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PTS 2023 General Studies Test 20

The document is a test booklet for the PTS 2023 Preparatory Test 20, containing instructions for candidates regarding the examination process, including marking responses and penalties for wrong answers. It includes a series of general studies questions related to various topics such as population distribution, migration, energy sources, and mineral resources in India. Candidates are advised to check the booklet for completeness and to follow specific guidelines during the test.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

57 views37 pages

PTS 2023 General Studies Test 20

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rajarsee1999

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C. : FIAS-PTS23-PT20 Test Booklet Series
Serial No.
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
Paper – 1 A
Maximum Marks: 100 Time Allowed: 1 Hour

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU
SHOULD CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY
UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT
REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in
the Roll Number and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D carefully without any
omission or discrepancy at the appropriate places in the OMR Answer
Sheet. Any omission/discrepancy will render the Answer Sheet liable for
rejection.
3. You have to enter your Roll Number on the test
booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 50 items (questions). Each item is printed in English
and Hindi. Each item comprises four responses (answers). You will select the
response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that
there is more than one correct response, mark the response which you consider
the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet
provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items
in the Test Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as
per instructions sent to you with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and
the examination has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the
Answer Sheet. You are permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A
CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each
question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-
third of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong
answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there
will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there
will be no penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.1) Consider the following statements with 3. Pressure on the existing physical
reference to the factors that determine the infrastructure.
distribution pattern of population in India: Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Climatic variations below:
2. Presence of deserts and mountains a) 1 only
3. Availability of Mineral resources b) 1 and 2 only
4. Prospects of Industrial growth c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
a) 1 and 4 only Q.5) With reference to the Tank irrigation,
b) 3 and 4 only consider the following statements:
c) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Tank irrigation is found more popularly in
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 peninsular regions of the country.
2. It accounts for less than 5% of the total
Q.2) Which of the following statements irrigated area in the country.
regarding Reverse Migration in India is/ are 3. It has much less expenditure than the canal
correct? irrigation system.
1. There has been a continuous decrease in the Which of the statements given above is/are
worker population ratio in agriculture correct?
during the last five years. a) 1 and 2 only
2. Reverse migration may cause a collapse of b) 1 and 3 only
supply chains by making industrial labour c) 1 only
scarce. d) 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct option using the code given
below: Q.6) With reference to Coal Bed Methane (CBM)
a) 1 only in India, consider the following statements:
b) 2 only 1. Exploitation of CBM negatively impacts the
c) Both 1 and 2 wildlife and biodiversity of the region.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 2. During extraction of CBM, a large amount of
salinized water is released into freshwater
Q.3) With reference to nuclear power in India, ecosystems.
consider the following statements: 3. During the process of extraction of CBM,
1. Kudankulam Power Plant is the nuclear methane is emitted causing global warming
plant with highest-capacity in India. in the atmosphere.
2. Share of nuclear-powered electricity in Which of the statements given above is/are
India has remained stagnant in the last two correct?
decades. a) 1 only
3. The share of nuclear-powered electricity b) 2 and 3 only
produced in India is largest among advanced c) 2 only
economies. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Which among the following are

consequences of migration for the source
region?
1. Increase in remittances.
2. Imbalance in sex ratio.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.7) Which of the following statements is 3. It is termed as ‘clean energy’ as the

correct about Manganese in India? greenhouse gases emissions in its
1. It is found in Dharwar system of rocks. production are zero.
2. Jharkhand is the largest producer of Which of the statements given above is/are
manganese. correct?
3. The most important manganese ore is a) 1 only
Pyrolusite. b) 1 and 3 only
4. It is found as a free element in nature. c) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given d) 2 and 3 only
below:
a) 1 and 4 only Q.11) Consider the following statements
b) 2 and 3 only regarding Census 2021 of India:
c) 1 and 3 only 1. It is to be the first digital Census using
d) 1, 2 and 4 only Mobile Applications for collection of data.
2. It will collect information about the mother
Q.8) With reference to solar energy in India, tongue and two other languages known.
consider the following statements: 3. It will be the first census to collect caste
1. Solar energy contributes for less than 20% wise data for the total population of India.
share in the total Renewable Energy Which of the statements given above is/are
produced in India. correct?
2. India’s solar installed capacity is currently a) 1 only
less than 60 GW. b) 1 and 2 only
3. India has on an average of 300 sunny days in c) 1 and 3 only
a year. d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.12) Arrange the following sectors according
a) 1 only to the increasing water utilization:
b) 2 and 3 only 1. Industry
c) 2 only 2. Irrigation
d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Domestic/Household
Select the correct answer using the code given
Q.9) With reference to Literacy in India, which below:
of the following statement is correct? a) 1-2-3
a) All the children in the age group of 0-6 years b) 2-3-1
are treated as illiterate in India. c) 2-1-3
b) One must have either formal education or d) 1-3-2
acquire any minimum qualification to be
termed as literate in India. Q.13) Consider the following statements with
c) Census 2021 has changed the definition of reference to distribution of mineral resources
literacy, to include knowledge of basic in India:
1. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur
arithmetic.
in the Himalayan region.
d) Between 2001 Census and 2011 Census, the 2. Most of the coal reserves of India occur in
increase in male literacy is more than the the valleys of Narmada, Indus and Kaveri.
female literacy. 3. Petroleum reserves are located in the
sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and
Q.10) Consider the following statements Mumbai High.
Which of the above statements is/are correct
regarding ‘Bio-Energy’:
in the above context?
1. It is produced from natural sources capable a) 1 and 2 only
of replacing fossil energy. b) 2 and 3 only
2. It can replace conventional fuels in c) 3 only
electricity production due to its low-cost d) 1, 2 and 3
technological requirements.

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Q.14) Which among the following are principal Select the correct answer using the code given
reasons behind the decline in share of railways below:
in total freight transport in India? a) 1 only
1. Absence of last mile delivery b) 2 and 3 only
2. Non-competitive tariff structure c) 1 and 2 only
3. Low capability to generate operational d) 1 and 3 only
surplus
4. No foreign direct investment (FDI) Q.18) It is a key element for new technologies
permitted in railway infrastructure sector and finds its use in ceramics, glass,
Select the correct answer using the code given telecommunication and aerospace industries.
below: Under standard conditions, it is the lightest
a) 1 and 2 only metal. Currently, India is heavily dependent on
b) 1, 2 and 3 only import of these chemical element and aims to
c) 3 and 4 only reduce its dependence on import. Recently
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 there has been discovery of 1600 Tonnes of its
deposit's in Mandya district of Karnataka.
Q.15) Which of the following factors will have a Which mineral has been described in the above
definite impact on the automobile industry? paragraph?
1. Technology a) Lithium
2. Demography b) Uranium
3. Level of competition c) Thorium
4. Total cost of ownership d) Niobium
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below: Q.19) Consider the following statements:
a) 1 and 3 only 1. China has largest reserves of rare earth
b) 2, 3 and 4 only elements in the world.
c) 2 and 4 only 2. United states of America is the largest
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 exporter of rare earth elements.
3. India has world's third largest reserves of
Q.16) Consider the following statements: rare earth elements.
Assertion (A): Computer Chips manufacturing 4. In India, exploration of rare earth elements
can be located anywhere in the world. is done by bureau of mines and department
Reasoning (R): It is a type of footloose industry. of atomic energy.
For the Assertions (A) and Reasons (R), which is Which of the statements given above is/are
correct alternative from the following? correct?
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct a) 1 only
explanation of A b) 2 and 4 only
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct c) 1, 3 and 4 only
explanation of A d) 1 and 4 only
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false but R is true. Q.20) Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
Q.17) Which of the following is the most Minerals Region it is found in
appropriate reason for India losing out to 1. Bauxite Eastern Ghats
countries like Bangladesh and Vietnam in 2. Mica Andhra Pradesh
textiles sector? 3. Copper Singhbhum district of
1. High tariffs faced by Indian textile exporters Jharkhand
in foreign markets. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. No subsidy is provided to the Indian textile below
a) 1 and 3 only
industries to increase employment.
b) 2 only
3. Indian domestic policy favors clothing based c) 2 and 3 only
on man-made fibres. d) 1, 2 and 3

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Q.21) Which of the following are objectives of Select the correct answer using the code given
watershed management in India? below:
1. To effectively conserve soil. a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. To control river water pollution. b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
3. To promote agro-forestry on wastelands. c) 1 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code given d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
below:
a) 1 only Q.25) Which of the following statements is/are
b) 1 and 2 only correct regarding the Petrochemical
c) 2 and 3 only Industries?
d) 1, 2 and 3 1. It is a highly capital-intensive industry.
2. The Indian Petrochemical Corporation
Q.22) Consider the following statements with Limited is the largest petrochemicals
reference to Fast-moving consumer goods producer in the country.
(FMCG) sector in India: 3. Polymers are an example of the
1. Food and beverages, healthcare and petrochemical industries.
household and personal care are the major Select the correct answer using the code given
segments of FMCG in India. below.
2. The urban segment is the largest a) 1 and 2 only
contributor to the overall revenue b) 1 and 3 only
generated by the FMCG sector in India. c) 3 only
3. 100% FDI is allowed in multi-brand retail for d) 1, 2 and 3
FMCG sector.
Which of the above statements is/are correct Q.26) Consider the following statements:
in the above context? 1. Gondwana coal is moderate in ash content
a) 1 and 2 only and low in Sulphur.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Tertiary coal fields are mainly located in
c) 1, 2 and 3 North-eastern India.
d) 1 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Q.23) Which of the following pairs are matched a) 1 only
correctly? b) 2 only
Industries in India Primary c) Both 1 and 2
Location d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Aircraft Manufacturing Karnataka
2. Ship Recycling Industry Gujarat Q.27) Which of the following correctly
describes the 'Non associated gas or Dry gas'?
3. Sugar Industry Tamil Nadu
a) It is a natural gas produced by oil wells.
Select the correct answer using the code given
b) It is natural gas that is not dissolved in crude
below:
oil.
a) 1 and 2 only
c) It is a gas that is wasted or unused.
b) 1 only
d) Both options a and b are correct.
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) In which of the following locations in

India are hydrocarbon deposits located?
1. Krishna Godavari basin.
2. Mahanadi basin.
3. Andaman Islands.
4. Coast of Saurashtra.
5. Kerala-Konkan region.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.28) Consider the following statements : c) 1 and 3 only

1. Cobalt, tin, tungsten and vanadium are d) 1 and 4 only
considered as strategic minerals.
2. Refractory minerals are those minerals that Q.32) With reference to the Census 2011,
have high melting points. consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above 1. Since Independence, India’s rate of
is/are correct? urbanization has been higher compared to
a) 1 only all of the developed nations.
b) 2 only 2. More than 50% of India’s total urban
c) Both 1 and 2 population lives in metropolitan cities.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Mizoram is the most urbanized among the
North-Eastern States of India.
Q.29) With reference to wind energy in India, Which of the statements given above is/are
consider the following statements: correct?
1. Wind is an intermittent and site-specific a) 1 only
resource of energy. b) 2 and 3 only
2. Tamil Nadu has the highest wind energy c) 1 and 3 only
potential in country. d) 3 only
3. Wind plants can negatively impact local
wildlife. Q.33) Consider the following statements with
Which of the statements given above is/are reference to the slum areas:
correct? 1. Slums refer to informal settlements in urban
a) 1 only areas that are densely populated.
b) 2 and 3 only 2. Uncontrolled rural-urban migration,
c) 1 and 3 only informal economy and poverty are the
d) 1, 2 and 3 factors associated with the slum expansion.
3. Slums areas are well known for their high
Q.30) With reference to Information vulnerability to natural disasters like floods.
Technology (IT) Sector in India, consider the Which of the statements given above is/are
following statements: correct?
1. The IT sector in India contributed more a) 1 and 2 only
than 5% to India's GDP in 2021-22. b) 2 and 3 only
2. The Software Technology Park Scheme c) 1 and 3 only
promotes the export of software products d) 1, 2 and 3
from India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Q.34) Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to Logistics sector in India:
a) 1 only 1. The logistics cost in India is considerably
b) 2 only lower than that of developed economies.
c) Both 1 and 2 2. Road freight accounts for more than half of
d) Neither 1 nor 2 all the freight transported in India.
3. Railways accounts for less than 20 percent
Q.31) Which of the following is/are the major of all the freight transported in India.
Industrial Regions of India? Which of the above statements is/are correct
1. Chhota Nagpur plateau region in the above context?
2. Hyderabad-Warangal-Nagpur region a) 1 and 2 only
3. Madurai – Coimbatore – Bangalore region b) 2 only
4. Kolkata- Chennai – Tuticorin region c) 1 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given d) 2 and 3 only
below.
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.35) With reference to birth and death rates in 2. Economic Globalization reflects the idea
India, consider the following statements: that no economy in the world is isolated
1. India’s birth rate has declined drastically today.
over the last four decades. 3. A company hiring regular services from
2. The decline in death rate in rural area has other countries under globalization is called
been higher than urban areas over the last outsourcing.
decade. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the above statements is/are correct? correct?
a) 1 Only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 Only b) 2 and 3 only
c) Both 1 and 2 c) 1 and 3 only
d) Neither 1 nor 2 d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.36) Which of the following is/are the criteria Q.39) With reference to the Gurugram-Delhi-
defined as per the census to declare an area as Meerut industrial region, consider the
a town? following statements:
1. Population should be greater than 100000. 1. Industries located in this region are light
2. Population density should be greater than and market-oriented.
400 persons per sq. Km 2. Agra-Mathura industrial area of this region
3. At least 50% of the working population specializes in glass goods.
should be employed in non-agricultural 3. Proximity of coal and iron ore facilitated the
sectors location of heavy industries in this region.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
below: correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only b) 1 only
c) 3 only c) 3 only
d) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 3 only

Q.37) “It is a continuous urban spread Q.40) Consider the following pairs regarding
constituting a town and its adjoining the primary factors determining the location of
outgrowths or two or more physically Industries:
contiguous towns. It consists of at least a Factors for the location of Industries -
statutory town (all places with a municipality, Associated Industries
corporation, cantonment board or notified 1. Availability of Raw Materials - Watches and
town area committee, etc.) and its total Electronics industries
population should not be less than 20,000 as 2. Supply of labour - Consumer Goods
per the Census of 2011.” industries
The above paragraph refers to which of the 3. Access to Sources of Energy - Aluminium
following? industries
a) Urban agglomeration Which of the following pairs is/are correctly
b) Standard urban area matched?
c) administrative towns and cities a) 1 only
d) Metropolitan Cities b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
Q.38) Consider the following statements with d) 1, 2 and 3
reference to globalization:
1. Globalization is an outcome of the set of
various policies that are aimed at
transforming the world towards greater
interdependence and integration.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.41) Consider the following pairs: 4. More than 90 per cent of the world jute is
Drought Description grown in India and Bangladesh.
1. Meteorological Less than average Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
drought precipitation for a correct?
prolonged time. a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Agricultural Low water available b) 1, 2 and 3 only
droughts for crop production c) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. Hydrological Water in reservoirs fall d) 1, 2 and 4 only
drought below a locally
significant threshold. Q.45) Consider the following statements with
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? reference to the ground water utilization in
a) 1 only India:
b) 2 and 3 only 1. More than 90 percent of groundwater in
c) 2 only India is used for irrigation.
d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The ground water utilization is lowest in
Tamil Nadu.
Q.42) Consider the following reasons for 3. The new guidelines by Jal shakti ministry
increasingly shifting of sugar mills towards prohibits new industry and mining projects
southern India: in over-exploited zones.
1. Tropical climate of southern India is suitable Which of the statements given above is/ are
for higher sucrose content. incorrect?
2. Hotter climate provides for long crushing a) 1 and 3 only
season. b) 2 only
3. Large number of cooperatives in south c) 2 and 3 only
India. d) none of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.46) With reference to the United Nations’
a) 1 and 2 only Human Development Index, which of the
b) 2 and 3 only following dimension index(s) contribute
c) 1 and 3 only towards making Human Development Index
d) 1, 2 and 3 (HDI)?
1. Life expectancy
Q.43) Which of the following is/are the 2. Education
characteristic (s) of the ‘Footloose industries? 3. Intensity of poverty
1. They can only be set up near large markets. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. They are always highly polluting industries. below:
3. Iron ore industry is a Footloose industry. a) 1 and 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given b) 2 only
below: c) 2 and 3 only
a) 1 and 2 only d) 1, 2 and 3
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 2 only
d) None

Q.44) With reference to the ‘jute’, consider the

following statements:
1. India is the largest exporter of jute.
2. Jute does not generate any toxic gases when
burnt.
3. It grows well in tropical lowland regions
with humidity ranging from 60% to 90%.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 |

Q.47) Which of the following are the challenges 2. The richest monazite deposits occur in
to irrigation in India? Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala.
1. Poor irrigation efficiency. 3. Most of the uranium and thorium deposits
2. Depletion of water table. established in India falls under the category
3. Uneven rainfall distribution. of high grade.
4. There is a huge and increasing gap between Which of the statements given above is/are
created and utilized irrigation potential. correct?
5. There are frequent droughts and ground a) 1 and 2 only
water overuse. b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code given c) 2 and 3 only
below: d) 1 and 3 only
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
c) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.48) With reference to Micro-irrigation,

consider the following statements:
1. The more crops per drop programme
provide financial assistance for farmers
adopting the micro-irrigation systems.
2. The share of irrigated land under micro-
irrigation in the country is approximately 20
per cent of the total irrigated land.
3. Bihar and West Bengal are among the States
that have the highest percent of micro
irrigated land
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

Q.49) Consider the following statements with

reference to human population:
1. Agricultural density is the ratio between the
agricultural population and the total
cultivated area.
2. Physiological Density is the ratio between
total population & the total area.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q.50) Consider the following statements:

1. The deposits of Uranium in India are
primarily associated with Gondwana type of
rocks.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Q.1)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
With respect to the socio-economic and historical factors, the evolution of settled agriculture and further
development in agriculture; pattern of human settlements; development of transport network,
industrialization and urbanization have played important role in determining the pattern of population
distribution in India.
Due to climate, terrain and availability of water, the northern Indian plains, deltas and coastal plains have
higher proportion of population in comparison to south and southern hinterland, hilly and desert areas.
Option 1 and 2 are correct. The twin elements of rainfall and temperature play an important role in
determining the population of an area. Extremes of climate aren’t favorable, while a moderate climate
favors population concentration. For example, Leh and Ladakh, due to extreme low temperatures and arid
climate, are not densely populated. Also, they are in high mountains with infertile soil. Similarly, Thar
deserts in Rajasthan is sparsely populated as it falls in rain shadow area of Aravalli mountains making it an
arid region. Hence absence/ presence of mountains and of deserts determines the population distribution.
Option 3 is correct. The higher population densities in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, and adjoining
regions of Odisha are largely due to availability of minerals and many supporting/ dependent industries
presence there.
Option 4 is correct. Industrial growth offers massive employment opportunities and acts as a great
magnet to attract people, resulting in higher densities. Major causes of high density in West Bengal,
Jharkhand, Maharashtra and Gujarat are the phenomenal growth of Industries in these states.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
Geography_UG%20II%20Sem(HC)_Factors%20affecting%20Distribution%20of%[Link]

Q.2)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Reverse Migration refers to migration from urban areas to rural areas since the main direction of migration
is generally from rural areas to urban areas.
Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey 2019-20, in the covid wave and
post covid scenario, there has been an increase (not decrease) of 3% in the worker population ratio in
agriculture. This has been understood to be indicative of reverse migration trends. Since agriculture is
primarily an activity carried out in rural areas, an increase in people involved in agriculture shows that
people are moving from cities to rural areas (reverse migration).
Also an increase in disbursements and enrolment in MGNREGA in the past year is indicative of reverse
migration trends.
Statement 2 is correct: Industries in urban areas are dependent on supply of cheap labour from rural
areas, migrating to cities in search of better opportunities, to create profitable goods. However, their
reverse migration back to villages has left industries in shortage of labour, as economic activity has picked
up post lifting of lockdowns and end of covid waves. This shortage of labour creates shortage of supply
which ends up creating higher prices/ inflation in the economy, as well as loss for businesses.
Source: [Link]
april-as-karnataka-sees-reverse-migration/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
migrants-trudge-home-again-7297303/

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[Link]
a-lifesaver-for-labourers-during-covid-19-pandemic/[Link]
[Link]
covid-19-has-impacted-labour-migration-in-the-country/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
migration/2241322/

Q.3)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is the highest-capacity nuclear plant in India,
with a total of 2,000MW currently installed with a further 2,000MW under construction. Kudankulam is
the only nuclear plant in India that uses pressurized water reactors (PWR) rather than boiling water
reactors (BHWR) or pressurized heavy-water reactors (PHWR). The PWRs are based on Russian
technology.
Statement 2 is correct. The share of nuclear-powered electricity in India has remained stagnant in the
last two decades, at a time there are increased efforts to boost alternative energy. The share of nuclear
energy in the country was 3.7 per cent in 2001.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The share of nuclear-powered electricity produced in India is significantly lower
than some of the advanced economies. While countries such as France and Ukraine generate 70.6 per cent
and 51.2 per cent of electricity respectively from nuclear sources, they are behind only 3.3 per cent of India’s
total electricity generation.

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Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.4)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Migration is a response to the uneven distribution of opportunities over space. People tend to move from
places of low opportunity and low safety to places of higher opportunity and better safety. This, in turn,
creates both benefits and problems for the areas and people migrate from and migrate to. Source region
is the place from where people migrate to other locations (destination region).
Statement 1 is correct: A major benefit for the source region is the remittance sent by migrants.
Remittances from international migrants are one of the major sources of foreign exchange.
Statement 2 is correct: Imbalance in sex ratio in the place of origin. Migration leads to the redistribution
of the population within a country. Rural urban migration is one of the important factors contributing to
the population growth of cities. However, high out migration from Uttarakhand, Rajasthan, Madhya
Pradesh, Bihar etc. have brought serious imbalances in age and sex composition in the source region (these
states).
Statement 3 is incorrect: Overcrowding of people due to rural-urban migration has put pressure on the
existing social and physical infrastructure in the urban areas (Destination region and not source region).
This ultimately leads to unplanned growth of urban settlement
Source: [Link]

Q.5)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Tank irrigation is a method of irrigation in which a tank, usually a man-made hollow on the Earth's surface,
is used to store rainwater that can be later used for irrigation. This type of irrigation is widely found in the
states of Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Karnataka. The area under tank irrigation has
decreased in recent years because the tank systems are non-perennial and dependent on rainwater
Statement 1 is correct. It is practiced more popularly in the peninsular regions. The reasons for which are-
1) the undulating relief and hard rocks make it difficult to dig canals and wells
2) There is little percolation of water due to hard rock structure and ground water is not available in large
quantities. Most of the rivers are seasonal.
3) there are many streams which become torrential during the rainy season – so the only way to use this
water is to impound it by constructing bunds and building tanks. Also, it is easy to collect rainwater in
natural or artificial pits because of impermeable rocks.
Statement 2 is correct. It accounts for approximately 3% of the net irrigated area in the [Link]
Nadu accounts for 23% of tank irrigation in India whereas Andhra Pradesh and Telangana accounts for
28% of tank irrigation in India.
Statement 3 is correct. In the case of tank irrigation systems there is much less expenditure than the canal
irrigation system. Because most of the tanks are natural and do not involve heavy cost for their
construction. Even an individual farmer can have his own tank. Tanks are generally constructed on rocky
beds and have longer life spans. In many tanks fishing is also carried out. This supplements both the food
resources and income of farmers.
Source: Introduction to micro irrigation system. Page no. Class 11. page no.30

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Q.6)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Coalbed methane (CBM), is a form of natural gas that is extracted from coal beds. It has become popular
in recent times as it is considered a clean energy source. Coalbed Methane an unconventional source of
natural gas is now considered as an alternative source for augmenting India’s energy resource. India has
the fifth largest proven coal reserves in the world and thus holds significant prospects for exploration and
exploitation of CBM.
There are a few concerns and challenges associated with using coal bed methane. They are discussed
below:
Statement 1 is correct. Exploitation of Coal Bed Methane creates disturbance of the lands drilled for coal
bed methane and its effect on wildlife habitats results in ecosystem damage. Water discharges from CBM
development pollute the downstream water sources.
Statement 2 is correct. In the process of extraction of CBM, a large amount of salinized water is released
into freshwater ecosystems. This could pose adverse impacts. Disposal of salinized water is an issue.
Statement 3 is correct. Methane is emitted during the process of extraction of CBM. Methane is a
greenhouse gas and hence raises concerns. Also, in the early stages of recovery of CBM, the production
behavior is complex and would be difficult to predict.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.7)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
Manganese is a silver metallic element. It occurs in many minerals such as manganite, sugilite, rhodonite,
rhodochrosite, and pyrolusite.
Indian manganese ore deposits occur mainly as metamorphosed bedded sedimentary deposits associated
with Gondite Series (Archaeans) of Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat, Chhindwara & Jhabua districts), Maharashtra
(Bhandara & Nagpur districts), Gujarat (Panchmahal district), Odisha (Sundergarh district).
Statement 1 is [Link] Dharwar systems of rocks are highly metalliferous. They bear out gold, iron
ore, manganese mica, cobalt, chromium, copper, tungsten, lead, nickel, precious stones and budding
stones. The Dharwar system of rocks occurs in scattered patches in: (i) southern Deccan, (ii) central and
eastern parts of the Peninsula, (iii) north- western region, and (iv) the Himalayan region.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Orissa is the largest producer and produces over 37 per cent manganese ore of
India. It is obtained from Gondite deposits in Sundargarh district and Kodurite and Khondolite deposits in
Kalahandi and Koraput Districts.
Statement 3 is correct. The most important manganese ore is pyrolusite. Limonite is an ore of iron. Other
important manganese ores are the oxides pyrolusite, romanechite, manganite, and hausmannite and the
carbonate ore rhodochrosite. Rhodonite and braunite, both silicate ores, are frequently found with the
oxides.
Statement 4 is incorrect. On Earth, manganese is never found as a free metal, but it is found in a number
of minerals. The most important of these minerals is pyrolusite, the main ore mineral for manganese.
Manganese is essential to iron and steel production
Source: [Link]
[Link]
india/19758#:~:text=Production%20and%20Distribution%3A%201%20Orissa%3A%20Orissa%20is%20the
,followed%20by%20Madhya%20Pradesh.%20...%20More%20items...%20

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[Link]
database/manganese/#:~:text=On%20Earth%2C%20manganese%20is%20never%20found%20as%20a,a
re%20all%20nearly%20deficient%20in%20economically%20mineable%20manganese.

Q.8)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In terms of cumulative installations, according to the data released by Ministry
of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE) till September 2021, India’s RE installation capacity reached 101.53
GW. Solar energy contributes for approximately 46% of the share in the total RE segment, making it the
major contributor followed by wind energy (39%), Bio Power (10%) and Small Hydro (5%).
Statement 2 is correct. Solar power in India is a fast-developing industry as part of the renewable energy
in India. The country's solar installed capacity was 47.7 GW as of 31 October 2021.
Statement 3 is correct. With a huge landmass and an average of 300 sunny days a year, India theoretically
provides five trillion kilowatt-hours of clean and renewable solar power available every year across its
length and breadth – enough to electrify the nation dozens of times over.
Source: [Link]
and-wind-capacity-in-the-first-nine-months-of-2021-report/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

Q.9)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement a is correct - As per Census, a person aged seven and above who can both read and write with
understanding in any language, is treated as literate. A person, who can only read but cannot write, is not
literate. In the Censuses prior to 1991, children below 5 years of age were treated as illiterates. It was
decided at 1991 Census that all children in the age group 0-6, would be treated as illiterate by definition
and the population aged seven years and above only would be classified as literate or illiterate. The same
criterion has been retained in the Censuses of 2001 and 2011.
Statement b is incorrect – There is neither requirement of any formal education nor of any minimum
qualification to be considered as Literate in India.
Statement c is incorrect – There is no change in definition of literacy as per census 2021. According to
the definition provided in the Indian census, Literacy is defined as “acquiring the skills of reading, writing
with understanding”. Anyone aged 7 or above with the ability to read and write at least in any one language
is considered a literate person.
Statement d is incorrect – Where the male literacy increased by 13% between 2001-2011, female literacy
increased by almost 35%.
Knowledge Base: Literacy rate in India stands at 74% as per Census 2011. There is a stark difference between
male and female literacy rates, which stand 82% and 65% respectively. There is a wider gap in literacy rates
of different castes. The literacy rate of Scheduled Tribes stands at 58.96%, while the Scheduled Castes is at
66.10%. Kerala has the highest literacy rate in India, at 94%, with male literacy rate at 96.1% and female
literacy rate at 92.1%.
"The ability of individuals and communities to understand and use digital technologies for meaningful
actions within life situations" has been defined as digital literacy by the authorities. This is as per
guidelines of “Pradhan Mantri Gramin Digital Saksharta Abhiyan” (PMGDISHA) scheme.
Source: Census 2011 –

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[Link]
ics/[Link]

Q.10)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Bio-energy refers to energy derived from biological products which includes agricultural residues,
municipal, industrial and other wastes.
Statement 1 is correct: Bioenergy is defined as a renewable energy produced from natural sources capable
of replacing fossil energy. Bio-energy is a potential source of energy conversion. It can be converted into
electrical energy, heat energy or gas for cooking. It will also process the waste and garbage and produce
energy.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Bioenergy can co-generate electricity and heat via combined heat and power
(CHP) systems to serve residential, commercial, and industrial buildings. One of the major challenges of
bioenergy within the electricity production sector is the relatively high cost of electricity generation and
limited scope for lowering these costs due to general maturity of technology implemented. Bioenergy
accounts for only 2% of global electricity generation with the total installed capacity.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Bio-energy is not a clean form of energy. It produces greenhouse gases like
carbon dioxide and methane. Yet, the use of bioenergy has the potential to greatly reduce greenhouse gas
emissions. Example: Burning biomass (bioenergy) releases about the same amount of carbon dioxide as
burning fossil fuels. However, fossil fuels release carbon dioxide captured by photosynthesis millions of
years ago—an essentially "new" greenhouse gas. Biomass, on the other hand, releases carbon dioxide that
is largely balanced by the carbon dioxide captured in its own growth (depending on how much energy was
used to grow, harvest, and process the fuel).
Source: [Link] ([Link]) Bioenergy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics Biomass Energy Basics
| NREL

Q.11)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Government decided to conduct Census 2021 under the Census Act, 1948 in two phases, viz., (a) House
listing & Housing Census during April-September, 2020 and (b) Population Enumeration during 9th to 28th
February, 2021. Due to the outbreak of Covid-19, the first phase of Census, updating of NPR and other
related field activities have been postponed.
Statement 1 is correct: The forthcoming Census is to be the first digital Census. Mobile App for collection
of data and a Census Portal for management and monitoring of various Census related activities have
been developed.
Statement 2 is correct: The names of the mother tongue and two other languages known in order of
proficiency are to be recorded by the enumerator in the forthcoming Census as responded by each person.
Statement 3 is incorrect: In Census, the castes and tribes which are specifically notified as Scheduled
Castes and Scheduled Tribes as per the Constitution (Scheduled Castes) Order 1950 and the Constitution
(Scheduled Tribes) Order, 1950 (as amended from time to time) are enumerated. The Union of India after
independence, decided as a matter of policy not to enumerate caste wise population other than SCs and
STs.
Knowledge Base:

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In census 2021 operations, no technical assistance has been obtained from any international agency for
conducting Census operations in the field; development of Census Questionnaires, Mobile applications
and Census Management and Monitoring System (CMMS) portal; etc.
The role of international agencies is limited to support in development of publicity material and e-learning
training modules by UNICEF, UN WOMEN and UNFPA.
Socio Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development
(MoRD) and the then Ministry of Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation (HUPA) in rural and urban areas
respectively. The SECC 2011 data excluding the caste data has been finalized and published by MoRD and
HUPA. The Office of the Registrar General, India had provided logistics and technical support in conducting
the SECC-2011. The raw caste data has been provided to the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(MoSJE) for classification and categorization of the data.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.12)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and groundwater utilization, it accounts for 89 per cent of the
surface water and 92 per cent of the groundwater utilization. While the share of the industrial sector is
limited to 2 per cent of the surface water utilization and 5 per cent of the ground-water, the share of
domestic sector is higher (9 per cent) in surface water utilization as compared to groundwater. The share
of the agricultural sector in total water utilization is much higher than other sectors.
Correct sequence according to increase demand for water utilization is as under
Industry (Lowest)
Domestic (Intermediate)
Irrigation (Highest)
Source: [Link]
[Link]
[Link]

Q.13)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer
India is one of the richest countries in minerals resources in the world. Since India’s internal structure of
earth is the product of ancient hard rock’s therefore almost all kinds of minerals are found here especially
in Gondwana rocks.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Most of the metallic minerals in India occur in the peninsular plateau region in
the old crystalline rocks.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Over 97 per cent of coal reserves occur in the valleys of Damodar, Sone,
Mahanadi and Godavari.
Statement 3 is correct Petroleum reserves are located in the sedimentary basins of Assam, Gujarat and
Mumbai High i.e., off-shore region in the Arabian Sea. New reserves have been located in the Krishna-
Godavari and Kaveri basins.
Most of the major mineral resources occur to the east of a line linking Mangaluru and Kanpur. Minerals are
generally concentrated in three broad belts in India.
Source: [Link]

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Q.14)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Indian Railways is a government-owned-railway system under the ownership of Ministry of Railways,
Government of India that operates India's national railway system. It manages the Fourth-largest railway
network in the world by size, with a route length of 67,956 km as of 31 March 2020.
Statement 1 is correct. Railways has been losing out on the FMCG and automobile markets (which are
preferring roads) due to absence of last mile linkages.
Statement 2 is correct. The share of Indian Railways in freight movement has been witnessing a drop over
a period of time, mainly on account of non-competitive tariff structure. Railways’ freight rates are already
higher than other modes of transport for several commodities.
Statement 3 is correct. Railways’ operating ratio has consistently been higher than 90% in the past several
years, which indicates that its capability to generate operational surplus is low. Further, its expenditure
on staff and pension has been increasing. Consequently, capacity growth is increasingly being funded
through borrowings.
Statements 4 is incorrect. Facing stiff competition from other modes of transportation, the government is
introducing various transformative measures in order to keep railways on track. These measures include
new modernised wagons, dedicated freight corridors, high speed rail, high-capacity rolling stock, port
connectivity, and attracting private and foreign direct investment. The FDI Policy permits 100% FDI in the
railway's infrastructure sector. FDI is permitted in the construction, operation and maintenance of the
railway transport sector.

Figure: Railways’ traffic share

Source: [Link]
[Link]
declining-on-non-competitive-tariff-survey/articleshow/[Link]?from=mdr

Q.15)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Automobiles provide vehicle for quick transport of good services and passengers. Trucks, buses, cars,
motor cycles, scooters, three-wheelers and multi-utility vehicles are manufactured in India at various
centres.
Factors Affecting Automobile Industry:
1) Economic conditions: Economic factors have always played a prominent role in affecting the demand
and sales of automobiles around the world. When the level of economic activity is high globally,

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automobile demand and sales are generally high and on the contrary, if the global economy is through
a recessionary period, car sales are low worldwide.
2) Car prices: Consumers compare the prices of cars before making a purchase. Large number of car
brands that sell family cars and SUVs, the middle customer is their main target segment and prices are
therefore important.
3) Fuel Prices: If the Petrol Price grow higher, the number of cars purchased will decrease. In some
markets, the prices of owning a car can also be driven high by government-related factors. For example,
if the government raises the registration fees considerably, it can lead to higher costs of owning a car
and therefore retardation in car sales.
4) Technology: In the automobile industry, technology has a significant impact on demand and sales. On
the one hand, technology has helped car manufacturers drive their operational costs lower and increase
their profit margins, on the other, it has also helped them achieve higher ROI from their marketing
expenses.
5) Availability of quality raw materials and labour: To an extent, the availability of good quality raw
materials and qualified labour also affects the demand and sales of automobiles. Competition is high in
the automobile industry and companies are competing against each other for obtaining good quality
raw material and talented human resources.
6) The total cost of ownership: The total cost of ownership of a vehicle also determines its demand and
sales level. For example, a car model that costs lower but its maintenance costs are high may end up
selling fewer units compared to the car model whose price is high but maintenance costs are
comparatively lower and fuel efficiency superior compared to the first model. One important reason
that the sales of Tesla cars shot up is that their maintenance cost is much lower compared to the regular
gasoline cars.
Source: Factors Affecting Vehicle Demand and Sales in the Automobile Industry - notesmatic

Q.16)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Footloose industry is a general term for an industry that can be placed and located at any location without
effect from factors of production such as resources, land, labour, and capital. Foot loose industries can
be located in a wide variety of places. They are not dependent on any specific raw material, weight losing
or otherwise. They largely depend on component parts which can be obtained anywhere. They produce in
small quantity and also employ a small labour force. These are generally not polluting industries. The
important factor in their location is accessibility by road network.
These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which means that the costs of the products do not change
regardless of where the product is assembled. Diamonds, computer chips, and mobile manufacturing are
some examples of footloose industries. These are generally non-polluting industries.
Source: Chapter [Link] ([Link])

Q.17)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
India is among the world's largest producers of Textiles and Apparel. The domestic apparel & textile
industry in India contributes 5% to the country's GDP, 7% of industry output in value terms, and 12% of the
country's export earnings. India is the 6th largest exporter of textiles and apparel in the world. However,
in recent times India is losing out to countries like Bangladesh and Vietnam in textiles sector.

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Statement 1 is correct. The most appropriate reason for India losing out to Bangladesh and Vietnam in
textiles sector is high tariffs faced by Indian exporters as compared to Bangladesh and Vietnam exporters
in foreign markets. For example, in the EU, Bangladesh’s exports enter mostly duty free while Indian exports
face an average tariff of 9.2 per cent. As India withdrew from RCEP, India will be disadvantaged in the
market. India industry's dependence on duty drawbacks at the expense of innovation are causing the textile
industry to lose out to Bangladesh.
Statement 2 is incorrect. It is not the case that no subsidy is provided to the Indian textile industries to
increase employment. Under, Pradhan Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Yojana (PMRPY), Government is paying the
8.33% contribution of employers to the Employee Pension Scheme (EPS) in respect of new employees
having a UAN. For the textile (apparel) sector, the Government will also be paying the 3.67% Employees
Provident Fund (EPF) contribution of the eligible employer for these new employees.
Statement 3 is incorrect. The world demand is increasingly shifting toward clothing based on man-made
fibres while Indian domestic tax policy favours cotton-based production and the tariff policy shields an
inefficient man-made fibre sector.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
apparel-sector-employment-2869907/

Q.18)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Lithium is an element valuable for the production of glass, aluminum products, and batteries. It is mined
from ores of petalite LiAl(Si2O5)2, lepidolite K(Li,Al)3(Al,Si,Rb)4O10(F,OH)2, spodumene LiAl(SiO3)2 and also
subsurface brines. Australia and Chile are the world’s largest producers of lithium.
Properties of lithium:
1) It is a chemical element with the symbol Li.
2) It is a soft, silvery-white metal.
3) Under standard conditions, it is the lightest metal and the lightest solid element.
4) It is highly reactive and flammable, and must be stored in mineral oil.
5) It is an alkali metal and a rare metal.
6) Lithium is a key element for new technologies and finds its use in ceramics, glass, telecommunication
and aerospace industries. The well-known uses of lithium are in lithium-ion batteries, lubricating
grease, high energy additives to rocket propellants, optical modulators for mobile phones and as a
converter to tritium used as a raw material for thermonuclear reactions i.e., fusion.
7) Due to the continuous increase in demand for lithium-ion batteries, the requirement of lithium has
increased over the last few years.
8) Recently, a preliminary survey on surface and limited subsurface by Atomic Minerals Directorate for
Exploration and Research (AMD), a constituent unit of Department of Atomic Energy have shown
presence of Lithium resources of 1,600 tonnes (inferred category) in the pegmatites of Marlagalla –
Allapatna area, Mandya district, Karnataka.
Source: [Link]
Renewables-/19-01-2021-367321/

Q.19)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. China has over time acquired global domination of rare earths. At one point, China
produced 90 per cent of the rare earths the world needs. Today, however, it has come down to 60 per cent.

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The remaining is produced by other countries As of 2020, China produced a 57.6 percent share of the total
global rare earth mine production, making it by far the world's largest rare earth producer
Statement 2 is incorrect. China also tops the list of exporting countries. China is largest exporter of rare
earth elements ($332M) in 2019.
Statement 3 is incorrect. India has the world’s fifth-largest reserves of rare earth elements, nearly twice
as much as Australia, but it imports most of its rare earth needs in finished form from China.
Statement 4 is correct. Exploration in India has been conducted by the Bureau of Mines and the
Department of Atomic Energy. Mining and processing has been performed by some minor private players
in the past, but is today concentrated in the hands of IREL (India) Limited (formerly Indian Rare Earths
Limited), a Public Sector Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy.
Source: [Link]
rivalry/[Link]

Q.20)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Pair 1 is correct. Bauxite:Bauxite is a non-ferrous metallic mineral which is used in manufacturing of
aluminium. Bauxite is found mainly in tertiary deposits and is associated with laterite rocks. Bauxite is
found extensively either on the plateau or hill ranges of peninsular India and also in the coastal tracts
of the country. India’s reserves of bauxite are sufficient to keep the country self-reliant. Major reserves
occur in Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and
Uttar Pradesh. Huge deposits of bauxite have been discovered in the Eastern Ghats in Odisha and Andhra
Pradesh, Salem, Nilgiri and Madurai district of Tamil Nadu, and Banda district of Uttar Pradesh also have
workable deposits of bauxite.
Pair 2 is correct. Mica:Mica is mainly used in electronic and electrical industries. It can be split into very
thin sheets which are tough and flexible. India is the leading producer in sheet mica. Mica is widely
distributed in India, but workable deposits occur in only three principal belts, i.e., states of Andhra
Pradesh, Jharkhand, Bihar and Rajasthan.
Pair 3 is correct. Copper: Copper is an important metal in the electrical industry for making wires, electric
motors, transformers and generators. India is a poor country with regard to reserves and production of
copper. Major copper ore deposits are located in Singhbhum district (Jharkhand), Balaghat district
(Madhya Pradesh) and Jhunjhunu and Alwar districts (Rajasthan)
Source: India people and economy class 12. page no. 76

Q.21)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
A watershed (also called drainage basin/catchment area) is an area of land that drains or “sheds” water into
a specific waterbody. One watershed is separated from another by a natural boundary known as the water
divide or the ridge line. Watershed management is an attempt to halt land degradation and a holistic
process for getting maximum production out of land.
The following are important features/objectives of watershed management:
1) To effectively conserve soil, rainwater, and harness the surplus water to create water sources in
addition to recharge groundwater. (Hence, statement 1 is correct)
2) Controls Pollution: Runoff from rainwater or snowmelt can contribute significant amounts of pollution
into the lake or river. Watershed management helps to control pollution of the water and other natural
resources in the watershed. (Hence, statement 2 is correct)

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3) Identification and Regulation of Ecologically Hazardous Activities as All activities that occur within a
watershed somehow affect its natural resources and water quality.
4) management planning comprehensively identifies such activities and makes recommendations to
properly address them so that their adverse impacts can be reduced.
5) To restore ecological balance.
6) Increasing cropping intensity and land equivalent ratio through intercropping and sequence cropping.
7) To cover non-arable areas effectively through afforestation, horticulture, and pasture land development
based on the capability of the land. Safe utilization of marginal and wastelands is done through
alternate land-use systems such as agro-forestry. (Hence, statement 3 is correct)
8) To enhance the income of the individuals by adopting alternative enterprises.
Knowledge Base:
Types of Watersheds: They are classified depending upon the size, drainage, shape and land use pattern.
Macro watershed (> 50,000 Ha)
Sub-watershed (10,000 to 50,000 Ha)
Milli-watershed (1000 to 10,000 Ha)
Micro watershed (100 to 1000 Ha)
Mini watershed (1-100 Ha)
Source: [Link]
management
[Link]
[Link]

Q.22)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer
Products that are classified under the FMCG banner include food, beverages, personal hygiene and
household cleaning utensils. The term “fast- moving” stems from the fact that FMCG products usually have
a short shelf life and are non-durable.
Fast moving consumer goods (FMCG) are the 4th largest sector in the Indian economy.
Statement 1 is correct. There are three main segments in the sector – food and beverages (19%), healthcare
(31%) and household & personal care (remaining 50%).
Statement 2 is correct. The urban segment is the largest contributor (accounts for a revenue share of
around 55%) to the overall revenue generated by the FMCG sector in India.
However, in the last few years, the FMCG market has grown at a faster pace in rural India compared with
urban India. Semi-urban and rural segments are growing at a rapid pace and FMCG products account for
50% of the total rural spending.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Government gave approval of 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the cash
and carry segment and in single-brand retail along with 51% FDI (and not 100%) in multi-brand retail for
FMCG sector.
100% FDI allowed in food processing segment.
Knowledge Base:

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Source: [Link]

Q.23)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Industry refers to an economic activity concerned with the processing of raw materials and manufacture
of goods in factories.
Pair 1 is correctly matched. The hub of the nation's aviation manufacturing industry is at Bangalore,
Karnataka which has a 65% share of this economic sector.
Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) is an Indian state-owned aerospace and defence company,
headquartered in Bengaluru, India. Established on 23 December 1940, HAL is one of the oldest and largest
aerospace and defence manufacturers in the world today.
Pair 2 is correctly matched. India has the world’s largest ship recycling operation — the Alang-Sosiya ship
recycling yards — situated on the west coast of Gujarat. Alang at present has nearly 120 active recycling
yards dismantling end-of-life ships to extract various types of scraps and equipment for recycling and
reusing.
Pair 3 is incorrectly matched. Uttar Pradesh is the country’s largest sugar-producing state. There are
about 120 sugar mills in the state. Maharashtra is the second and Karnataka is the country’s third-largest
sugar-producing state. Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra together share 66 per cent of sugar production.
Source: [Link]
industry#:~:text=Bengaluru%3A,the%20country's%20largest%20IT%20hub.
[Link]
production/#:~:text=Uttar%20Pradesh%20is%20the%20Largest,sugarcane%20output%20of%20the%20
State.
[Link]
[Link]
problem/india/#:~:text=The%20shipbreaking%20yards%20in%20Alang,the%20world's%20largest%20sh
ipbreaking%20site.

Q.24)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

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A hydrocarbon is an organic chemical compound composed exclusively of hydrogen and carbon atoms.
Hydrocarbons are naturally-occurring compounds and form the basis of crude oil, natural gas, coal, and
other important energy sources.
These hydrocarbon deposits have been discovered in large quantities in the seas around the Krishna-
Godavari, Mahanadi basin, in the Andaman Islands, off the coast of Saurashtra and in the Kerala-Konkan
region. These hydrocarbon rich deposits occur at times at depths of one km below the sea and in locations
where the temperature is just right about 5-6 degrees Celsius.

Source: [Link]

Q.25)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
The Petrochemical industry, which entered the Indian industrial scene in the 1970s, registered a rapid
growth in the 1980s and 1990s.

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Statement 1 is correct. The Petrochemical industry is an organic chemical industry that uses organic raw
material like natural gasses, crude oil, refinery gases, naphtha fractions etc. It is a highly capital-intensive
industry as the economy and the size of production in Petro-chemicals is very large.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Reliance is the largest producer of petrochemicals in India controlling almost
three-fourth of the growing Indian polymer market. While Indian Petrochemical Corporation Limited
(IPCL) is the second-largest petrochemicals producer in the country with a market share of about 25-30
per cent in the domestic polymers and Fiber-intermediates (primarily MEG) markets.
Statement 3 is correct. The petrochemical industry is divided into four sub-groups: (i) polymers, (ii)
synthetic Fibers, (iii) elastomers, and (iv) surfactant intermediate. These Polymers are used as raw materials
in the plastic industry which is the most important petrochemical.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
7/organic_chemical_industrythe_case_for_its_speedy_development.pdf
[Link]
[Link]

Q.26)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Coal is one of the important minerals which is mainly used in the generation of thermal power and smelting
of ore. Coal occurs in rock sequences mainly of two geological ages, namely Gondwana and tertiary coal.
Statement 1 is correct. Gondwana coal is moderate to high in ash content and low in Sulphur. About 80%
of the coal deposits in India is of bituminous type and is of non-coking grade. The Gondwana coal mines
are located in river valleys of Damodar, Mahanadi, Godavari, Son and Narmada. Damodar valley is home to
largest coal mines in Jharkhand-West Bengal coal belt located in Jharia (largest coal field of India),
Raniganhj (second largest coal field of India), Bokaro, Giridih, Karanpura , Chandrapur, Tatapani, Talcher,
Himgiri, Korba, Singrauli etc.
Statement 2 is correct. Tertiary coal fields share only 1% of coal production of India. They have high
sulphur content. Such fields occur in Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Meghalaya and Nagaland and also in
small quantities in Jammu & Kashmir. It is extracted from Darangiri, Cherrapunji, Mewlong and Langrin
(Meghalaya); Makum, Jaipur and Nazira in upper Assam, Namchik – Namphuk (Arunachal Pradesh) and
Kalakot (Jammu and Kashmir).
Source: India people and economy. Class 12. page no.78
[Link]

Q.27)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Option a is incorrect. Associated-dissolved natural gas, also referred to as associated gas, is natural gas
produced by oil wells. Associated gas contains natural gas plant liquids (NGPLs) such as ethane, propane,
normal butane, isobutane, and natural gasoline. Associated gas is sometimes characterized as wet gas
because it must be treated at natural gas processing plants to remove impurities and liquids before it can
be marketed as natural gas.
Option b is correct. Non-associated petroleum gas, also known as free gas or dry gas is a naturally
occurring gas that is not dissolved in crude oil in a reservoir where oil is extracted. Sometimes, it is found
above some fluids or under the oil present in the oil reservoir but in a state of equilibrium. This gas is also
found in gas and condensate wells where there is little or no crude oil present.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Option c is incorrect. Stranded gas is essentially gas that is wasted or unused. Estimates of remote or
stranded gas reserves range from 40 to 60% of the world’s proven gas reserves. These massive global gas
reserves are largely untapped, and conventional means of development face logistical and economic
barriers.
Source: [Link]

Q.28)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Strategic Minerals (also known as Critical Minerals) is a broad category that
identifies various minerals and elements; the bulk of which are minor metals. Geography and availability of
domestic supply normally defines the "critical” nature of minerals for any particular region or a country. To
the extent that these minerals are important in various industrial processes they are regarded as critical or
strategic minerals. Some examples of strategic minerals are tin, silver, cobalt, manganese, tungsten, zinc,
titanium, platinum and diamonds.
Statement 2 is correct. Refractory minerals can be defined as minerals or synthetic inorganic crystal
phases that have high melting points. They should also be resistant to deformation and to softening at
high temperatures. Even though their primary function is resistance to elevated temperatures; in many
applications they must resist other destructive forces, such as chemical corrosion and abrasion
Source: [Link]

Q.29)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. Wind is an intermittent and site-specific resource of energy. Intermittent means
that which cannot be dispatched when there is demand. It gives variable power, which is consistent from
year to year but varies greatly over shorter time scales. Therefore, it must be used together with other
power sources to give a reliable supply.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Gujarat has the highest potential of wind energy with 84431.33 MW. Tamil Nadu
has total potential of 33799.65MW and ranks 4 in overall potential. However, Tamil Nadu ranks first in
installed wind power with 9300 MW capacity.
Statement 3 is correct. Wind plants can negatively impact local wildlife. Birds have been killed by flying
into spinning turbine blades. Most of these problems have been resolved or greatly reduced through
technology development or by properly siting wind plants. Like all energy sources, wind projects can alter
the habitat on which they are built, which may alter the suitability of that habitat for certain species.
Knowledge Base:
The wind resources assessment carried out by the National Institute of Wind Energy (NIWE) gives total
wind energy potential at 302 GW at 100 meter and 695.50 GW at 120-meter hub height. Out of the total
estimated potential more than 95% of commercially exploitable wind resources are concentrated in seven
states (Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu).
Source: [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]
start/[Link]

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Q.30)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
The IT spending in India was US$ 81.89 billion in 2021 and further increased to US$ 101.8 billion in 2022, a
24.31% YoY increase.
Statement 1 is correct. The Information Technology industry sector contributed 9% to the national GDP
and accounted for 51% of services exports in 2021-22.
Statement 2 is correct. The Software Technology Park (STP) Scheme is a 100 percent Export Oriented
Scheme for the development and export of computer software, including export of professional services
using communication links or physical media. It permits 100 Percent Foreign Equity to all Indian
companies in export of computer software.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
twice-the-rate-of-eco/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
momentum-122012800079_1.html
[Link]

Q.31)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
In India, there are six major industrial regions out of which three are in the hinterlands of ports. It -
Hooghly Industrial region; Mumbai – Pune Industrial region; Ahmedabad – Vadodara region; Madurai –
Coimbatore – Bangalore region; Chhota Nagpur plateau region and Delhi and Adjoining region.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Statement 1 is correct. The Chotanagpur Region extends over Jharkhand, northern Odisha and western
West Bengal. and is known for the heavy metallurgical industries. The development of the region is from
the discovery of coal in the Damodar Valley and metallic and non-metallic minerals in Jharkhand and
northern Odisha.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The Hyderabad Warangal and Hyderabad Nagpur is an Industrial Corridor which
has an Influence area spread across the states of Telangana and Maharashtra. The Government of India is
considering it to facilitate development of a well- planned and resource-efficient industrial base served by
world-class sustainable connectivity infrastructure, bringing significant benefits in terms of innovation,
manufacturing, job creation and resource security to the identified areas.
Statement 3 is correct. The Madurai – Coimbatore – Bangalore industrial region confined to Bengaluru,
Salem and Madurai districts have now spread over all the districts of Tamil Nadu except Villupuram. The
region is well known for Cotton textile industry, loom industry, several heavy engineering industries, rail
wagons industry, aluminium industry, cement industry, etc. Aircraft (HAL), machine tools, telephone (HTL)
and Bharat Electronics are industrial landmarks of this region.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The Kolkata- Chennai – Tuticorin is not an industrial region but is linked to East
Coast Economic Corridor which encompasses one of the largest concentrations of industrial, mineral and
urban nodes supplemented by strong local factor advantages which inter alia include good connection with
its hinterland and major ports in the proximity of East Asian economies (around 80% of Andhra Pradesh).
Source: [Link]
[Link] (FOR IMAGE ALSO)
[Link]

Q.32)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The urbanization in India is often termed as over-urbanization or pseudo- urbanization. The big cities
attained inordinately large population size leading to virtual collapse in the urban services and followed by
basic problems in the field of housing, slum, water, infrastructure, quality of life etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect. In 1911, the percentage of urbanization was 10.29 and this reached 17.29 percent
by 1951. By 2011, the percentage had reached 31.16, an addition of 20.87 percent, at an average of 2.09 percent
per decade. India’s rate of urbanization has been slow compared to many of the developed nations; but the
movement has been unidirectional — in the direction of urbanization.
Statement 2 is incorrect. In 1951, 18.9 percent of the urban population was in metropolises. This rose to
23.6, 27.7, 37.8 and 42.3 percent in each successive decade. In other words, in 2011, fifty-two metropolitan
towns held 42.3 percent of India’s urban population and 7,883 other cities and towns held 47.7 percent of
the total urban population.
Statement 3 is correct. According to the Census of India 2011, among the North-Eastern States, Mizoram
is most urbanized with 51.5 percent urban population, though in terms of absolute contribution to total
urban population in the country, Mizoram’s contribution is just 0.1 percent. While among States, Goa is the
most urbanized State with 62.2 percent urban population.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
behind-chinas-1-bn-un/articleshow/[Link]
[Link]
policies-are-at-the-bottom-of-its-economy-failing-to-take-off/
[Link]

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[Link]
trends/

Q.33)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: Slums refer to informal settlements in urban areas that are densely populated.
They are often characterized by substandard housing as well as squalor. Many slums' areas may not have
reliable sanitary services, electricity, a clean and consistent water supply, and law enforcement. Slum
residences range from the shanty houses to the professionally built housing that has turned out to be slums,
sometimes because of poor construction efforts or corruption.
Statement 2 is correct: Several reasons contribute significantly to the expansion of slums. These reasons
could be demographic, economic, political and social. The socio-economic factors associated with slum
expansion include uncontrolled rural-urban migration, informal economy or poverty. Political factors
include political instability, poor planning, and social conflicts. Migration from rural to urban areas is among
the factors that contribute significantly to the rise and growth of slums. For many people around the world,
urban areas promise better job opportunities, better schools for the children of the poor, and different
sources of income (unlike the rural areas that primarily rely on subsistence farming).
Statement 3 is correct: Slums are well known for their high vulnerability to floods and landslides among
other natural disasters. Other hazards include industries, collapsing infrastructure and traffic congestion.
Additionally, fires are an essential risk to the slums together with its residents. They have streets that are
narrow and cannot permit easy access to the trucks for fire control. Unemployment and the informal
economy are another risk following the absence of skills together with adequate education in the job
markets that are highly competitive.
Source: [Link]

Q.34)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer
Logistics is management of flow of goods from origin to destination to meet customer requirements in
minimum time at minimum cost.
Logistics include packaging, warehousing, transport and delivery of raw materials and final goods.
Logistics and transportation sector is considered as backbone of the economy because it provides flow of
goods efficiently on which success of other commercial sectors depend. Therefore, the logistics
infrastructure has gained a lot of attention both from business industry as well as policy makers.
Statement 1 is incorrect. India's logistics cost is estimated to account somewhere between 13-14 per cent
of the GDP. This compares poorly with the cost of 7-8 per cent for developed economies. One of the key
reasons for poor productivity is the lack of automation in logistics.
Statement 2 is correct and Statement 3 is incorrect. While road freight accounts for 54% and railways
33%, just 6% of freight transported in India is carried by coastal shipping and inland waterways.
Source: [Link]
[Link]
[Link]
[Link]

Q.35)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Statement 1 is correct - Birth rate is a crude measure of fertility of a population and a crucial determinant
of population growth. India’s birth rate has declined drastically over the last four decades from 36.9 in
1971 to 20.0 in 2018. The rural-urban differential has also narrowed. However, the birth rate has continued
to be higher in rural areas compared to urban areas in the last four decades. There has been about an 11 per
cent decline in birth rate in the last decade, from 22.5 in 2009 to 20.0 in 2018. The corresponding decline
in rural areas is 24.1 to 21.6, and in urban areas, it is 18.3 to 16.7.
Statement 2 is correct - The death rate of India has witnessed a significant decline over the last four
decades from 14.9 in 1971 to 6.2 in 2018. The decline has been steeper in rural areas. In the last decade,
death rate at an all-India level has declined from 7.3 to 6.2. The corresponding decline in rural areas is 7.8
to 6.7 and in urban areas, 5.8 to 5.1.
Knowledge Base:
According to the data released by the Registrar General of India, the national birth rate in 2018 stood at 20,
and death and infant mortality rates stood at 6.2 and 32, respectively. The rates are calculated per one
thousand of the population.
The data shows that against the national infant mortality rate (IMR) of 32, Madhya Pradesh has an IMR of
48 and Nagaland 4. Bihar has the highest birth rate at 26.2 and Andaman and Nicobar Islands has a birth
rate of 11.2. Chhattisgarh has the highest death rate at 8 and Delhi, an almost entirely urban state, has a rate
of 3.3, indicating better healthcare facilities.
The SRS is a demographic survey for providing reliable annual estimates of infant mortality rate, birth rate,
death rate and other fertility and mortality indicators at the national and sub-national levels. Initiated on a
pilot basis by the Registrar General of India in a few states in 1964-65, it became fully operational during
1969-70.
Source: [Link]
pradesh-worst-performer-6402497/

Q.36)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Across India the villages are getting urbanized. One measure of this comes from the census. Between 2001
and 2011, the number of census towns increased from 1,362 to 3,894. Census towns are an area that is not
defined as a town by state governments but has urban characteristics.
The criteria for being classified as a census town are:
1) A minimum population of 5,000
2) At least 75% of the male main working population in the town engaged in non-agricultural activities
3) A population density of at least 400 persons per square kilometre
The number of census towns trebled from 1,362 to 3,894 during 2001-2011, accounting for 30% of the total
rise in urban population of the country.
1) The emergence of census towns is a result of people in rural areas shifting from agriculture to non-
agricultural sectors such as construction, trade and manufacturing. In Uttar Pradesh, around half of the
census towns are small (less than 5 square kilometres), located at the outskirts of major cities and do
not specialize in any commodity. These towns have emerged as a result of increased rural demand and
act as marketplaces for the neighboring villages. In contrast, the other half of census towns have is
centered on the manufacturing of a single good.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

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Q.37)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Option a is correct: In India, the word “urban agglomeration” is defined in the Census of India which
provides statistical information on different characteristics of the people of India. The responsibility of
conducting the decennial Census rests with the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner,
India under Ministry of Home Affairs, Government of India.
1) An urban agglomeration is a continuous urban spread constituting a town and its adjoining
outgrowths (OGs), or two or more physically contiguous towns together with or without outgrowths
of such towns. An Urban Agglomeration must consist of at least a statutory town (all places with a
municipality, corporation, cantonment board or notified town area committee, etc.) and its total
population (i.e., all the constituents put together) should not be less than 20,000 as per the previous
Census of 2011. Examples: Greater Mumbai UA, Delhi UA, etc.
With these two basic criteria having been met, the following are the possible different situations in which
Urban Agglomerations would be constituted:
1) A city or town with one or more contiguous outgrowths
2) Two or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths
3) A city and one or more adjoining towns with their outgrowths all of which form a continuous spread. In
varying local conditions, there were similar other combinations which have been treated as urban
agglomerations satisfying the basic condition of contiguity.
Option b is incorrect: A predecessor of the term “Urban Agglomeration” is a term called “standard urban
area”. This was a new concept developed for the 1971 Census for the tabulation of certain urban data. The
essential criteria of a Standard Urban Area are:
1) It should have a core town of a minimum population size of 50,000,
2) The contiguous areas made up of other urban as well as rural administrative units should have close
mutual socio- economic links with the core town
3) The probabilities are that this entire area will get fully urbanized in a period of two to three decades.
Option c is incorrect: Administrative towns and cities are the towns that are supporting administrative
headquarters of higher order are administrative towns, such as Chandigarh, New Delhi, Bhopal, Shillong,
Guwahati, Imphal, Srinagar, Gandhinagar, Jaipur, Chennai, etc.
Option d is incorrect: A metropolitan area is a region house to a densely populated urban core and its less-
populated surrounding territories, sharing industry, infrastructure, and housing. A metro area usually
comprises multiple jurisdictions and municipalities. As social, economic and political institutions have
changed, metropolitan areas have become key economic and political regions. In India, the Census
Commission defines the qualification for metropolitan city as, the cities having a population of more
than 10 lakhs or one million and above and a Megacity as the cities having a population of more than 10
million and above.
Source:
[Link]
on%20is%20a,without%20outgrowths%20of%20such%20towns.
[Link]
between-metropolitan-and-cosmopolitan-city-1599661-2019-09-16
[Link]

Q.38)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Statement 1 is correct: Globalization is generally understood to mean integration of the economy of the
country with the world economy, it is a complex phenomenon. It is an outcome of the set of various
policies that are aimed at transforming the world towards greater interdependence and integration. It
involves creation of networks and activities transcending economic, social and geographical boundaries.
Globalization attempts to establish links in such a way that the happenings in India can be influenced by
events happening miles away. It is turning the world into one whole or creating a borderless world.
Statement 2 is correct: Economic Globalization reflects the idea that no economy in the world is isolated
today and there is an inter-locking global economy which has absorbed various economies around the
world. The demise of the Soviet Union acted as a catalyst for global economic integration as the last major
block of countries were absorbed into the global capitalist system. Economic globalization has reduced the
capacity of national governments to manage their economies and to resist their restructuring along free
market principles.
Statement 3 is correct: Outsourcing is one of the important outcomes of the globalization process. In
outsourcing, a company hires regular service from external sources, mostly from other countries, which
was previously provided internally or from within the country (like legal advice, computer service,
advertisement, security- each provided by respective departments of the company). outsourcing has
intensified, in recent times, because of the growth of fast modes of communication, particularly the growth
of Information Technology (IT).
Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.39)
Ans) a
Exp) option a is the correct answer.
Industries located in this region have shown very fast growth in the recent past.
Statement 1 is correct. This region is located far away from the mineral and power resources, and
therefore, the industries are light and market-oriented.
Statement 2 is correct. Agra-Mathura industrial area, which specializes in glass and leather goods.
Mathura, with an oil refinery, is a petrochemical complex.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Proximity of coal, iron ore and other minerals facilitated the location of heavy
industries in Chotanagpur region and not Gurugram-Delhi-Meerut industrial region. Electronics, light
engineering and electrical goods are major industries of this region.
Source: [Link]

Q.40)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Industries works on the principle of maximise profits by reducing costs. Therefore, industries should be
located at points where the production costs are minimum. Some of the factors influencing industrial
locations are as under:
Pair 1 is incorrectly matched: Raw material used by industries should be cheap and easy to transport.
Industries based on cheap, bulky and weight-losing material (ores) are located close to the sources of raw
material such as steel, sugar, and cement industries. Perishability is a vital factor for the industry to be
located closer to the source of the raw material. Some of the industries, like watch and electronics
industries use very wide range of light raw materials and the attractive influence of each separate material
diminishes. The result is that such industries are often located with no reference to raw materials.

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PTS 2023 | Preparatory Test 20 – Solutions |

Pair 2 is correctly matched: Supply Labour supply is an important factor in the location of industries. Some
types of manufacturing still require skilled labour. Increasing mechanisation, automation and flexibility of
industrial processes have reduced the dependence of industry upon the labours. Consumer goods and
agro-based industries generally require a plentiful of labour supply.
Pair 3 is correctly matched: Industries which use more power are located close to the source of the energy
supply such as the aluminium industry. Earlier coal was the main source of energy, today hydroelectricity
and petroleum are also important sources of energy for many industries Source: Chapter [Link]
([Link]) [Link] ([Link])

Q.41)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.
The term ‘Drought’ in simple words is the absence of water for a long period of time, at a place where it is
considered abnormal as compared to its usual conditions. There are three types of droughts known to the
scientific community:
Pair 1 is correct. Meteorological drought occurs when there is a prolonged time with less than average
precipitation. Such type of droughts can be triggered by a high level of reflected sunlight and above-
average prevalence of high-pressure systems, winds carrying continental, rather than oceanic air masses.
Pair 2 is correct. Agricultural droughts affect crop production or the ecology of the range. This condition
can also arise independently from any change in precipitation levels when either increased irrigation or
soil conditions and erosion triggered by poorly planned agricultural activities cause a shortfall in water
available to the crops.
Pair 3 is correct. Hydrological drought is brought about when the water reserves available in sources such
as aquifers, lakes and reservoirs fall below a locally significant threshold. Hydrological drought tends to
show up more slowly because it involves stored water that is used but not replenished. Like an agricultural
drought, this can be triggered by more than just a loss of rainfall.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.42)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Sugar industry is broadly distributed over two major areas of production- Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Haryana
and Punjab in the north and Maharashtra, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh in the south. In
recent years, the mills have shifted to the southern and western states, especially in Maharashtra. This is
because:
Statement 1 is correct. South India has tropical climate which is suitable for higher sucrose content giving
higher yield per unit area as compared to north India.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The cooler climate in the region (not Hotter climate) also ensures a longer
crushing season.
Statement 3 is correct. Sugar industry thrives if it is run by cooperatives. Such cooperatives are popular
and successful in the southern states.
Source: India a comprehensive geography by D.R. Khullar chapter 22 page 778.

Q.43)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer.

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A Footloose industry is an industry that can be placed and located at any location without being affected
by factors such as resources or transport. These industries often have spatially fixed costs, which mean
that the costs of the products do not change regardless of where the product is assembled. Diamonds and
computer chips are some examples of footloose industries. In a traditional industry, costs are variable and
depend on the distance from the source of raw material, transportation lines, etc.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Footloose industries can be set up near or away from large markets. Its products
can reach a wide variety of markets no matter where they are located.
Statement 2 is incorrect. They produce in small quantities and also employ a small labour force. Thus, they
are not required to be set up at a particular location. These are generally non-polluting industries. Non-
polluting here means majorly air, land and water pollution. Some footloose industries do cause noise
pollution as well as generate e-waste.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Iron ore industry is not a Footloose industry. Industries that use weight-losing
raw materials are located in regions where raw materials are located. Pulp industry, copper smelting and
pig iron industries are located near their raw materials’ source. In iron and steel industries, iron ore and
coal are both weight-losing raw materials.
Knowledge Base: Alfred Weber formulated a theory of industrial location in which an industry is located
where the transportation costs of raw materials and final product is minimum. He singled out two special
cases.
In one, the weight of the final product is less than the weight of the raw material going into the making of
the product. This is known as weight losing industry.
In the other, the final product is heavier than the raw material that requires transport. Usually this is a case
of some ubiquitous (available everywhere) raw material such as water being incorporated into the product.
This is called the weight-gaining industry (Bulk gaining industry). Example - Beverage production or soda
industry where empty plastic bottles are filled with soda and hence become weight gaining.
Source: India people and economy textbook for class XII; unit 3-chapter 8 manufacturing industries; page
87.
Fundamentals of Human Geography Textbook for Class XII; unit 3-chapter 6 Secondary Activities; page 47

Q.44)
Ans) c
Exp) Option c is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is incorrect. India is the largest producer of raw jute and jute goods and is second largest
exporter after Bangladesh. Most of the mills are located in West Bengal, mainly along the banks of the
Hugli River, in a narrow belt.
Statement 2 is correct. Jute fibre is 100% bio-degradable and recyclable and thus environmentally friendly.
Cultivating jute in crop rotations enriches the fertility of the soil for the next crop. Jute also does not
generate toxic gases when burnt.
Statement 3 is correct. Jute is an annual crop taking about 120 days (April/May-July/August) to grow. It
thrives in tropical lowland areas with humidity of 60% to 90%. Jute is a rain-fed crop with little need for
fertilizer or pesticides.
Statement 4 is correct. Jute is a product of South Asia and specifically a product of India and Bangladesh.
About 95% of world jute is grown in these two south Asian countries. Nepal and Myanmar also produce
a small amount of jute. Pakistan, although it does not produce much, imports a substantial amount of raw
jute, mainly from Bangladesh, for processing.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

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Q.45)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct: India is the largest user of groundwater in the world, extracting groundwater to
the tune of 253 billion cubic meter (bcm) per year. India is more dependent on water pumped from aquifers
than any other nation, it accounts for about a quarter of global demand for groundwater, according to the
world bank, More than 90 percent of groundwater in India is used for irrigated agriculture. The
remainder 24 billion cubic meters supplies 85 percent of the country's drinking water. Roughly 80% of
India's 1.35 billion residents depend on groundwater for both drinking and irrigation.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The central ground water authority report showed that ground water utilization
is very high in states of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu.
Statement 3 is correct: Recently guidelines were notified by the Central Ground Water Authority under
the Jal shakti ministry.
It has issued guidelines to the industries. The new guidelines prohibit new industry and mining projects
in over-exploited zones and makes it mandatory for existing industries, commercial units and big
housing societies to take no objection certificate (NOC).
Knowledge Base: other guidelines by Jal shakti ministry:
1) Exemption: The domestic consumers, rural drinking water schemes, armed forces, farmers and
micro & small enterprises (that withdraw up to 10 m3 water per day) are exempted from the
requirement of a no objection certificate from the CGWB.
2) The guidelines have also encouraged the use of recycled and treated sewage water by industries,
mentioned a provision of action against polluting industries and mandated the requirement of digital
flow meters, piezometers and digital water level recorders
3) compensation: The guidelines notified by the CGWB under jal shakti ministry prescribes a minimum
environmental compensation of ₹1 lakh on industrial, mining and infrastructure users for extracting
groundwater without a no objection certificate (NOC). This can rise, depending on the quantum of water
extracted and the duration of the breach.
4) Abstraction charges: All residential apartments/ group housing societies/ Government water
supply agencies in urban areas would be required to pay ground water abstraction charges.
Source:[Link]
[Link]

Q.46)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Human Development Report (HDR) released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP). India
dropped two ranks in the United Nations’ Human Development Index 2020, standing at 131 out of 189
countries.
The HDI measures average achievement in three basic dimensions of human development —
1) life expectancy (Hence, option 1 correct)
2) education (Hence, option 2 correct)
3) per capita income.
HDI does not include the intensity of poverty prevalent in a country as a dimension index in its
calculation of HDI index. (Hence, option 3 is incorrect)
Knowledge Base:

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1) HDI is calculated taking into consideration performance of countries on four broad parameters — life
expectancy at birth (total population); expected years of schooling (Ages 5 to 24); mean years of
schooling (Ages 25 and above); and per capita gross national income (PPP).
2) The HDI assigns equal weight to all three-dimension indices; the two education sub-indices are also
weighted equally.
3) For the first time, the United Nations Development Programme introduced a new metric to reflect the
impact caused by each country’s per-capita carbon emissions and its material footprint, which measures
the amount of fossil fuels, metals and other resources used to make the goods and services it consumes.
Source: [Link]
[Link]

Q.47)
Ans) d
Exp) Option d is the correct answer
Option 1 is correct. As per the Report of the Task Force on Irrigation (2009) constituted by the then
Planning Commission, for a gross irrigated area of about 91 mha, the water use is 634 BCM, which gives a
delta of 0.68 m per ha of gross irrigated area. The average annual rainfall is 1170 mm (1.17m). Taking 70 per
cent of the rainfall as effective for crop consumptive use, the gross water use is about 1.45 m (4.8 feet) per
ha of the gross irrigated area. This is very high compared to water use in irrigation systems in developed
countries, such as the USA, where water allocation is about 90 cm. This overuse in the country reflects
low irrigation efficiency.
Option 2 is correct. The demand for water for various purposes is increasing due to population growth,
urbanization and industrialization. Presently, the agriculture sector is using about 83 per cent of available
water resources, but demand from other sectors may reduce availability for agricultural use to 68 per cent
by 2050.
Option 3 is correct. There is a huge temporal and spatial variation in rainfall and water availability in the
country. While average annual rainfall is 1170mm, some parts of northeast get around 10000 mm per year,
while parts of western Rajasthan get only 100 mm.
Option 4 is correct. There has been a large gap in utilization of created potential. At the end of the eleventh
plan, total utilization of irrigation potential was to the extent of 87.66 million hectares as against the total
created potential of 113.53 million hectares showing a gap of 25.67 million hectares.
Option 5 is correct. The frequency of occurrence of draught years has significantly increased In India. The
period between 1950 to 1989 had 10 draught years while there have been five draughts in the last 16 years.
According to meteorologists' frequency is set to increase from 2020 to 2049. in India the lack of monsoon
result in water shortages, resulting in below crop yield.
Source: [Link]
usage-major-challenge-66580

Q.48)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
Statement 1 is correct. A comprehensive flagship programme called Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchai
Yojana or “more crop per drop” is a centrally sponsored programme being implemented by Department of
Agriculture, Cooperation & Farmers Welfare (DAC&FW) from 2015-16 in all the States of the country. Under
the programme, financial assistance of up to 55 per cent is available for small and marginal farmers and
45 per cent for other farmers for adoption of micro-irrigation systems. The funding pattern between the

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Union governments and the state government’s share since November 2015 has been 60:40 for all states
except the North East and the Himalayan states, for which the funding pattern is 90:10.
Statement 2 is correct. The total area of 53.73 lakh hectares covered under the Per Drop More Crop
component of Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY-PDMC) scheme, drip irrigation covered
28.23 lakh hectares and sprinkler irrigation covered 25.50 lakh hectares through PMKSY-PDMC from
2015-16 to March 2021. The scheme is vital for Indian agriculture considering that 27 States (including UTs)
have less than 30 per cent micro-irrigation system out of which 23 have less than 15 per cent micro-
irrigation. Data from the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare show that the net irrigated area in
the country is 68,649 thousand hectares. The agricultural land covered under micro-irrigation is 12,908.44
thousand hectares. This means that out of total irrigated land in the country only 19 per cent is under
micro-irrigation.
Statement 3 is incorrect. Interestingly Uttar Pradesh, the largest sugarcane grower, has only 1.5 per cent
while Punjab, the major wheat grower, has 1.2 per cent land under micro-irrigation. Bihar and West Bengal
are among the States that have less than 5 per cent micro irrigated land.
Source: [Link]
sustainable-agriculture-73153
[Link]
reap-benefits-from-new-scheme/[Link]

Q.49)
Ans) a
Exp) Option a is the correct answer.
The quantitative aspect of the population of an area is reflected by population density. It expresses the
number of people residing per unit of area of land for a particular region. However, it does not always reveal
a true picture – especially for large countries with physiographic & economic variations. Density is a crude
measure of human and land relationships.
The physiological and the agricultural densities provide a better insight into the human-land ratio in terms
of pressure of population on total cultivable land.
Statement 1 is correct. Agricultural density is the ratio between only the agricultural population and the
total cultivated area. The agricultural population includes cultivators and agricultural labourers and their
family members. Therefore, the agricultural density is expressed in terms of agricultural population per
unit of cultivated area. It has proved to be a useful index of man- land relationship in primarily an agrarian
context.
Statement 2 is incorrect. Physiological density refers to the total population divided by the net cultivated
area. Its measure is helpful while studying population pressure and overcrowding. A higher physiological
density suggests that the available agricultural land is being used by more and may reach its output limit
sooner than a country that has lower physiological density. Egypt is a notable example of physiological
density reaching that of Bangladesh despite much desert.
Arithmetic Density of population is the ratio between the total number of people and the total area of the
land.
Source: NCERT Geography class 12 India: People and Economy Chapter 1: Population
[Link]

Q.50)
Ans) b
Exp) Option b is the correct answer.
Nuclear energy has emerged as a viable source in recent times. Important minerals used for the generation
of nuclear energy are uranium and thorium. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) of the Government

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of India (GOI) was established in August 1954. It is engaged in research, technology development and
commercial operations in the areas of Nuclear Energy, related High Technologies and supports basic
research in nuclear science and engineering.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Uranium deposits occur in the Dharwar rocks. Geographically, uranium ores are
known to occur in several locations along the Singbhum Copper belt. It is also found in Udaipur, Alwar and
Jhunjhunu districts of Rajasthan, Durg district of Chhattisgarh, Bhandara district of Maharashtra and Kullu
district of Himachal Pradesh.
Statement 2 is correct: According to the Atomic Minerals Directorate for Exploration and Research (AMD),
a constituent Unit of the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), India has 10.70 million tonnes of
Monazite which contains 9,63,000 tonnes of Thorium Oxide (ThO2). Thorium is mainly obtained from
monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The world’s richest
monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra
Pradesh and Mahanadi River delta in Odisha.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Most of the uranium deposits established in India so far falls under the category
of low grade. These low-grade uranium deposits are distributed mainly in Singhbhum Shear Zone,
Jharkhand and in parts of Chhattisgarh.
Source: [Link] ([Link]) Low grade uranium deposits of India – a bane or boon - ScienceDirect
India 2019 ([Link])

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