv) 4) (ii) and (iv)
134. Synthesis of an RNA molecule is terminated by:
1) Alpha factor 2) Sigma factor 3) Delta factor 4) Rho factor
135. The DNA polymerases on their own cannot initiate the process of replication. There is a definite
region in E. coli DNA where the replication originates. Such regions are termed as:
1) Promoter 2) Replication fork
3) Origin of replication 4) Transcription unit
SECTION-B
136. Statement –I : RNA polymerase uses nucleotide triphosphates as substrates.
Statement -II : Once the polymerase reaches the terminator region, the RNA Polymerase falls off
but not the mRNA.
1) S-I only is correct 2) S-II only is correct
3) both S-I and S-II are correct 4) both S-I and S-II are incorrect

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137. Choose the correct statement
1) mRNA is usually polycistronic in prokaryotes and monocistronic in eukaryotes
2) mRNA is usually polycistronic in eukaryotes and monocistronic in prokaryotes
3) mRNA is usually polycistronic in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
4) mRNA is usually monocistronic in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes
138. Gene which codes for a polypeptide chain is called:
1) promoter gene 2) structural gene 3) regulator gene 4) operator gene
139. Assertion: Template or antisense strand, having 3’→ 5’ polarity takes part in transcription.
Reason: Non-template or sense strand, having 5’→ 3’ polarity, does not take part in transcription.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
140. hnRNA is
1) Small nuclear RNA 2) Homonuclear RNA
3) Heterogeneous nuclear RNA 4) Useful RNA
141. Methyl guanosine triphosphate is added at 5' end of hnRNA in a process of
1) Tailing 2) Splicing 3) Capping 4) None of the
above
142. Genetic code translates the language of
1) RNA into that of DNA 2) RNA into that of proteins
3) Proteins into that of DNA 4) Amino acids into that of RNA
143. What is the role of RNA polymerase- III in the process of transcription in eukaryotes?
1) Transcribes precursor of mRNA
2) Transcribes only snRNAs
3) Transcribes rRNAs (28S, 18S and 5.8S)
4) Transcribes tRNA, 5s rRNA and snRNA
144. Statement I : The codon ‘AUG’ codes for Phenylalanine.
Statement II : UAG, UGA and UAA codons code for Lysine, Arginine and Histidine.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is false
4) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is true
145. Select the incorrect statement.
(i) Six codons in genetic code do not code for any amino acid.
(ii) Codon reading of mRNA is contiguous.
(iii) Three codons function as stop codons.
(iv) Initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
1) (i) alone is incorrect 2) (i), (ii) and (iv) are incorrect
2) (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect 4) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect
146. A physicist, George Gamow, argued that genetic code is a combination of __________ nucleotides
1) 3 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1
147. Whose cell-free system for protein synthesis helped in deciphering genetic code ?
1) George Gamow’s 2) Marshall Nirenberg’s
3) Har Gobind Khorana’s 4) J.D. Watson’s
148. Some amino acids are coded by more than one codon. Hence the genetic code exibits:
1) Specificity 2) Selectivity 3) Degeneracy 4) Regenerancy
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149. Removal of RNA polymerase-III from nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of
1) tRNA 2) hnRNA 3) mRNA 4) All
150. Read the following statements and choose the right option.
a) In eukaryotes have at least three RNA polymerases in their nucleus.
b) hn-RNA has both exons and introns.
c) hn-RNA is formed in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes.
d) Any mistake in DNA replication may cause mutation.
1) All are correct 2) All are incorrect
3) Except (c) all are correct 4) Only (d) is correct
ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A
151. How many recombinant therapeutics are presently marketed in India?
1) 30 2) 14 3) 18 4) 12
152. Assertion (A): Recombinant DNA technology process has been less effective in the effective
therapeutic drug production.
Reason (R): Recombinant therapeutics induce unwanted immunological responses.
1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason explains assertion
2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason cannot explains assertion
3) Assertion is correct but reason is wrong
4) Both assertion and reason are false
153. These products can not induce unwanted immunological responses as is common in case of similar
products isolated from other sources
1) Recombinant DNA technology 2) Recombinant RNA technology
3) Tissue culture 4) Grafting
154. Which of the following side effects of Anabolic steroids common in both male and female users.
1) Promotes aggressiveness, mood swings and depression
2) Excessive hair growth on the face and body and prostate enlargement
3) Breast enlargement
4) Premature baldness
155. Which of these can prevent and control drug / Alcohol abuse among adolescents
A) Avoid undue peer pressure and look for danger signs
B) Education and counseling
C) Seeking help from family, friends and others
D) Seeking help from professional and medical help
1) A, B and C only 2) B, C and D only 3) C, D and A only 4) A, B, C and D
156. Match the following columns and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
A) Anxiety, nausea and sweating (P) abuse of anabolic steroids by adolescent
B) Curiosity, excitement and experimentation (Q) chronic usage of drugs and alcohol
C) Sever facial and body acne and stunted growth (R) withdrawal syndrome symptoms
D) Liver cirrhosis (S) adolescence characteristics
1) A – R, B – S, C – P, D – Q 2) A – S, B – P, C – Q, D – R
3) A – P, B – R, C – Q, D – S 4) A – R, B – Q, C – S, D - P
157. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t Adolescence
1) Adolescence bridges childhood and adulthood
2) Adolescence is accompanied by several biological and behavioral changes
3) Bridge between adulthood and old age.
4) Last for a period between 12th – 18th year of age.
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158. The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among adolescents include
1) decline in academic performance
2) loss of interest in personal hygiene and isolation, rebellious behavior
3) improved school performance
4) Both 1 and 2
159. Which is not a correct statement?
1) Repeated use of drugs decreases tolerance level of receptors.
2) Those who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire serious infections like AIDS.
3) Chronic use of drugs and alcohol damage nervous system and liver.
4) Adolescence period of human is between 12th -18th years of age.
160. The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of
1) Anxiety, shakiness, nausea, sweating 2) Reckless behavior, vandalism, violence
3) Death 4) Fever
161. A female sportsperson coach has prescribed anabolic steroids for a long time to increase her athletic
performance. In view of this, which of the following side – effects are most likely seen in her body
1) Masculinisation, abnormal menstrual cycle, enlargement of prostate gland
2) Masculinisation, abnormal menstrual cycles, enlargement of clitoris
3) Excessive hair growth on face, breast enlargement, low pitch voice
4) Deepening of voice, decreased aggressiveness, no menstrual cycle.
162. Heroin is obtained from
1) Indian Hemp plant 2) South American plant Erythroxylem
3) Poppy plant 4) South African plant.
163. A psychological attachment to certain effects associated with drugs and alcohol abuse is called.
1) Addiction 2) Dependence 3) Adolescence 4) Both 1 and 2
164. Every time when the dosage of a drug has to be increased to achieve the same ‘kick’ that initially
occurred in response to a smaller dose, the condition is known as.......
1) tolerance 2) addiction 3) rebound effect 4) withdrawal symptoms
165. Statement A: The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form
of reckless behavior, vandalism and violence.
Statement B: Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart
failure or cerebral hemorrhage.
1) Only statement A is correct 2) Only statement B is correct
3) Both statements are correct 4) Both statements are incorrect
166. Assertion (A): People who take drugs intravenously are more likely to get infections like AIDS,
Hepatitis B.
Reason (R): AIDS and hepatitis B spread by sharing infected needles and syringes.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3) (A) is true but (R) is false
4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
167. Statement – (A): Adolescence is a very vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development
of an individual.
Statement – (B): It is accompanied by several biological and behavioural changes.
1) Both the statement – A and B are correct.
2) Both the statements A and B are incorrect.
3) Statement – A is only correct
4) Statement – B is only correct

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168. The tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant condition if the regular dose of
drug or alcohol is abruptly discontinued is called
1) TDA abuse 2) Dependence 3) Addiction 4) Tolerance
169. Assertion (A): Repeated use of drugs leads to greater intake and addiction.
Reason (R): With repeated use, tolerance level of the receptors present in the body increases and the
receptors respond to higher doses only.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
170. It is a period and process during which a child become mature in terms of his/her attitudes and
beliefs for effective participation in society
1) Childhood 2) Adulthood 3) Adolescence 4) All of these
171. This is accompanied by several biological and behavioral changes.
1) Childhood 2) Infants 3) Adolescence 4) Adulthood
172. This is the most vulnerable phase of mental and psychological development of an individual
1) Fetal stage 2) Infant stage 3) Adolescence 4) Adulthood stage
173. Sleeping pill a,omg the following:
1) Barbiturates 2) Amphetamines 3) LSD 4) Crack
174. The first use of drugs or alcohol may be out of
1) Curiosity 2) Depression
3) Academic achivement 4) Addiction
175. Stress, from pressure to excel in examinations have played a significant role in persuading
youngsters to try for
1) Alcohol 2) Drugs 3) Experimentation 4) Both 1 & 2
176. Unstable or unsupportive family structures and peer pressure can cause to addict alcohol and drugs in
1) Toddlers 2) Infants 3) Adolescents 4) Aged people
177. This leads the patients to ignore all social norms in order to get sufficient funds to satiate his needs
1) Dependence 2) Addiction 3) Adolescence 4) Anxiety
178. The most uncommon warming signs of drugs and alcohol abuse among youth are
1) Depression, fatigue, aggressiveness
2) Rebellious behaviour, deteriorating relationships with family and friends
3) Loss of interest in hobbies, fluctuating weight, appetite
4) Interest in personal hygiene, calmness, academic excellency
179. Match the following and chose the correct option
List – I List – II
A. Marijuana I. Depressant
B. Cocaine II. Sedative & pain killer
C. Morphine III. Effect cardio vascular system
D. Heroin IV. Dopamine inhibitor
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD
1) III II I IV 2) IV I II III 3) III IV II I 4) III II IV I
180. The word ‘NACO’ stands for
1) National AIDS Control Organization
2) Non-Governmental AIDS Control Organization
3) National Agro Chemical Organization
4) National Acquired disease Control Organization

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181. The enzyme which plays a vital role in the conversion of single stranded RNA present in the HIV
into viral DNA is
1) Integrase 2) Protease
3) Reverse transcriptase 4) RNA polymerase
182. Statement – I: AIDS is not a congenital disease
Statement – II: HIV is a member of a group of viruses called retroviruses
1) Both statement – I and statement – II are correct
2) Both statement – I and statement – II are incorrect
3) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect
4) Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct
183. Read the following
A. Large bean shaped organ.
B. Mainly contains lymphocytes and phagocytes.
C. Acts as a filter of blood.
D. Traps blood – borne micro – organisms.
E. A large reservoir of erythrocytes.
How many of these are related to spleen.
1) All 2) All except A 3) All except B & C 4) All except C & E
184. Statement-I : Bone marrow is considered as a main primary lymphoid organ
Statement-II : Bean shaped spleen filters blood.
1) S-I is true but S-II is false 2) S-I is false and S-II is true
3) Both statements are false 4) Both statements are true
185. Characteristics absent in withdrawal syndrome symptoms are
1) Anxiety 2) Shakiness 3) Nausea and sweating 4) not life threating
SECTION B
186. How many recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human worldwide?
1) 12 2) 30 3) 42 4) 27
187. Due to abuse of anabolic steroids deepening of voice observed in
1) Male 2) children
3) Only adolescent males 4) Female
188. The side effects of the use of anabolic steroids in females include
1) masculinisation 2) increased aggressiveness
3) depression 4) all of these
189. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol results in
1) Excess mucous and blood clots 2) Internal bleeding and muscular pain
3) Liver cirrhosis and nervous system damage 4) leukaemia and lymphomas
190. Persons who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire serious infections like
1) AIDS 2) Hepatitis-B 3) Cancer 4) both 1 and 2
191. In the adolescent male or female premature closure of growth centers of the long bones may result in
1) Increased aggressiveness 2) Kidney and liver dysfunction
3) Mood swings 4) Stunted growth
192. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to
1) Respiratory failure 2) Heart failure
3) Cerebral hemorrhage 4) All the above
193. Excess growth of hair on the body and face, enlargement of clitoris observed in females due to abuse
of
1) Catabolic steroids 2) Anabolic steroids
3) Diuretics 4) Narcotic analgesics
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194. Sports persons misuse narcotic analgesics, diuretics, anabolic steroids and certain hormones for
1) Bulk muscle 2) Muscle strength
3) Promote aggressiveness 4) All the above
195. In the adolescent drug abusers stunted growth may be due to
1) Malnutrition
2) Hyper secretion of hormones
3) Hypo secretion of growth hormone
4) Premature closure of the growth centers of long bones
196. Mass production of safe and more effective therapeutic drugs can be produced by
1) Recombinant DNA technology 2) Recombinant RNA technology
3) In - vitro Tissue culture 4) Grafting
197. Assertion (A): Withdrawal syndrome is characterized by anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating.
Reason (R): Withdrawal syndrome is not relieved even when use of drugs is resumed again.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.
198. A child’s natural curiosity motivation him to
1) Excel in academics 2) Experiment 3) Excitement 4) Sedation
199. Arrange in sequence, the steps of life cycle of HIV
I) The progeny viruses released in the blood attack other helper T-lymphocytes
II) After getting into the body of a person, the HIV enters macrophages where RNA genome of virus
replicates to form viral DNA with the help of reverse transcriptase
III) The viral DNA gets incorporated into host cell’s (macrophages) DNA and directs the infected
cells to produce virus particles
IV) Progressive decrease in the number of helper T- lymphocytes in the body of infected person
1) II → I → III → IV 2) II → III → I → IV
3) II → I → III → IV 4) II → IV → III → I
200. Assertion (A): Cocaine is obtained from coca plant.
Reason (R): It has a potent stimulating action on central nervous system.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
4) Both assertion and reason are false.

* * All the Best * *

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