(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Which one below is NOT an example of a fresh water body of water?

(a) Lakes
(b) Rivers
(c) Ponds
(d) Oceans

2. Shifting back to a more localized production of food and other resources would lead
to all of the following, except ……
(a) Reduced local environmental sustainability.
(b) More stable source of jobs and income.
(c) More profits circulating within each community.
(d) Reduced transportation fuel use.
(e) Reduced greenhouse gas emissions.

3. Which of the following would not traditionally support an environmental-friendly

economy?
(a) Shift taxes from wages and profits to pollution and waste.
(b) Improve energy efficiency.
(c) Shift from a carbon-based economy to a renewable fuel-based economy.
(d) Repair ecological damage.
(e) Decrease subsidies for alternative fuel vehicles.

4. Changing to a recycling and reuse economy will enable us to meet the needs of an
ever-growing population indefinitely.
(a) True
(b) False

5. Which of the following is a means of personally contributing toward the

development of a sustainable society?
(a) Individual lifestyle changes.
(b) Career choices.
(c) Support of appropriate organizations.
(d) Political involvement.
(e) All of the above.

6. Large cities in developed countries are impossible without automobile ownership by

a high percentage of the city's residents.
(a) True
(b) False

7. City dwellers must rely on rural areas for the production of all of their foodstuffs.
(a) True
(b) False
8. A single person cannot help in efforts to work towards a sustainable society.
(a) True
(b) False

9. Urban sprawl has no advantages.

(a) True
(b) False

10. The economic, social, and cultural backgrounds of people living in inner city areas
and new suburban developments are very similar.
(a) True
(b) False

11. Which of the following is directly or indirectly related to essentially all of our
environmental problems?
(a) Depletion of resources
(b) Population growth
(c) Technology
(d) Pollution
(e) Destruction of rainforests

12. A graph of human population growth to the present resembles ……

(a) an S-shaped curve.
(b) a J-shaped curve.
(c) a horizontal line.
(d) a diagonal line from top left to bottom right.
(e) a diagonal line from bottom left to top right.

13. A sustainable society ……

(a) returns to a more primitive style of living.
(b) meets the needs and aspirations of the present without compromising those of
the future.
(c) curtails all further development.
(d) continues as always and assumes that things will work out for the best.
(e) is inconsistent with the goals of environmentalism.

14. Which of the following is not characteristic of a sustainable society?

(a) Relies heavily on fossil fuels.
(b) Recycles whenever possible.
(c) Practices resource conservation.
(d) Uses renewable resources whenever possible.

15. A sustainable system or process is one that ……

(a) can be continued indefinitely without depleting the material or energy resources
required to keep it running.
 (b) persists over time.
(c) is carefully managed using sound ecological principles.
(d) is operating at its carrying capacity.
(e) will support as much harvesting as humans wish to undertake.

16. Rain water harvesting is not ……

(a) catching and holding rain where it falls and using it.
(b) storing it in tanks.
(c) recharging groundwater.
(d) harvesting the crops with rain water.

17.  Which state has made it compulsory to harvest rain water for all buildings?
(a) Rajasthan (b) West Bengal
(c) Tamilnadu (d) Maharashtra
18.  In Mumbai, what is the minimum plot area for which rain water harvesting is
mandatory?
(a) 2000 sq. m. (b) 500 sq. m.
(c) 1000 sq. m. (d) 1500 sq. m.
19.  The environmental cause of increase in skin cancer, cataract and mutation is …
(a) acid rain (b) global warming
(c) nuclear winter (d) ozone depletion
20.  Greenhouse effect leading to the warming up of the atmosphere is due to …
(a) infra-red rays reaching to the earth.
(b) UV rays reaching the earth.
(c) increases in temperature due to increase in CO₂ level.
(d) depletion of ozone layer.
21.  Acid rain …
(a) increases the pH of soil.
(b) decreases the pH of soil.
(c) does not change the pH of soil.
(d) increases the fertility of soil.
22.  Which one is not a greenhouse gas?
(a) CO₂ (b) Ozone
(c) CH₄ (d) CFC
23.  Our environment is presently not degrading due to …
(a) deforestation (b) overgrazing
(c) rapid industrialization (d) urbanization
(e) none of the above
24.  Which one of the following is NOT included in Earth's climate system?
(a) Atmosphere (b) Solid Earth
(c) Biosphere (d) Hydrosphere
(e) Solar sphere
25.  Which one of the following is NOT a significant natural cause of climate change?
(a) Solar variability
(b) Variations in Earth’s orbit
(c) Volcanic activity
(d) Plate tectonics
(e) Erosion of the land
26.  The combustion of coal and oil is a major source of which greenhouse gas?
(a) Ozone (b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Methane (d) CFCs
(e) None of the above
27.  Which of the following is associated with the astronomical theory of climate
change?
(a) Eccentricity of Earth’s orbit
(b) Obliquity of Earth’s axis
(c) Precession of Earth’s axis (d) all of the above
(e) Both precession and obliquity of Earth’s axis
28.  Which one of the following is a significant contributor to increased levels of
atmospheric carbon dioxide?
(a) Deforestation
(b) Aerosol spray can gases
(c) Refrigerant leakage
(d) Large rice paddies
(e) None of the above
29.  The slow wobbling of Earth as it spins on its axis is called …
(a) eccentricity (b) obliquity
(c) aphelion (d) precession
(e) extension
30.  Which of the following is a possible consequence of a greenhouse warming?
(a) a change in agricultural productivity.
(b) a rise in sea level.
(c) new weather patterns.
(d) alteration of the world’s water resources.
(e) all of the above.
31.  Oxygen isotope analysis measures the …
(a) amount of radioactive oxygen in the air.
(b) oxygen content of ocean water.
(c) ratio of two different types of oxygen atoms.
(d) oxygen content of organic sediment.
(e) rate of oxygen depletion.
32.  Which one of the following is NOT a greenhouse gas?
(a) Nitrous oxide (b) Methane
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Oxygen
(e) All are greenhouse gases
33.  When determining climate change, oxygen isotope measurements are made from
an analysis of …
(a) ocean water (b) lava
(c) cores from old trees (d) glacial ice
(e) none of the above
34.  Along with carbon dioxide, .......... is largely responsible for the greenhouse effect
of the atmosphere.
(a) nitrogen (b) hydrogen
(c) sulfur dioxide (d) oxygen
(e) water vapour
35.  Which of the following help scientists discover how climate has changed over
broad expanses of time?
 (a) Sea-floor sediments
(b) Oxygen isotope analysis
(c) Paleosols (buried soils)
(d) All of the above
(e) Only sea-floor sediments and oxygen isotope analysis
36.  The greenhouse effect is caused by ..........
(a) Greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorbing solar radiation.
(b) Greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorbing radiation from the Earth’s
surface and preventing much of it escaping into space.
(c) Too much heat in the atmosphere.
(d) Too much sunshine reaching Earth.
37.  Which of these natural events affect the climate?
(a) Thawing permafrost.
(b) The path of the Earth around the sun.
(c) Volcanic eruptions.
(d) All of the above.
38.  Which of these greenhouse gases is most abundant in the atmosphere?
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Water vapour
39.  What greenhouse gas was not present in the atmosphere in pre-industrial times
(before 1750)?
(a) Trichlorofluoromethane (b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Nitrous oxide (d) Methane
40.  Which of these countries has the highest per capita carbon dioxide emissions?
(a) United States (b) Australia
(c) Saudi Arabia (d) China
41.  Which of the following activities contributes the most to carbon emissions
globally?
(a) Agriculture (b) Transport
(c) Forestry (d) Energy supply
42.  The 1987 Montreal Protocol was signed for which of the following reasons?
(a) To phase out the use of CFCs, found to be causing depletion of the ozone layer.
(b) To begin converting from fossil fuel use to more renewable energy sources to
reduce the anthropogenic greenhouse effect.
(c) To stop the global trade in products made from endangered tigers.
(d) To ban nuclear testing in tropical oceans.
43.  One effect of global warming is a rise in sea levels, which certainly could affect
coastal cities that are little above current sea level. How much has the sea level risen
in the past 100 years?
(a) 1–2 inches (b) 6–8 feet
(c) 6–8 inches (d) 2–4 feet
44.  What would the Kyoto Protocol do?
(a) It would not allow developing countries like China to modify their coal-burning
equipment to prevent further increases in carbon dioxide levels.
(b) It would curb all CO₂ emissions from all countries and bring them about down to
15% from the levels reached in 1990.
(c) It would completely ban production of CFCs.
(d) By 2012, it would curb CO₂ emissions from all developed countries to bring them
about 6 to 8% down from the levels reached in 1990.
45.  What part of the world is expected to warm up the most when most common
climate models project warming for the 21st century?
(a) The Arctic.
(b) Southern Europe and North Africa.
(c) Southwestern USA and parts of China.
(d) Tropical regions.
46.  Which statement below is correct?
(a) Normal rain’s pH varies by more than 3 pH units.
(b) Normal rain has a perfectly neutral reaction (pH = 7)
(c) Normal rain is mildly acidic because of the carbonic acid (pH < 7).
(d) It is impossible to tell.
(e) Normal rain is mildly alkaline (pH > 7).
47.  Which statement best describes the current situation with the ozone hole?
(a) The ozone hole has grown about 50% larger.
(b) The ozone hole has shown a major decline after the ozone-depleting chemicals
were banned under the Montreal Protocol.
(c) The ozone hole remained more or less constant in size since 2000, despite a slight
reduction in the amount of CFCs in the stratosphere.
(d) Ozone holes of about equal size are now developing in both the Arctic and
Antarctica.
48.  Which strategy below will not assist us in preventing acid rain?
(a) Installing scrubbers at power plants.
(b) Switching to wind power as a source of electricity.
(c) Using used rubber tires on children's playgrounds.
(d) Switching to low-sulfur coal.
49.  The pH scale is logarithmic; that is, each unit on it is 10 times greater than the
previous one.
(a) True (b) False
50.  Most of the problems with acid deposition in this country result from rain. The
amount of acid contained in snow is minimal. True or false?
(a) True (b) False
51.  Even with a complete CFC ban worldwide, it will take the ozone layer 50 to 100
years to recover.
(a) True (b) False
52.  Ozone is a pollutant at ground level, but it is a desirable chemical in the
stratosphere because it blocks dangerous ultraviolet radiation.
(a) True (b) False
53.  An ozone hole can occur only over Antarctica.
(a) True (b) False
54.  Most recent studies done by the International Panel on Climate Change
researchers, it is believed that the earth is indeed warming.
(a) True (b) False
55.  The projected effects of global warming are all negative.
(a) True (b) False
56.  Global warming over the 21st century will likely result in a 10 meter rise in ocean
levels.
(a) True (b) False
57.  Because warming is global, Earth is warming up uniformly everywhere.
(a) True (b) False
58.  Reductions in methane emissions could help mitigate global warming.
(a) True (b) False
59.  All global circulation models predict a future that is warmer than today for the next
50–100 years.
(a) True (b) False
60.  In the past century, the amount of precipitation worldwide has decreased.
(a) True (b) False
61.  To stop global warming by the end of the 21st century, we would need to reduce
greenhouse gas emissions much more than what's required under Kyoto Protocol (6 to
8%), perhaps by as much as 80% within the next 20–50 years.
(a) True (b) False
62.  Nuclear power plants are typically fueled with what?
(a) Plutonium (b) Deuterium
(c) Uranium-238 (d) Uranium-235
(e) Tritium
63.  The subatomic particles released during a nuclear chain reaction are what?
(a) Gluons (b) Electrons
(c) Neutrons (d) Muons
(e) Protons
64.  An environmental problem associated with nuclear power plants is what?
(a) Carbon dioxide emissions
(b) Nitrogen oxide emissions
(c) Sulfur oxide emissions
(d) Particulate emissions
(e) None of the above
65.  The current practice for disposal of high level wastes from nuclear power plants is
to ………
(a) bury the wastes deep underground.
(b) allow the military to reprocess the wastes for nuclear weapons.
(c) drop the wastes into the deepest parts of the ocean.
(d) use the space shuttle to carry the wastes to outer space.
66.  Where did the worst nuclear accident in history occur in 1986?
(a) Chernobyl (b) Yucca Mountain
(c) Chelyabinsk (d) Brown's River Ferry
(e) Three Mile Island
67.  What country has the greatest reliance on nuclear power for generation of
electricity?
(a) Japan (b) Germany
(c) England (d) Russia
(e) France
68.  Breeder reactors convert ………
(a) uranium-238 into plutonium-239.
(b) uranium-235 into plutonium-239.
(c) uranium-238 into uranium-235.
(d) uranium-235 into uranium-238.
(e) plutonium-239 into uranium-238.
69. Since the mid 1970s, interest in nuclear energy has ……
(a) dramatically increased.
 (b) dramatically declined.
(c) stayed the same.
70. In nuclear fission, ……
(a) a large atom of one element is split to produce two smaller atoms of different
elements.
(b) a large molecule of one element is split to produce two smaller molecules of
different elements.
(c) two small atoms combine to form a larger atom of a different element.
71. In nuclear fusion, ……
(a) two smaller molecules are joined to produce a single larger molecule.
(b) a large atom of one element is split to produce two smaller atoms of different
elements.
(c) two small atoms combine to form a larger atom of a different element.
72. To make nuclear fuel, uranium ore is enriched by ……
(a) separating 235U from 238U to produce a material containing higher levels of
235U.
(b) separating 238U from 235U to produce a material containing higher levels of
238U.
(c) adding more 238U.
73. The time for half the amount of a radioactive isotope to decay is known as its ……
(a) half-life. (b) radioactive decay.
(c) halving time. (d) rate of decay.
74. What containment period does EPA recommend for long-term storage of radioactive
wastes?
(a) 10,000 years (b) 100,000 years
(c) 1000 years (d) 100 years
75. Which of the following is not a basis for opposition to nuclear power?
(a) High construction costs
(b) Generation of greenhouse gases
(c) The risk of serious accident
(d) Security risks
76. Uranium-238 is the fissionable isotope of uranium commonly used in nuclear power
plants.
(a) True (b) False
77. One benefit of nuclear energy is that uranium ore requires little processing before use
as a fuel in a nuclear power plant.
(a) True (b) False
78. The energy released from a fission chain reaction is directly converted into electricity.
(a) True (b) False
79. The radiation exposure from living near a nuclear power plant is approximately equal
to that of a single chest X ray.
(a) True (b) False
80. Long-term storage of wastes from nuclear power plants is not a problem because
radioactive decay will cause the waste products to become stable and no longer
radioactive.
(a) True (b) False
81. Controlled fusion reactions should be possible in theory, but have yet to be achieved
in reality.
(a) True (b) False
 82. Coal-fired generating plants produce far more solid waste than nuclear plants.
(a) True (b) False
83. Closing down (decommissioning) a nuclear power plant can cost more than building
the plant in the first place.
(a) True (b) False
84. Carbon credit is meant for ……
(a) Deforestation
(b) Protection of environment
(c) Rural infrastructure
(d) Diamond trading
85. Mechanism that does NOT enable developed countries with quantified emission
limitation and reduction commitments to acquire GHG reduction credits.
(a) Joint Implementation (JI)
(b) Clean Development Mechanism (CDM)
(c) Combined Asset Mechanism (CAM)
(d) International Emission Trading (IET)
86. Concept of carbon credits came into existence in ……
(a) Montreal protocol (b) Reo conference
(c) Bandung protocol (d) Kyoto Protocol
87. Carbon offsets are measured in metric tons of carbon dioxide-equivalent and does not
represent the following greenhouse gas ……
(a) Methane (CH₄) (b) Nitrous oxide (N₂O)
(c) Ozone (d) Perfluorocarbons (PFCs)
(e) Hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs)

88. Which one of the following is not true about the term “CARBON CREDITS”?
(a) A carbon credit gives the owner the right to emit one tonne of carbon dioxide.
(b) Carbon credits are a tradable permit scheme and can be exchanged between
businesses having short of quotas or below the quotas.
(c) These can be bought and sold in international/national markets at the Govt.
controlled prices.
(d) The need arises because international treaties such as Kyoto Protocol set quotas
on the amount of greenhouse gases that those countries can produce.
(e) All the above are true.

(B) ADDITIONAL OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS:

1. Sustainable development is defined as meeting the needs of the present without

compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs. This
definition is given by ……
(a) G. H. Brundtland (b) R.D. Tata
(c) Anil Ambani (d) A. P. Rao

2. In 1992 Earth summit held at ……

(a) Rio de Janeiro (b) New-York
(c) Mumbai (d) A.P.
3. The 3-R approach advocating minimization of resource uses are ……
(a) Reduce, Recall, Recycle
(b) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
(c) Repair, Reduce, Recycle
(d) Regenerate, Recall, Reuse

4. Any system can sustain a limited number of organisms on a long term basis, which is
known as its ……
(a) Buying capacity (b) Current capacity
(c) Carrying capacity (d) Cash capacity

5. Carrying capacity has two basic components. One is supporting capacity and other is
……
(a) Non-supporting capacity
(b) Special capacity
(c) Assimilative capacity
(d) Cash capacity

6. The National council of environmental planning and coordination was set up in ……

(a) 1952 (b) 1953
(c) 1972 (d) 1974

7. The annual average rainfall in India is ……

(a) 1200 mm (b) 1600 mm
(c) 2100 mm (d) 1400 mm

8. …… has been doing a good job for harvesting rain water by building check dam in
Rajasthan.
(a) Rajendra Singh (b) Ashok Singh
(c) Naidu (d) A. P. Prasad

9. Mr. …… from Rajasthan has been awarded by Magsaysay Award for his contribution
in Rain water harvesting.
(a) Ashok Prasad (b) Rajendra Singh
(c) P. Sandhu (d) A. P. Kadam

10. Sardar sarovar project of dams is on ……

(a) Ganga river (b) Narmada river
(c) Kali river (d) Yamuna river

11. IPCC stands for ……

(a) Intergovernmental Panel on climate change.
(b) International panel on climate change.
(c) Intergovernmental policies of climate change.
(d) International policies of climate protection.
12. The most lower layer of the atmosphere is called as ……
(a) Troposphere (b) Nano-sphere
(c) Ozone-sphere (d) Nitro-sphere

13. Chlorofluorocarbons denoted by ……

(a) CFCs (b) CLCs
(c) CFLs (d) CFFCs

14. Rain water is converted into acidic rain when its pH falls below ……
(a) 1.6 (b) 2.6
(c) 3.6 (d) 5.6

15. Clean or natural rain water has a pH of …… at 20°C.

(a) 1.6 (b) 2.6
(c) 3.6 (d) 5.6

16. The …… lake located in the state of New York are known to receive acid rain.
(a) Adrrondack (b) Dal
(c) Riskon (d) Aspiron

17. Generally sulphuric acid forms a major fraction of ……

(a) Global warming (b) Acid rain
(c) Flood (d) Wind development

18. In India at this place acid rain is recorded.

(a) Kodaikanal (b) Delhi
(c) Mumbai (d) Yavatmal

19.  The natural sunscreen in the stratosphere is called as ……

(a) Oxygen layer (b) Hydrogen layer
(c) Ozone layer (d) Sulphur layer
20.  Ozone is form of ……
(a) Oxygen (b) Hydrogen
(c) Cl (d) Pl
21.  The molecule of oxygen contains two atoms whereas that of ozone contains ……
(a) one (b) three
(c) four (d) none of these
22.  In the stratosphere ozone is continuously being created by the absorption of short
wavelength ……
(a) Ultraviolet (b) Superultra
(c) Nevalitra (d) Blue rays
23.  The amount of atmospheric ozone is measured by ……
(a) Wilson spectrometer (b) Rockson spectrometer
(c) Ultra-spectrometer (d) Dobson-spectrometer
24.  The amount of atmospheric ozone is measured in ……
(a) Pixson unit (b) Ultra unit
(c) Dobson unit (d) Ultra-v-unit
25.  1 DU is equivalent to a …… mm thickness of pure ozone.
(a) 1 (b) 10
(c) 0.01 (d) 100
26.  The Antarctic ozone hole was discovered by ……
(a) Dr. A. S. Bose (b) Dr. Joe C. Farman
(c) Dr. A. L. Kaise (d) Dr. P. R. Narayan
27.  For the ozone depletion in the stratosphere …… are mainly responsible.
(a) O₂ (b) CO₂
(c) Acid rain (d) CFCs
28.  CFCs are a group of synthetic chemical and it is first discovered by ……
(a) Thomas Midgley (b) N. K. Bose
(c) P. W. Wrinker (d) N. S. Rao
29.  …… are used as coolants in refrigerators and air conditions.
(a) CFCs (b) O₃
(c) O₂ + O₃ (d) CFCFCs
30.  Due to nuclear explosion, a phenomenon opposite to Global warming occur, is
called as ……
(a) Nuclear summer (b) Nuclear rain
(c) Nuclear winter (d) Acid winter
31.  The Chernobyl nuclear accidents, has resulted in widespread contamination by
……
(a) Radioactive (b) Acid molecule
(c) Wind effect (d) Deforestation
32.  In the nuclear holocaust in Japan 1945, two nuclear bombs were dropped on
Hiroshima and ……
(a) Wagsaki (b) Nagasaki
(c) Ragasaki (d) Tokyo
33.  The large scale destruction of human lives by fire is called as ……
(a) fire killing (b) holocaust
(c) monocide (d) homicide
34.  …… is the first country in the world to have made provisions for protection and
conservation of environment in its constitution.
(a) India (b) Japan
(c) U.S. (d) New Zealand
35.  5th June is celebrated as ……
(a) World forest day
(b) World environment day
(c) World water day
(d) World oil day
36.  In the article …… in the constitution recognizes environmental protection as one
of the fundamental duties of every citizen of India.
(a) Article 42 (b) Article 48A
(c) Article 51A (g) (d) Article 57A (g)
37.  The Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act was enforced in ……
(a) 1951 (b) 1961
(c) 1971 (d) 1981
38.  Noise pollution has been inserted in the Air (prevention and control of pollution)
Act in ……
 (a) 1987 (b) 1977
(c) 1967 (d) 1957
39.  In the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act 1981, section 20 of the Act is
for ……
(a) Provision for ensuring emission standards from automobiles.
(b) Provision for ensuring air pollution control area.
(c) Provision for ensuring industrial emissions.
(d) None of these.
40.  As per section 19 of the Air (prevention and control of pollution) Act, the state
government may declare ……
(a) air pollution control area.
(b) stake height for emissions.
(c) emissions from vehicles.
(d) none of these.

41. CPCB stands for ........

(a) Central Pollution Control Board

(b) Central Population Control Board

(c) Central Pollution Cences Board

(d) None of these

42. Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act, enforced in ........

(a) 1964

(b) 1974

(c) 1986

(d) 1994

43. The Environment (protection) Act came into force on ........

(a) 1st November 1986

(b) 19th November 1986

(c) 20th November 1999

(d) 19th November 1996

44. The Environment (protection) Act, 1986, on November 19. The November 19 is birth
anniversary of our late Prime Minister

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c) Indira Gandhi

(d) Morarji Desai

45. Wildlife (protection) Act came into force in the year ........

(a) 1972

(b) 1982

(c) 1992

(d) 1942

46. In 1800, the population on Earth was about ........

(a) 4 billion

(b) 3 billion

(c) 45 billion

(d) 1 billion

47. The present world population has just crossed ........

(a) 6 billion

(b) 11 billion

(c) 14 billion

(d) 89 billion
48. The time needed for a population to double its size at constant annual rate is known
as ........

(a) Population time

(b) Reverse population time

(c) Doubling time

(d) Reciprocating time

49. If r is the annual growth rate, then doubling time (TD) = ........

(a) r/70

(b) 70/r

(c) r + r/70

(d) r²/70

50. If a nation has 2% annual growth rate, its population will double in ........

(a) 25 years

(b) 15 years

(c) 100 years

(d) 35 years

51. Bell shaped pyramid structure of population occurs in ........

(a) India

(b) France

(c) Nigeria
(d) Ethiopia

52. Pyramid shaped structure of population occurs in ........

(a) India

(b) USA

(c) France

(d) Canada

53. Urn shaped structure of population occurs in ........

(a) Germany

(b) India

(c) Ethiopia

(d) Nigeria

54. United Nations decade for women had been during ........

(a) 1985-1995

(b) 1975-1985

(c) 1915-1925

(d) 1970-1980

55. HIV stands for ........

(a) Human Immunodeficiency Virus

(b) Health Immunodeficiency Virus

(c) Human Identification Virus

(d) None of these

56. AIDS stands for ........

(a) Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

(b) Applied Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

(c) Acquired Immuno Deficiency System

(d) None of these

57. In AIDS there is a decline in ........ which are the key fighters in the immune system.

(a) S-cells

(b) P-cells

(c) T-cells

(d) Y-cells

58. ........ has the lowest birth rates among all the States in India.

(a) Punjab

(b) Maharashtra

(c) UP

(d) Kerala

59. The ........ Amendment of India constitution is for environmental protection.

(a) 40

(b) 30

(c) 42
(d) 52

60. In 42nd Amendment for environmental protection Article no is ........

(a) 40-A

(b) 48-A

(c) 50-A

(d) 59-C

61. CPCB stands for ........

(a) Central Pollution Control Board

(b) Central Pollution Control Body

(c) Central Population Control Board

(d) Central Prevention Control Board

62. SPCB stands for ........

(a) State Pollution Control Board

(b) Special Pollution Control Board

(c) State Pollution Control Body

(d) None of these

63. NGO stands for ........

(a) Non-Governmental Organisation

(b) Non-Governmental Office

(c) Non-Group Organisation

(d) None of these

64. WWF (a international environmental organization) stands for ........

(a) Worldwide Funds for Nature

(b) Worldwide Focus for Nature

(c) Worldwide Funds for Nation

(d) None of these

65. ........ is an environment friendly international organization, which aims in promoting

environmental awareness.

(a) Greenpeace

(b) India Ink

(c) Grassland

(d) Red peace

66. In order to stop commercial whaling, ........ is working on many fronts.

(a) India Ink

(b) Green peace

(c) Red peace

(d) Road map

67. The co-ordinating body of WWF International is located at gland in ........

(a) India

(b) America

(c) Canada

(d) Switzerland
68. The promotion of nature conservation and environmental protection as the basis for
sustainable and equitable development is the mission of ........

(a) WWF-India

(b) Greenpeace

(c) Red India

(d) Blue India

69. BNHS stands for ........

(a) Bombay Natural History Society

(b) Bombay Nature History System

(c) Big Natural History Society

(d) British Natural History Society

70. Bombay Natural History society was founded in ........

(a) 1983

(b) 1883

(c) 1919

(d) 1183

71. Development alternative group based in ........ works in all parts of the country.

(a) Delhi

(b) Mumbai

(c) Nagpur
(d) Kanpur

72. Development alternative group was established in ........

(a) 1980

(b) 1812

(c) 1983

(d) 1998

73. The Energy Research Institute (TERI) established the TERI university in ........

(a) 1998

(b) 1898

(c) 1990

(d) 1298

74. The concept of sustainable development is often broken out into three constituent parts;
environmental sustainability, economical sustainability and ........ sustainability.

(a) physical

(b) social

(c) non-physical

(d) chemical

75. CRZ stands for ........

(a) Coastal Regulation Zone

(b) Coroal Regulation Zone

(c) Coastal Rapid Zone

(d) Coastal Reputed Zone

76. If mining lease area is greater than 50 ha, the project falls in ........ category.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

77. If mining lease area is less than 50 ha then project falls in ........ category.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

78. Nuclear power projects and processing of nuclear fuel all fall in ........ category
irrespective of size and extent.

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

79. There are ........ types of CRZ.

(a) one
(b) two

(c) three

(d) four

80. Mangroves, sand dunes, mud flats, come in ........

(a) CRZ-I

(b) CRZ-II

(c) CRZ-III

(d) CRZ-IV

81. The forest (conservation) act came into force with effect from October 25, ........

(a) 1960

(b) 1970

(c) 1980

(d) 1990

82. GEAC stands for ........

(a) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee

(b) General Engineering Approval Committee

(c) General Engineering Approval Company

(d) None of these

83. The purpose of the Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) is defined in Article 12 of
the ........ protocol to the United Nations Framework conservation on climate change.

(a) Kyoto
(b) Canada

(c) Mumbai

(d) Tokyo

84. Scientists like ........ and environmentalists who led philosophers to consider the
philosophical aspect of environmental problems.

(a) Rachel Carson

(b) Newton

(c) Homi Bhaba

(d) Carls Luis

85. Conscious collection and storage of rainwater to cater to demands of water, for drinking,
domestic purpose or irrigation is termed as ........

(a) Rainwater harvesting

(b) Water source

(c) Water pollution

(d) Water pollution

86. The state government of Maharashtra has made rules for construction of residential
buildings that are being constructed on plots that are more than ........ sq. m in size.

(a) 500

(b) 1000

(c) 2000

(d) 4000
87. ........ are the microscopic pores on the underside of the leaf.

(a) Stomata

(b) Billirubin

(c) Green-dots

(d) Green pores

88. ........ allow the plant leaves take in carbon dioxide and lets out oxygen.

(a) Green dots

(b) Stomata

(c) Green buds

(d) Billirubin

89. Renewable energy provides ........ % of electricity generation worldwide.

(a) 10

(b) 28

(c) 19

(d) 81

90. Renewable sources used for power generation are only about ........ % in India.

(a) 10

(b) 91

(c) 12

(d) 1
91. ........ is one of the options thought by many minds for producing bio-fuels.

(a) Jatropha

(b) Bajari

(c) Rice

(d) Wheat

92. NWDA stands for ........

(a) National Water Development Agency

(b) Natural Water Development Agency

(c) National Work Development Agency

(d) National Work Department Agency

93. The average rainfall in India is about ........ billion cubic metres.

(a) 1000

(b) 2000

(c) 3000

(d) 4000

94. Interlinking of river project has been split in ........ parts.

(a) one

(b) two

(c) three

(d) four
95. Environmental information system (ENVIS) has its headquarters in ........

(a) Mumbai

(b) Delhi

(c) Nagpur

(d) Indore

96. GIS stands for ........

(a) Geographical Information System

(b) General Information System

(c) General Impact System

(d) General Information School

97. Solar ........ technique is used to convert salt water to fresh water.

(a) desalination

(b) salination

(c) power

(d) de-odour

98. Green architecture is also known as ........ architecture.

(a) sustainable

(b) global

(c) natural

(d) ECO
99. This is one of the principle of green architecture.

(a) Good agriculture

(b) Global warming

(c) Indoor air quality

(d) Cattle conservation

100. Solar panels are photo ........ cells that generate electricity from sunlight.

(a) electrical

(b) electronic

(c) plastic

(d) voltaic

101. Vertical farming is also known as ........

(a) great farming

(b) global farming

(c) indoor farming

(d) E-farming

102. ........ technique is used in vertical farming.

(a) Hydroponics

(b) E-watering

(c) Delta method

(d) Beta method

103. Nutrient Film Technique (NFT) is used in ........ farming.

(a) E

(b) Global

(c) Composting

(d) Vertical

104. NFT and EBB and Flow methods are used for ...... farming.

(a) Global

(b) Composting

(c) Vertical

(d) Hill and Clief

105. ...... is the technique in which plants grow in the air, with their roots suspended in a
nutrient rich mist.

(a) Aeroponics

(b) E-solution

(c) Air

(d) Solar water

106. BEV and PHEV are the types of ......

(a) Vertical farming

(b) Horizontal farming

(c) Watering to plants

(d) Electrical vehicles

107. Plant based packaging is also known as ...... packaging.

(a) chemical

(b) non-chemical

(c) Bio

(d) global

3rd chapter

(A) MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. The species with thin population localised within restricted area is said to be …….
(a) Rare
(b) Threatened
(c) Endangered
(d) Vulnerable

2. The reason for certain animals getting endangered are …….

(a) Hunting
(b) Pollution of environment
(c) Natural calamities
(d) all of these

3. The Red Data Book maintains a record of the …….

(a) Plants and animals present in the world.
(b) Relationship between man and biosphere.
(c) Plants and animals which are known to be endangered.
(d) Forest wealth in the whole world.

4. Planting trees in a deforested land is known as …….

(a) Afforestation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Silviculture
(d) Sericulture

5. In a national park protection is given to …….

(a) The entire flora
 (b) The entire fauna
(c) The entire animals
(d) The entire ecosystem

6. The most endangered animal of the following is …….

(a) Parrot
(b) Cock
(c) Red jungle fowl
(d) None

7. The phenomenon of the entry of toxic chemicals into the food chains and more
concentrated at higher trophic levels is called …….
(a) Biological control
(b) biomagnification
(c) Algal bloom
(d) Red tide

8. The tropical forests in India are located at …….

(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Andamans
(d) Orissa

9. Bharatpur bird sanctuary is situated in …….

(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan

10. Autumn colouration of leaves appears only in …….

(a) Tropical regions
(b) Evergreen plants
(c) Deserts
(d) Temperate deciduous plants

11. MAB programme stands for …….

(a) Man and biotechnology
(b) Man and biochemistry
(c) Man and bioethnology
(d) Man and biosphere

12. The 1st Biosphere reserve in the world was …….

(a) Nilgiri, India
(b) Paris, France
 (c) Vienna, Austria
(d) New York, USA

13. How many bio-geographical regions are present in India?

(a) 7
(b) 10

14. Lime is added to the soil which is …….

(a) Sandy
(b) Salty
(c) Alkaline
(d) Acidic

15. Which one of the following has maximum genetic diversity in India?
(a) Tea
(b) Mango
(c) Wheat
(d) Rice

16. Which one of the following areas in India, is a hotspot of biodiversity?

(a) Sunderbans
(b) Western Ghats
(c) Eastern Ghats
(d) Gangetic Plain

17. Darwin's finches are a good example of …….

(a) Convergent evolution
(b) Industrial melanism
(c) Connecting link
(d) Adaptive radiation

18. The least porous soil among the following is …….

(a) Loamy soil
(b) Silty soil
(c) Clayey soil
(d) Sandy soil

19. Which one of the following is not a renewable, exhaustible natural resource?
(a) Aquatic animals
(b) Wild life
(c) Soil fertility
(d) Minerals

20. Which one of the following is an example of ex-situ conservation?

(a) National park
 (b) Wildlife sanctuary
(c) Seed banks
(d) Sacred groves

21. Which one of the following is not observed in biodiversity hotspots?

(a) Species richness
(b) Endemism
(c) Accelerated species loss
(d) Lesser inter-specific competition

22. Sacred groves are specially useful in …….

(a) Generating environmental awareness
(b) Preventing soil erosion
(c) Conserving rare and threatened species
(d) Reducing pollution

23. The term Alpha diversity refers to …….

(a) Community diversity
(b) Genetic diversity
(c) Community ecosystem diversity
(d) Diversity among the plants

24. The states of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a high number of endangered species
because of …….
(a) Very high forest cover in these regions
(b) Overgrazing and habitat destruction
(c) Large scale plantation of BT cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity
(d) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism

25. Select the correct statement about biodiversity —

(a) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a very high level of animal species
as compared to the other areas.
(b) Large scale planting of BT cotton has no adverse effect on biodiversity.
(c) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species richness and endemism.
(d) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued by the developed countries.

26. Biodiversity of a geographical region represents …….

(a) Genetic diversity present in the dominant species of the region.
(b) Endangered species found in the region.
(c) The diversity in the organisms living in the region.
(d) Endemic species found in the region.

27. Global warming can be controlled by …….

(a) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil fuel.
(b) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of fossil fuel.
 (c) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the growth of human population.
(d) Increasing deforestation, increasing consumption of energy resources.

28. Which one of the following is not used for ex situ plant conservation?
(a) Field gene banks
(b) Seed banks
(c) Shifting cultivation
(d) Botanical Garden

1. Which of the following represent maximum number of species among global

biodiversity?
(a) Algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Mosses and Ferns
(d) Insects

2. Prolonged liberal irrigation of agricultural fields is likely to create the problem of

(a) Aridity
(b) Metal toxicity
(c) Salinity
(d) Acidity

3. The greatest problem of water conservation is to reduce the amount of

(a) Precipitation
(b) Run-off water
(c) Groundwater
(d) Evaporation

4. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group :

(a) Monera
(b) Plantae
(c) Fungi
(d) Animalia

5. Which one of the following is not included under in-situ conservation?

(a) National park
(b) Wild life sanctuary
(c) Zoological garden
(d) Biosphere reserve

6. Which one of the following agencies/organisations is the famous acronyms is

correct?
(a) IUCN = International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.
(b) IPCC = International Panel for Climate Change.
 (c) UNEP = United Nations Environmental Policy.
(d) EPA = Environmental Pollution Agency.

7. Conservation includes
(a) Maintaining the ecological process.
(b) To enrich the wildlife diversity with exotic species.
(c) Preventing migration of birds.
(d) The correct statements are …
(i) (ii)
(ii) (iii)
(iii) (i), (ii)
(iv) (i), (ii), (iii)

8. Plants like Aegle marmelos, Ocimum sanctum and Ficus religiosa are a group of
plants designated as …
(a) Traditional food crops
(b) Sacred species of plants
(c) Medicinal plant species
(d) Lesser known food plants

9. -1°C to 13°C annual variations in the intensity and 50 to 250 cm annual duration of
temperature and precipitation, account for the formation of major biome as …
(a) Tropical forest
(b) Coniferous forest
(c) Temperate forest
(d) Grassland

10. Sacred groves are specially useful in ….

(a) Generating environmental awareness.
(b) Preventing soil erosion.
(c) Year-round flow of water in rivers.
(d) Conserving rare and threatened species.

11. Some of the nutrient cycles are labelled as below —

(i) Sulphur cycle
(ii) Phosphorus cycle
(iii) Carbon cycle and
(iv) Nitrogen cycle
Of these, the sedimentary cycle is represented by
(a) (i) only
(b) (ii) only
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iv) only
 12. Study the four statements (i-iv) given below and select the two correct ones out of
them.
A lion eating a deer and a sparrow feeding on grain are ecologically similar in being
consumers.
Predator star fish Pisaster helps in maintaining species diversity of some
invertebrates.
Presence of plants and animals which are endemic to an area is not affected by
deforestation.
Destruction of mangroves leads to less availability of spawning and nursery grounds
for marine fishes.

(a) (i) and (ii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

41. Which one of the following countries has the highest biodiversity?
(a) Brazil
(b) South Africa
(c) India
(d) Russia

42. Which of the following is not a cause for loss of biodiversity?

(a) Destruction of habitat.
(b) Invasion by alien species.
(c) Keeping animals in zoological parks.
(d) Over-exploitation of natural resources.

43. Which of the following is not an invasive alien species in the Indian context?
(a) Lantana
(b) Cynodon
(c) Parthenium
(d) Eichhornia

44. Where among the following will you find pitcher plant?
(a) Rain forest of North-East India.
(b) Sunderbans.
(c) Thar Desert.
(d) Western Ghats.

Environmental Education and Sustainability

3.20

Ecosystem and Biodiversity

 65. The edge effect ….. the amount of habitat typical to an ecosystem
(a) Increases
(b) Reduces
(c) keeps same
(d) None

66. Eutrophication is caused by runoff containing nutrients that does what to kill fish in a
lake?
(a) Algae overproduce and die; bacteria use up all the oxygen so fish die.
(b) Algae overproduce and crowd out fish and other species.
(c) Fish overproduce and eat all possible sources of food then starve.
(d) Algae overproduce oxygen, which is toxic to fish in high quantities.

67. Humans have introduced alien species into the environment in all these ways except
…
(a) genetic engineering
(b) human colonization
(c) horticulture and agriculture
(d) accidental transport

68. What percentage of coral reefs have already been destroyed?

(a) 10%
(b) 25%
(c) 50%
(d) 100%

69. What activity does not constitute habitat loss?

(a) Highway construction.
(b) Forest fragmentation as new towns are built.
(c) Converting wetland into housing areas.
(d) Crop rotation.

70. Which of these is not an indirect value of biodiversity?

(a) Run-off from natural ecosystems pollutes sources of fresh water
(b) Regulation of the climate
(c) Prevention of soil erosion
(d) Participation in biogeochemical cycles

71. Why is biodiversity valuable and desirable to humans?

(a) It provides subsistence living
(b) It has potential for future use
(c) It maintains ecological diversity.
(d) All of these.

(B) ADDITIONAL OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS:

1. The study of ecosystems is called …
(a) Food chain
(b) Ecology
(c) Food web
(d) None

2. The term Ecology was given by …… in 1869.

(a) Earnest Haeckel
(b) Newtons
(c) S. W. Flemig
(d) S. D. Lal

3. Photosynthesis is also known as …

(a) photo cistsis
(b) photo-crysis
(c) photo synthesis
(d) None

4. The sequence of eating and being eaten in an ecosystem is known as …

(a) Food supply
(b) Food constant
(c) Food web
(d) Food chain

5. Grass → Rabbit → Fox is an example of

(a) Grazing food chain
(b) Food chain
(c) detritous food chain
(d) animal food chain

6. Grazing food chain derives energy from …

(a) Dead and decaying matter
(b) Green plants
(c) animals
(d) fish

7. The grazing food chain begins with

(a) grazing-auto food chain
(b) detritous food chain
(c) animal food chain
(d) auto food chain

8. The main ecological balance and regulate the population size of different animals is
useful.
(a) Sun chain
 (b) Wind chain
(c) Food chain
(d) Grass chain

9. Food web is a network of …

(a) food web
(b) food chains
(c) food balance
(d) food supply and demand

10. Number of options of eating and being eaten at each trophic level is available in ……
(a) food chain
(b) Food web
(c) solar chain
(d) cosmos web

11. Ecological pyramids are of three types. One is pyramid of numbers, second is pyramid
of biomass and third is pyramid of ……
(a) sun
(b) wind
(c) water
(d) energy

12. The most important feature of energy flow in an ecosystem is that it is ……

(a) one way flow
(b) two way flow
(c) no directional
(d) multi directional

13. The flow of energy follows the two laws of ……

(a) kinetics
(b) kinematics
(c) statistics
(d) thermodynamics

14. Energy flow through an ecosystem was explained by ……

(a) E. P. Odum
(b) E. P. Rax
(c) E. P. Watson
(d) None of these

15. Double channel energy flow model is also called as ……

(a) X-shaped energy flow model.
(b) Y-shaped energy flow model.
 (c) Pie shaped energy flow model.
(d) A shaped energy flow model.

16. About 45% of our land area is covered by ……

(a) water
(b) grassland
(c) deserts
(d) forest

17. Dal lake is situated in ……

(a) Srinagar
(b) Delhi
(c) Jaipur
(d) Nagpur

18. Fishes are the examples of …… organisms

(a) Nektons
(b) Benthos
(c) Periphytons
(d) None of these

19. Herbivores means ……

(a) plant eaters
(b) meat eaters
(c) both plant and meat eaters
(d) none of these

20. Herbivores are also called as ……

(a) primary consumers
(b) secondary consumers
(c) tertiary consumers
(d) none of these

21. The organisms who feed directly on producers are called ……

(a) carnivores
(b) herbivores
(c) omnivores
(d) none of these

22. Carnivores means ……

(a) plant eaters
(b) meat eaters
(c) fish eaters
(d) none of these
23. Carnivores are also called as ……
(a) primary consumers
(b) secondary consumers
(c) tertiary consumers
(d) omnivores

24. Pyramid of energy is always upright.

(a) forest
(b) biomass
(c) forest
(d) mass

25. Movement of nutrients in an ecosystem is cyclic, while flow of energy is ……

(a) unidirectional
(b) two directional
(c) Y and Z directional
(d) None of these

26. The process which fed on dead organic matter is called ……

(a) zooplanktons
(b) organisms which feed on dead organisms, wastes of animals and plants are called
……
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores

27. The progressive accumulation of some non-biodegradable chemicals through food

chain is known as ……
(a) Biological balance
(b) Biological infection
(c) Biological magnification
(d) Bio-degradation

28. The diversity of genes, species and ecosystem is ……

(a) Bio-society
(b) Bio-diversity
(c) Neo-technology
(d) Bio-physics

29. Approximately how much % of the known species are insects?

(a) 31
(b) 21
(c) 71
(d) 61
 30. Only …… species of mammals are known to science.
(a) 4650
(b) 2760
(c) 2100
(d) 4100

31. The land in India is a ……

(a) desert
(b) sea
(c) river
(d) muddy land

32. Chilka lake is in ……

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Orissa
(d) U.P

33. * The biological diversity include three hierarchial leaves (1) genetic diversity, (2)
species diversity and third is ...

(a) community and ecosystem diversity.

(b) animal and plant diversity.

(c) local diversity.

(d) mollusks diversity.

34. * The genetic variation existing within a species is called ...

(a) genetic diversity (b) local animal diversity

(c) species diversity (d) ecosystem diversity

35. * ... plays a key role in the maintenance of diversity at species and community level.

(a) Speciation (b) Species richness

(c) Roll of species in land (d) Evenness of species

36. * The evolution of new species is called as

(a) ciation (b) mutation

(c) mitigation (d) speciation

37. * The species diversity of a region is measured on the basis of two parameters one
is evenness and other is ...

(a) species richness (b) equitability

 (c) odness (d) speciation

38. * The number of species per unit area is known as ....

(a) evenness (b) equitability of species

(c) species richness (d) speciation

39. * There are three perspectives of the diversity at the level of community. There are
(a) alpha diversity, (b) beta diversity and (c) ......... diversity.

(a) sigma (b) zeta

(c) gamma (d) magma

40. * The diversity within the community is involves in ........

(a) sigma diversity (b) beta diversity

(c) gamma diversity (d) alpha diversity

41. * Diversity between the communities is refers in ........

(a) sigma diversity (b) beta diversity

(c) gamma diversity (d) alpha diversity

42. * ...... refers to the diversity of the habitats over the total landscape or geographical
area.

(a) Beta diversity (b) Alpha diversity

(c) Gamma diversity (d) Sigma diversity

43. * Species determining the ability of large number of other species to persist in the
community is called as .......

(a) keystone species (b) alpha species

(c) grass species (d) variant species

44. Ecosystem and Biodiversity About .......... % of the Indian landmass is occupied by
Deccan peninsula.

(a) 25 (b) 35

(c) 42 (d) 61

45. * About 42% of the Indian landmass is occupied by ........

(a) Deccan peninsula (b) Thar desert

(c) Sea (d) Grassland

46. * The species which are confined to a particular country is called ..........

(a) Magnified species (b) Definite species

(c) De-magnified species (d) Endemic species

47. * Plant based synthetic products are called as .......

(a) botanochemicals (b) biochemicals

(c) bio-dio-chemicals (d) oxichemicals

48. * Morphine is a ....... use of biodiversity.

(a) Chemical (b) Physical

(c) Medicinal (d) Mechanical

49. * Quinine, the drug is used for treatment of ......... is an

example of benefits of biodiversity.

(a) Bone - T.B. (b) Cancer

(c) Colora (d) Malaria

50. * The name of largest flying bird of today is .......

(a) California condor (b) Mango bird

(c) Eagel-sofara (d) Eagel-sky-suffer

51. * New species entering a geographical region are called ....... species.

(a) Exotic (b) Extic

(c) Toxic (d) Exto exotic

52. * Exotic species are also called as .......

(a) Extra species (b) Modular species

(c) Aline species (d) Modern species

53. * Killing of prohibited wild animals for illegal trading of wildlife products is
called ......

(a) Morching (b) Kill-killing

(c) Poaching (d) Cross-killing

54. * There are two basic strategies of biodiversity conservation, on is one site and
other is .......

(a) over site (b) off site

 (c) reverse site (d) protection site

55. * In-situ conservation of biodiversity is also called as .......

(a) off site (b) ex-situ (c) over site (d) global site

Environmental Education and Sustainability

3.23
Ecosystem and Biodiversity

57. WCMC stands for ……

(a) World Conservation Monitoring Centre
(b) Wild Conservation Monitoring Centre
(c) World Control Monitoring Centre
(d) World Conservation Management Centre

58. The ‘Yellow-stone National Park’ is in U.S.A.

(a) Yellowstone
(b) Yellow-centre
(c) Yellow-stone
(d) None of these

59. First National park named in India is ……

(a) Yellowstone
(b) Rydal
(c) Jim Corbett National Park
(d) Sidney

60. The Jim Corbett National Park is in ……

(a) Mumbai
(b) Nagpur
(c) Delhi
(d) Nainital

61. First National Park established in India is ……

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Park
(b) Salim Ali National Park
(c) Dr. Bose National Park
(d) Jim Corbett National Park

62. National park is an example of …… conservation strategies of biodiversity.

(a) in-situ
(b) ex-situ
 (c) protection of wild life
(d) protection of wild life diversity

63. Wild life sanctuaries is an example of …… conservation strategies of bio-diversity.

(a) in-situ
(b) ex-situ
(c) in-situ
(d) reverse off situ

64. Kaziranga National park is in ……

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Bihar
(c) Assam
(d) Delhi

65. Corbett National Park is in ……

(a) Uttaranchal
(b) Delhi
(c) Hariyana
(d) Punjab

66. National park is in ……

(a) Maharashtra
(b) Goa
(c) Gujarat
(d) M.P.

67. Tadoba National park is in ……

(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) M.P.
(d) U.P.

68. The …… are a special category of protected areas of land and coastal environments,
where people are an integral component of the system.
(a) Biosphere reserves
(b) National park
(c) Sanctuaries
(d) None of these

69. At present, there are …… biosphere reserves in India.

(a) 3
(b) 24
(c) 7
(d) 12
70. The biosphere reserve consists of …… zones.
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 5

71. The biosphere reserve consists of three zones (1) core, (2) buffer and (3) ……
(a) semi-core
(b) semi-core
(c) transparent
(d) transition

72. …… lake in Sikkim has been declared sacred by the people to save aquatic life from
degradation.
(a) Nal
(b) Zorich
(c) Chilka
(d) None

73. Germ plasm banks or gene banks are established for …… conservation of biodiversity.
(a) ex-situ
(b) ex-situ
(c) in-situ
(d) none of these

74. Storage of germ-plasm at ultra low temperature is called ……

(a) cryopreservation
(b) preservation-germ
(c) germ-pre
(d) none of these

75. In cryopreservation, storage of germplasm at ultra low temperature is preserved.

That ultra low temperature is ……
(a) –196°C in liquid nitrogen
(b) –176°C in liquid nitrogen
(c) 0°C in liquid nitrogen
(d) 196°C in liquid nitrogen

76. The book list containing a record of threatened species is called ……

(a) yellow data book
(b) red data book
(c) orange data book
(d) wild data book
77. Ecosystem is generally defined as the assemblage of …… interacting with each other.
(a) biotic community
(b) abiotic community
(c) complex community
(d) total community

78.  Convention of Biological Diversity (CBD) signed by …… nations.

(a) 100
(b) 400
(c) 150
(d) 200
79.  Terrestrial ecosystem is called ……
(a) Aquatic ecosystem
(b) Non-terrestrial
(c) Terrestrial ecosystem
(d) Physical
80.  Open oceans is an example of …… ecosystem.
(a) Aquatic
(b) Non-aquatic
(c) Terrestrial
(d) Earthen
81.  The relationship between the biotic components and abiotic components of an
ecosystem is called ……
(a) cosmos
(b) non-colonics
(c) holocoenosis
(d) cosmos
82.  Sunlight is necessary for ……
(a) carbon credit
(b) water pollution
(c) air pollution
(d) photosynthesis
83.  …… is the medium by which mineral nutrients enter and due translocated in
plants.
(a) Water
(b) pH
(c) CO₂ + SO₂
(d) Carbon
84.  …… are the living organisms in the ecosystem that take energy from sunlight and
use it to transform carbon dioxide and oxygen in sugars.
(a) Producers
(b) Non-producers
(c) Biotic + SO₂
(d) Abiotic
85.  Plant, algae and photosynthetic bacteria are all examples of ……
(a) producers
(b) abiotic
(c) non-biotic
(d) non-consumers
86.  The green plants manufacturer their own food, they are known as ……
(a) consumers
(b) non-consumers
(c) autotrophs
(d) none of these
87.  …… are living organisms in the ecosystem that get their energy from consuming
other organisms.
(a) Consumers
(b) Non-consumers
(c) Non-biotic
(d) Abiotic
88.  Herbivores eat ……
(a) producers
(b) non-producers
(c) non-biotic
(d) non-biotic things
89.  Herbivores eat ……
(a) producers
(b) abiotic
(c) non-biotic things
(d) non-consumers
90.  Herbivores eat both producers and animals.
(a) Omnivores
(b) Herbivores
(c) Carnivores
(d) Omnivores
91.  Rabbit, deer, goat, cattle etc are the examples of ……
(a) non-herbivores
(b) ecosystem
(c) herbivores
(d) non-biotic
92.  Lions and tigers are the examples of ……
(a) consumers
(b) non-producers
(c) producers
(d) reducers
93.  Omnivores are the example of ……
(a) omnivores
(b) reducers
(c) consumers
(d) decomposers
94.  The decomposers are known as ……
(a) non-saprotrophs
(b) saprotrophs
(c) semian
(d) reducers
95.  …… are living component of ecosystem that breaks down waste material and dead
organisms.
(a) Decomposers
(b) Non-decomposers
 (c) Omnivores
(d) Non-omnivores
96.  There are …… levels of biodiversity.
(a) three
(b) four
(c) five
(d) one
97.  …… diversity refers to the diversity of organisms sharing the same
community/habitat.
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Alpha + Beta
98.  The rate of replacement of species along a gradient of habitats or communities is
called …… diversity.
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Alpha + Beta
99.  Diversity of habitats over a total landscape or geographical area is called ……
diversity.
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Alpha + Beta
100.  Use value that consist of direct value, indirect value and …… values.
(a) option
(b) beta
(c) alpha
(d) non-option
101.  Non-use value that consists of bequest value and …… value.
(a) existence
(b) non-existence
(c) alpha
(d) beta
102.  India is known for its rich heritage of biological diversity, having already
documented over …… species of animals.
(a) 9100
(b) 91
(c) 91000
(d) 91
103.  India is known for its rich heritage of biological diversity, having already
documented over …… species of plants in its ten bio-geographic region.
(a) 50000
(b) 90000
(c) 1500
(d) 500
104.  LMMC stands for ……
(a) Lake Minded Megadiverse Countries
(b) Life Minded Megadiverse Countries
 (c) Like Minded Megadiverse Countries
(d) Like Minded Major Countries
105.  India was invited to their like minded Megadiverse countries for …… days.
(a) 2
(b) 10
(c) 4
(d) 1
106.  CBD stands for ……
(a) Conservation on Biological Diversity
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity
(c) Convention in Biological Diversity
(d) Convention on Bigger Diversity
107.  The Union Ministry of Environment and Forest (MOEF) is the nodal
agency for implementing provisions …… in India.
(a) ABCD
(b) CBDC
(c) CBDD
(d) CBD
108.  …… is defined as any species which is likely to become an endangered
species within the foreseeable future throughout all or a significant portion of its
range.
(a) Threatened
(b) Relative species
(c) Rare species
(d) Absolute species
109.  …… species is a species of organisms facing a very high risk of extinction.
(a) Endemic
(b) rare
(c) pure
(d) all these
110.  A …… species is a group of organisms that are very uncommon or scarce.
(a) rare
(b) all
(c) pure
(d) threatened
111.  …… species can be threatened with extinction through the process of
genetic pollution.
(a) Endemic
(b) Pure
(c) Threatened
(d) Rare
112.  …… occurs when a resource is consumed at an unsustainable rate.
(a) Pure soil
(b) Poor soil
(c) Good soil
(d) Threatened
113.  Biodiversity is the collection of flora and …… of a place.
(a) bacteria
(b) plants
 (c) fauna
(d) flora
114.  A region which is a prime location for the existence of rich biodiversity but
also faces the threat of destruction is called ……
(a) Biodiversity hotspot
(b) Local hotspot
(c) Eco-hotspot
(d) National hotspot
115.  How many biodiversity hotspots have been recognized globally?
(a) 55
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 65
116.  India is a country …… very poor in biodiversity.
(a) average
(b) very poor
(c) poor
(d) very rich
117.  World conservation monitoring centre has recognized …… protected areas
around the world.
(a) 47
(b) 1000
(c) 122
(d) 100
118.  There are …… National parks in India.
(a) 47
(b) 100
(c) 122
(d) 999
119.  There are …… wildlife sanctuaries in India.
(a) 100
(b) 999
(c) 58
(d) 10
120.  The Jim Corbett National Park was the first National Park established in
……
(a) India
(b) China
(c) Norway
(d) America
121.  …… are the special category of protected areas of land and coastal
environments, wherein people are an integral component of the system.
(a) Biosphere reserves
(b) Bio-land
(c) Bio-reservoir
(d) Bio-field
122.  A biosphere reserve consist of core, buffer and ……
(a) integral
(b) transition
 (c) transition
(d) integral
123.  In conservation, particularly by cryopreservation of highly orthodox seed at
a temperature of very degree, is widely used for conserving vegetative propagated
crops.
(a) 196
(b) 0
(c) 19
(d) 20
124.  Biological Diversity Act, 2002 is an act of the parliament of India for
preservation of biological diversity in India, enacted in ……
(a) 1999
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 1999
125.  The headquarter of National Biodiversity Authority is at ……
(a) Delhi
(b) Chennai
(c) Nagpur
(d) Kanpur
126.  …… defines the ecosystem.
(a) Odum
(b) Newton
(c) R. D. Raper
(d) Kennedy
127.  Characteristics of ecosystem are given by ……
(a) Odum
(b) Newton
(c) R. D. Raper
(d) Kennedy
128.  …… is a linear sequence of organisms that starts from producer organisms
and ends at apex predator species.
(a) food chain
(b) food level
(c) food connection
(d) food flow
129.  Each level in the food chain is called as ……
(a) food level
(b) chain level
(c) producer level
(d) trophic level