NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper

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1.
8527521718
6.
Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? Which one of the following statements is wrong?
1. They are eukaryotic 1. Algae increase the level of dissolved oxygen in the
2. All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall immediate environment

3. They are heterotrophic 2. Algin is obtained from red algae and carrageenan
from brown algae
4. They both are unicellular and multicellular
3. Agar-agar is obtained from Gelidium and Gracilaria
2.
4. Laminaria and Sargassum are used as
Methanogens belong to
food 7.
1. eubacteria
The term 'polyadelphous' is related to
2. archaebacteria
1. gynoecium
3. dinoflagellates
2. androecium
4. slime moulds
3. corolla
3.
4. calyx
Select the wrong statement.
8.
1. The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
How many plants among Indigofera, Sesbania, Salvia,
2. Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of Allium, Aloe, mustard, groundnut, radish, gram and
diatoms turnip have stamens with different lengths in their
flowers?
3. Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
1. Three
4. Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water
2. Four
3. Five
4.
4. Six
The label of a herbarium sheet does not carry
information on 9.
1. date of collection Radial symmetry is found in the flowers of
2. name of collector 1. Brassica
3. local names 2. Trifolium
4. height of the plant 3. Pisum
5. 4. Cassia
Conifers are adapted to tolerate extreme environmental 10.
conditions because of
Free-central placentation is found in
1. broad hardy leaves
1. Dianthus
2. superficial stomata
2. Argemone
3. thick cuticle
3. Brassica
4. the presence of vessels
4. Citrus

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
11.
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17.
Cortex is the region found between During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in
1. epidermis and stele 1. S-phase
2. pericycle and endodermis 2. G1-phase
3. endodermis and pith
3. G2 -phase
4. endodermis and vascular bundle
4. M-phase
12.
18.
The balloon-shaped structures called tyloses
Which of the following biomolecules is common to
1. originate in the lumen of vessels respiration-mediated breakdown of fats, carbohydrates
2. characterise the sapwood and proteins?

3. are extensions of xylem parenchyma cells into vessels 1. Glucose-6-phosphate

4. are linked to the ascent of sap through xylem 2. Fructose 1, 6-bisphosphate

vessels 13. 3. Pyruvic acid

A non-proteinaceous enzyme is 4. Acetyl Co-A

1. lysozyme 19.

2. ribozyme A few drops of sap were collected by cutting across a plant

stem by a suitable method. The sap was tested
3. ligase chemically. Which one of the following test results
indicates that it is phloem sap?
4. deoxyribonuclease
1. Acidic
14.
2. Alkaline
Select the mismatch.
3. Low refractive index
1. Gas vacuoles - Green bacteria Cells
4. The absence of sugar
2. Large central vacuoles - Animal cells
20.
3. Protists - Eukaryotes
You are given a tissue with its potential for differentiation in
4. Methanogens -Prokaryotes an artificial culture. Which of the following pairs of
15. hormones would you add to the medium to secure shoots
as well as roots?
Select the wrong statement.
1. IAA and gibberellin
1. Bacterial cell wall is made up of peptidoglycan
2. Auxin and cytokinin
2. Pili and fimbriae are mainly involved in motility of
bacterial cells 3. Auxin and abscisic acid

3. Cyanobacteria lack flagellated cells 4. Gibberellin & abscisic acid

4. Mycoplasma is a wall-less 21.

microorganism 16. Phytochrome is a

A cell organelle containing hydrolytic enzyme is 1. flavoprotein

1. lysosome 2. glycoprotein

2. microsome 3. lipoprotein

3. ribosome 4. chromoprotein

4. mesosome
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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
22.
8527521718
26.
Which is essential for the growth of root tip? Match column I with column II and select the correct
1. Zn option using the codes given below

2. Fe
Column I Column II
3. Ca
4. Mn A. Pistils fused together 1. Gametogenesis

23.
B. Formation of gametes 2. Pistillate
The process which makes major difference between
C3 and C4 plants is C. Hyphae of higher
ascomycetes 3. Syncarpous
1. glycolysis
2. Calvin cycle D. female
Unisexual
flower 4. Dikaryotic
3. photorespiration
4. respiration 1. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
24. 2. A-2 B-1 C-4 D-3
Which one of the following statements is not correct? 3. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3
1. Offspring produced by the asexual reproduction are 4. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
called clone
27.
2. Microscopic motile asexual reproductive structures
In majority of angiosperms
are called zoospores
3. In potato, banana and ginger, the plantlets arise from 1. egg has a filiform apparatus
the internodes present in the modified stem

4. Water hyacinth growing in the standing water, drains 2. there are numerous antipodal cells
oxygen from water that leads to the death of fishes 3. reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother
25. cells

Which one of the following generates new genetic 4. a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
combinations leading to variation? 28.
1. Vegetative reproduction Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about
2. Parthenogenesis by the agency of

3. Sexual reproduction 1. water

4. Nucellar polyembryony 2. insects or wind

3. birds
4. bats
29.
The ovule of an angiosperm is technically equivalent to
1. megasporangium
2. megasporophyll
3. megaspore mother cell
4. megaspore

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30.
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35.
Taylor conducted the experiments to prove semi- Stirred-tank bioreactors have been designed for
conservative mode of chromosome replication on
1. purification of product
1. Vinca rosea
2. addition of preservatives to the product
2. Vicia faba
3. availability of oxygen throughout the process
3. Drosophila melanogaster
4. ensuring anaerobic conditions in the culture vessel
4. E. Coli
36.
31.
A foreign DNA and plasmid cut by the same restriction
The mechanism that causes a gene to move from one endonuclease can be joined to form a recombinant
linkage group to another is called plasmid using
1. inversion 1. Eco Rl
2. duplication 2. taq polymerase
3. translocation 3. polymerase lll
4. crossing-over 4. ligase
32. 37.
The equivalent of a structural gene is Which of the following is not a component of downstream
1. muton processing?

2. cistron 1. Separation

3. operon 2. Purification

4. recon 3. Preservation

33. 4. Expression

A true breeding plant is 38.

1. one that is able to breed on its own Which of the following restriction enzymes produces blunt
ends?
2. produced due to cross-pollination among unrelated
plants 1. Sal l

3. near homozygous and produces offspring of its own 2. Eco RV

kind 3. Xho
4. always homozygous recessive in its genetic 4. Hind lll
constitution
39.
34.
Which kind of therapy was given in 1990 to a four-year- old
Which of the following rRNA act as structural RNA as well girl with Adenosine Deaminase (ADA) deficiency?
as ribozyme in bacteria?
1. Gene therapy
1. 5 srRNA
2. Chemotherapy
2. 18 srRNA
3. Immunotherapy
3. 23 srRNA
4. Radiation therapy
4. 5.8 srRNA

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Contact Number: 9667591930 /
40.
8527521718
45.
How many hotspots of biodiversity in the world have been Red List contains data or information on
identified till date by Norman Myers?
1. all economically important plants
1.17
2. plants whose products are in international trade
2.25
3. threatened species
3.34
4. marine vertebrates only
4.43
46.
41.
Which of the following sets of diseases is caused by bacteria?
The primary producers of the deep-sea hydrothermal vent
ecosystem are 1. Cholera and tetanus
1. green algae 2. Typhoid and smallpox
2. chemosynthetic bacteria 3. Tetanus and mumps
3. blue-green algae 4. Herpes and influenza
4. coral reefs 47.
Match column I with column II for housefly classification and
42. select the correct option using the codes given below:
Which of the following is correct for r-selected species?
1. Large number of progeny with small size
2. Large number of progeny with large size
3. Small number of progeny with small size
4. Small number of progeny with large 1. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
size 43. 2. A-3 B-2 C-4 D-1
If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial interaction, '-' sign to 3. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
detrimental and '0' sign to neutral interaction, then the
population interaction represented by'+''-' refers to 4. A-4 B-2 C-1 D-3

1. mutualism 48.

2. amensalism Choose the correct statement.

3. commensalism 1. All mammals are viviparous

4. parasitism 2. All cyclostomes do not possess jaws and paired fins

44. 3. All reptiles have a three-chambered heart

Which of the following is correctly matched? 4. All Pisces have gills covered by an operculum

1. aerenchyma - opuntia
2. age pyramid - biome
3. parthenium hysterophorus - threat to biodiversity
4. stratification - population

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
49.
8527521718
53.
Study the four statements (I-IV) given below and select the two
correct ones out of them : Which of the following is the least likely to be involved in
stabilising the three dimensional folding of most
I. Definition of biological species was given by Ernst Mayr. proteins?
1. Hydrogen bonds
II. Photoperiod does not affect reproduction in plants.
2. Electrostatic interaction
III. Binomial nomenclature system was given by RH
Whittaker. 3. Hydrophobic interaction
4. Ester bonds
IV. unicellular organisms, reproduction is synonymous
In
with growth. 54.
Which of the following describes the given graph correctly?
The two correct statements are
1. II and I
2. III and IV
3. I and IV
4. I and II
50.
In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the
reproductive system?
1. Seminal vesicles
2. Mushroom glands 1. Endothermic reaction with energy A in the presence
3. Testes of enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme

4. Vas deferens 2. Exothermic reaction with energy A in the presence of

enzyme and B in the absence of enzyme
51.
3. Endothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of
Smooth muscles are enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme
1. involuntary, fusiform, non-striated 4. Exothermic reaction with energy A in the absence of
2. voluntary, multinucleate, cylindrical enzyme and B in the presence of enzyme

3. involuntary, cylindrical, striated 55.

When cell has stalled DNA replication fork, which
4. voluntary, spindle-shaped, checkpoint should be predominantly activated?
uninucleate 52. 1. G1/S
Oxidative phosphorylation is 2. G2 /M
1. formation of ATP by transfer of phosphate group
3. M
from a substrate to ADP
4. Both G2/M and M
2. oxidation of phosphate group in ATP
3. addition of phosphate group to ATP
4. formation of ATP by energy released from electrons
removed during substrate oxidation

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
56.
8527521718
60.
Match the stages of meiosis in column to their characteristic
Graves' disease is caused due to
features in Column II and select the correct option using the
codes given below
1. hyposecretion of thyroid gland
2. hypersecretion of thyroid gland
3. hyposecretion of adrenal gland
4. hypersecretion of adrenal gland
61.
1. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1 Name the ion responsible for unmasking of active sites for
myosin for cross-bridge activity during muscle
2. A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3 contraction.
3. A-2 B-4 C-3 D-1 1. Calcium
2. Magnesium
4. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
57. 3. Sodium
Which hormone stimulate the production of pancreatic 4. Potassium
juice and bicarbonate?
62.
1. Angiotensin and epinephrine
Name the blood cells, whose reduction in number can cause
2. Gastrin and insulin clotting disorder, leading to excessive loss of blood from
the body.
3. Cholecystokinin and secretin
1. Erythrocytes
4. lnsulin and glucagon
2. Leucocytes
58.
3. Neutrophils
The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli of the lungs is
4. Thrombocytes
1. equal to that in the blood
63.
2. more than that in the blood
Name a peptide hormone which acts mainly on hepatocytes,
3. less than that in the blood
adipocytes and enhances cellular glucose uptake and
4. less than that of carbon dioxide utilisation.
59. 1. Insulin
Choose the correct statement. 2. Glucagon
1. Nociceptors respond to changes in pressure 3. Secretin
2. Meissner' s corpuscles are thermoreceptors 4. Gastrin
3. Photoreceptors in the human eye are depolarised 64.
Osteoporosis, an age-related disease of skeletal system, may
during darkness and become hyperpolarised in response
to the light stimulus occur due to
4. Receptors do not produce graded potentials 1. junction leading to fatigue

2. high concentration of ca++ and Na+

3. decreased level of oestrogen
4. accumulation of uric acid leading to inflammation of
joints

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
65.
8527521718
70.
Serum differs from blood in Which of the following is incorrect regarding vasectomy?
1. lacking globulins 1. No sperm occurs in seminal fluid
2. lacking albumins 2. No sperm occurs in epididymis
3. lacking clotting factors 3. Vasa deferentia is cut and tied
4. lacking antibodies 4. Irreversible sterility
66. 71.
Lungs do not collapse between breaths and some air always Embryo with more than 16 blastomeres formed due to in vitro
remains in the lungs which can never be expelled because fertilisation is transferred into
1. there is a negative pressure in the lungs 1. uterus
2. there is a negative intrapleural pressure pulling at the 2. fallopian tube
lung walls
3. fimbriae
3. there is a positive intrapleural pressure
4. cervix
4. pressure in the lungs in higher than the atmospheric
pressure 72.
67. Which of the following depicts the correct pathway of
transport of sperms?
The posterior pituitary gland is not a 'true' endocrine gland
because 1. Rete testis → Efferent ductules → Epididymis → Vas
deferens
1. it is provided with a duct
2. Rete testis → Epididymis → Efferent ductules → Vas
2. it only stores and releases hormones deferens
3. it is under the regulation of hypothalamus 3. Rete testis → vas ductules → Efferent ductules →
4. it secretes enzymes Epididymis

68. 4. Efferent ductules → Rete testis → Vas deferens →

Epididymis
The part of nephron involved in active reabsorption of
sodium is 73.
Match column I with column II and select the correct option
1. distal convoluted tubule using the codes given below
2. proximal convoluted tubule
3. Bowman 's capsule
4. descending limb of Henle's loop
69.
Which of the following is hormone-releasing IUD? 1. A-3 B-4 C-2 D-1
2. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
1. LNG-20 3. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
2. Multiload-375 4. A-1 B-4 C-3 D-2

3. Lippes loop
4. Cu-7

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Contact Number: 9667591930 /
74.
8527521718
79.
Several hormones like hCG, hPL, oestrogen, progesterone Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in
are produced by the origin of life?
1. ovary I. Formation of protobionts.
2. placenta II. Synthesis of organic monomers.
III. Synthesis of organic polymers.
3. fallopian tube IV. Formation of DNA-based genetic systems.
4. pituitary 1. I, II, III, IV
75. 2. I, III, II, IV
If a colourblind man marries a woman who is homozygous 3. II, III, I, IV
for normal colour vision, the probability of their son
being colourblind is 4. II, III, IV, I

1. 0 80.

2. 0.5 A molecule that can act as a genetic material must fulfil the
traits given below, except
3. 0. 75
1. it should be able to express itself in the form of
4. 1 'Mendelian characters'
76. 2. it should be able to generate its replica
Genetic drift operates in 3. it should be unstable structurally and chemically
1. small isolated population 4. it should provide the scope for slow changes that are
required for evolution
2. large isolated population
3. non-reproductive population 81.

4. slow reproductive population DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses transcription on

one strand of the DNA which is called the
77.
1. template strand
In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of
2. coding strand
heterozygous individual is represented by
3. alpha strand
1. p2
4. anti strand
2. 2pq
82.
3. pq
Interspecific hybridisation is the mating of
4. q2 1. animals within the same breed without having
78. common ancestors

The chronological order of human evolution from early to 2. two different related species
the recent is 3. superior males and females of different breeds
1. Australopithecus→Ramapithecus→Homo 4. more closely related individuals within the same breed
habilis→Homo erectus for 4-6 generations
2. Ramapithecus→Australopithecus→ Homo
habilis→Homo erectus
3. Ramapithecus→Homo
habilis→ Australopithecus →Homo erectus
4. Australopithecus→Homo
habilis→Ramapithecus →Homo erectus
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83.
8527521718
87.
Which of the following is correct Regarding AIDS causative The principle of competitive exclusion was stated by
agent HIV?
1. C. Darwin
1. HIV is enveloped virus containing one molecule of
single-stranded RNA and one molecule of reverse 2. G. F. Gause
transcriptase
3. MacArthur
2. HIV is enveloped virus that contains two identical
4. Verhulst and Pearl
molecules of single-stranded RNA and two molecules of
reverse transcriptase 88.
3. HIV is unenveloped retrovirus Which of the following National Parks is home to the
famous musk deer or hangul?
4. HIV does not escape but attacks the acquired immune
response 1. Keibul Lamjao National Park, Manipur
84. 2. Bandhavgarh National Park, Madhya Pradesh
Among the following edible fishes, which one is a marine 3. Eaglenest Wildlife Sanctuary.
fish having rich source of omega-3 fatty acids?
4. Dachigam National Park, Jammu and Kashmir
1. Mystus
89.
2. Mangur
A lake which is rich in organic waste may result in
3. Mrigala
1. increased population of aquatic organisms due to
4. Mackerel minerals
85. 2. drying of the lake due to algal bloom
Match column I with column II and select the correct option
using the codes given below 3. increased population of fish due to lots of nutrients
4. mortality of fish due to lack of oxygen
90.
The 'highest DDT concentration in aquatic food chain shall
occur in
1. phytoplankton
1. A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4
2. seagull
2. A-3 B-1 C-4 D-2
3. crab
3. A-1 B-4 C-2 D-3
4. eel
4. A-3 B-4 C-1 D-2
91.
86.
Which one of the following compounds show the
Biochemical Oxygen Demand (BOD) may not be a good presence of intramolecular hydrogen bond?
index for pollution in water bodies receiving effluents
from 1. H2O2
1. domestic sewage 2. HCN
2. dairy industry 3. Cellulose
3. petroleum industry 4. Concentrated acetic acid
4. sugar industry

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92.
8527521718
96.
3
The molar conductivity of a 0.5 mol/dm solution of AgNO3 How many electrons can fit in the subshell for which n = 3
and l = 1?
with electrolytic conductivity of 5.76 x 10 -3S cm-3 at
298 K is 21.
1. 11.5 cm2 / mol 62.

2. 21.5 cm2 / mol 10

3.

3. 31.5 cm2 / mol 14

4.
97.
4. 41.5 cm2 / mol
For a sample of perfect gas when its pressure is changed
93.
isothermally from Pi to pf, the entropy change is given by
The decomposition of phosphine (PH3) on tungsten at
p f
low pressure is a first-order reaction. It is because the 1. Δs = nR In ( pi )
1. rate is proportional to the surface coverage i
2. Δs = nR In ( ppf )
2. rate is inversely proportional to the surface coverage
pf
3. rate is independent of the surface coverage 3. Δs = nRT In ( pi )
4. rate of decomposition is very slow i
4. Δs = RT In ( pp )
f
94.
The coagulation values in millimoles per litre of the 98.
electrolytes used for the coagulation of As 2S3are given The van’t Hoff factor (i) for a dilute aqueous solution of
below the strong electrolyte barium hydroxide is
I. (NaCl)= 52, 1. 0
II. (BeCl2) = 0.69 2. 1
III. (MgSO4) = 0.22
3. 2
The correct order of their coagulating power is
4. 3
1. I>II>III
99.
2. II>I>III
The percentage of pyridine (C5H5N) that forms
3. III>II>I
pyridinium iron (C5H5N+H) In A 0.10 M aqueous
4. III>I>II
pyridine solution (Kb for C5H5N = 1.7 X 10 -9) is
95.
1. 0.0060%
During the electrolysis of molten sodium chloride, the
time required to produce 0.10 mol of chlorine gas using a 2. 0.013%
current of 3 amperes is
3. 0.77%
1. 55 minutes
4. 1.6%
2. 110 minutes
3. 220 minutes
4. 330 minutes

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100.
8527521718
104.
In calcium fluoride, having the fluorite structure, the Suppose the elements X and Y combine to form two
coordination numbers for calcium ion (Ca2+) and compounds XY2 and X3Y2. When 0.1 moles of
fluoride ion (F-) are XY2weighs 10 g and 0.05 mole of X3Y2 weighs 9 g, the
1. 4 and 2 atomic weights of X and Y are

2. 6 and 6 1. 40, 30

3. 8 and 4 2. 60, 40

4. 4 and 8 3. 20, 30

101. 4. 30, 20

If the Ecell for a given reaction has a negative value, 105.

which of the following gives correct relationships for the The number of electrons delivered at the cathode during
values of ll G0 and Keq? electrolysis by a current of 1 ampere in 60 seconds is
(charge on electron = 1.60x 10-19C)
1. ΔGo > 0; Keq < 1 23

2. ΔGo > 0; Keq > 1 1. 6 × 10

3. ΔGo < 0; Keq > 1 2. 6 × 1020
4. ΔGo < 0; Keq < 1 3. 3. 75 × 1020
102. 4. 7. 48 × 1020
Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal 106.
solution? Boric acid is an acid because its molecule
1.
ΔHmix = 0 1. contains replaceable H+ ion
2.
ΔUmix = 0 2. gives up a proton
3.
ΔP = Pobs.‐ Pcalculated by Raoult 's Law =0 3. accepts OH- from water releasing proton into the
4. solution
ΔGmix = 0
103. 4. combines with proton from water molecules

The solubility of AgCl (s) with solubility product 1.6 x 10- 107.
10
in 0.1 M NaCl solution would be AlF3 is soluble in HF only in presence of KF. It is due to the
1. 1. 26 × 10−5 M formation of

2. 1. 6 × 10−9 M 1. K3(AIF3 H3)

3. 1. 6 × 10−11 M 2. K3(AIF6)

4. zero 3. AIH3
4. K(AIF3 H)

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108.
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113.
Zinc can be coated on iron to produce galvanised iron but In context with beryllium, which one of the following
the reverse is not possible. It is because statements is incorrect?
1. zinc is lighter than iron 1. it is rendered passive by nitric acid
2. zinc has a lower melting point than iron 2. it forms Be2 C
3. zinc has lower negative negative potential than iron 3. its salts rarely hydrolyse
4. zinc has a higher negative reduction potential than 4. its hydride is electron-deficient and polymeric
iron
114.
109.
Hot concentrated sulphuric acid is a moderately strong
The suspension of slaked lime in water is known as oxidising agent. Which of the following reaction does
1. lime water not show - oxidising behaviour?

2. quick lime 1. Cu + 2H2 SO4 → CuSO4 + SO2 + 2H2O

3. milk of lime 2. 3S + 2 H2 SO4 → 3 SO2 + 2H2O
4. washing of lime 3. C + 2H2 SO4 → CO2 + 2 SO2 + 2H2O
110. 4. CaF2 + H2 SO4 → CaSO4 + 2 HF
+
The hybridisations of atomic orbitals of nitrogen in NO , 115.

NO-3 and NH3 respectively are Which of the following pairs of d-orbitals will have
electron density along the axes?
1. sp, sp3 and sp2
1. dz2 , dxz
2. sp2, sp3 and sp
2. dxz, dzy
3. sp, sp2 and sp3
3. dz2 , dx2−y2
4. sp2, sp and sp3 4. dxy, dx2−y2
111.
116.

which of the following fluoro-compounds is most likely

to behave as a Lewis base? The correct shape and hybridization for XeF4 are

1. BF3 1. octahedral, sp3d2

2. PF3 2. trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d3
3. CF4
3. planar triangle, sp3d3
4. SiF4
4. square planar, sp3d2
112. 117.
Which of the following pairs of ions is isoelectronic and Among the following, which one is a wrong statement?
isostructural?
1. PH5 and BiCl5 do not exist
1. CO2−, NO−
2. pπ - dπ bonds are present in SO2
3 3
2. CIO−, CO2−
3. SeF4 and CH4 have same shape
3 3
3. SO2−, NO−
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+
4. I3 has 8527521718
bent geometry
3 3
− 2−
4. CIO , SO
3 3

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
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8527521718
118.
The correct increasing order of trans-effect of the In which of the following molecules, all atoms are
following species is coplanar?
1.
NH3 > CN− > Br > C6H−5
2.
CN− > C6H−5 > Br− > NH3
3.
Br− > CN− > NH3 > C6H−5
4.
CN− > Br− > C6H−5 > NH3 1.
119.
Which one of the following statements related to
lanthanons is incorrect? 2.
1. Europium shows +2 oxidation state
2. The basicity decreases as the ionic radius decreases
from pr to Lu 3.
3. all the lanthanons are much more reactive than
aluminium
4. Ce(+4) solution are widely used as oxidizing agent in 4.
volumetric analysis 123.
120. Which one of the _following structures represents nylon
Jahn-Teller effect is not observed in high spin complexes 6, 6 polymer ?
of

1. d7

2. d8
1.
3. d4

4. d9
121.
2.
Which of the following can be used as the halide
component for Friedel-Crafts reaction?
1. Chlorobenzene
2. Bromobenzene
3. Chloroethene 3.
4. Isopropyl chloride 4.

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
124.
8527521718
126.

In pyrrole Which one of the following nitro-compounds does not

react with nitrous acid

1.

the electron density is maximum on

1.
2 and 3
2. 3 and 4 2.
3. 2 and 4
4. 2 and 5
125. 3.

Which of the following compounds shall not produce

propene by reaction with HBr followed by elimination or
direct only elimination reaction?

4.
1.
127.
The central dogma of molecular genetics states that the
genetic information flows from
2.
1. amino acid - proteins - DNA
3. 2. DNA - carbohydrates - proteins
3. DNA - RNA - proteins

4. 4. DNA - RNA - Carbohydrates

Page: 16
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
128.
8527521718
129.
The correct corresponding order of names of four aldoses
with configuration given below respectively, is
In the given reaction

The product P is

1.

1. L-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose, D-threose

2. D-threose, D-erythrose, L-threose, L-erythrose 2.

3. L-erythrose, L-threose, D-erythrose, D-threose

4. D-erythrose, D-threose, L-erythrose, L-threose

3.

4.

Page: 17
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
130.
8527521718
132.
A given nitrogen-containing aromatic compound A
reacts with Sn/HCl, followed by HNO2 to give an
unstable compound B. B, on treatment with phenol, The correct structure of the product A formed in the
forms a beautiful colored compound C with the reaction
molecular formula C12H10N2 0. The structure of
compound A is

H2 ( gas,1 atmosphere
)
1. −−−−−−−−−−−−−→ A is
Pd / carbon, ethanol

2.
1.

3.

2.
4.
131.
Consider the reaction
CH3 CH2 CH2 Br + NaCN - CH3 CH2 CH2 CN + NaBr
This reaction will be the fastest in 3.

1. Ethanol
2. Methanol
3. N, N'-dimethylformamide (DMF)
4.
4. water

133.

Which among the given molecules can exhibit

tautomerism?

1. III only
2. Both I and III
3. Both I and II

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
4. Both II and III 8527521718

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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
134.
8527521718
137.
Two cars P and Q start from a point at the same time in a
The correct order of strengths of the carboxylic acids straight line and their positions are represented by
xp(t) = at + bt2 and xQ(t) = ft − t2. At what time do
the cars have the same velocity?
a−f
1. 1+b
a+f
2.
2 ( b−1 )

a+f
3. 2 ( b+1 )

f−a
4. 2 ( 1+b )
1. I>II>III
138.
2. II>III>I
3. III>II>I

4. II>I>III In the given figure, a = 15m /s 2 represents the total

135. acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
direction in a circle of radius R = 2.5 m at a given instant
The compound that will react most readily with gaseous of time. The speed of the particle is:
bromine has the formula
1.
C3 H 6
2.
C2 H 2
3.
C4H10
4.
C2 H 4 1. 4.5 m/s
136.
2. 5.0 m/s
Planck's constant (h), speed of light in the vacuum (c) and
Newton's gravitational constant (G) are three 3. 5.7 m/s
fundamental constants. Which of the following 4. 6.2 m/s
combinations of these has the dimension of length?
1. √hG
c3/2

2. √hG
c5/2

3. √hG
G

4. √Gc
h3/2

Page: 20
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
139.
8527521718
142.
0
A rigid ball of mass M strikes a rigid wall at 60 and gets ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
reflected without loss of speed as shown in the figure. A particle moves from a point (−2 i + 5 j) to (4 j + 3 k)
The value of impulse imparted by the wall on the ball when a force of (4ˆi + 3ˆj) N is applied. How much work
will be:
has been done by the force?
1. 8 J
2. 11 J
3. 5 J
4. 2 J
143.
Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m and 2m with
moments of inertia IA and IB (IB > IA) have equal kinetic
energy of rotation. If LA and LB be their angular
1. Mv momenta respectively, then:
2. 2Mv 1. LA = LB
2
3. Mv/2
2. LA = 2LB
4. Mv/3
3. LB > LA
140.
4. LA > LB
A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontal with a velocity
144.
of 400 m/s strikes a wood block of mass 2 kg which is
A solid sphere of mass m and radius R is rotating about
suspended by light inextensible string of length 5 m. As
its diameter. A solid cylinder of the same mass and same
result, the centre of gravity of the block found to rise a
radius is also rotating about its geometrical axis with an
vertical distance of 10 cm. The speed of the bullet after it
angular speed twice that of the sphere. The ratio of their
emerges of horizontally from the block will be
kinetic energies of rotation (Sphere/cylinder) will be:
1. 100 m/s
1. 2:3
2. 80 m/s
2. 1:5
3. 120 m/s
3. 1:4
4. 160 m/s
4. 3:1
141.
145.
Two identical balls A and B having velocities of 0.5 m/s
A light rod of length l has two masses m1 and
and -0.3 m/s respectively collide elastically in one
dimension. The velocities of B and A after the collision m2 attached to its two ends. The moment of inertia of the
respectively will be system about an axis perpendicular to the rod and passing
through the centre of mass is:
1. -0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
m1m2 2
2. 0.5 m/s and -0.3 m/s
1. m1+m2 I

m1+m2 2
3. -0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s 2. m 1m 2 I

4. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s 3. (m1 + m2)I2

4. √m1 + m2I2

Page: 21
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
146.
8527521718
148.
Starting from the centre of the earth having radius R, the A rectangular film of liquid is extended from (4 cm x 2 cm)
variation of g (acceleration due to gravity) is shown by:
to (5 cm x 4 cm). If the work done is 3 x 10 -4 J, the value
of the surface tension of the liquid is:

1. 0.250 Nm-1

2. 0.125 Nm-1
1.
3. 0.2 Nm-1

4. 8.0 Nm-1
149.
Three liquids of densities ρ 1, ρ2 and ρ3 (with ρ1> ρ2 > ρ 3)
2.
having the same value of surface tension T, rise to the
same height in three identical capillaries. The angles of
contact θ1, θ2 and θ3 obey:
π
1. > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0
2
π
2. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < 2
3.
3. π < θ1 < θ 2 < θ 3 < π
2
4. π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > π

2
150.

4. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which

the heat capacity increases with temperature. One of
147. these is at 100 °C, while the other one is at 0 °C. If the
two bodies are brought into contact, then assuming no
A satellite of mass m is orbiting the earth (of radius R) at heat loss, the final common temperature is:
a height h from its surface. The total energy of the
satellite in terms of g0, the value of acceleration due to 1. 50°C
gravity at the earth's surface, is: 2. more than 50°C
1. mg0R2
2(R+h) 3. less than 50°C but greater than 0°C
4. 0°C
2. mg0R2
- 2(R+h) 151.
3. 2mg0R2 A body cools from a temperature of 3T to 2T in 10
(R+h) minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that
2mg0R2 Newton's law of cooling is applicable. The temperature
4. - of the body at the end of the next 10 minutes will be
(R+h)
7
1.
4
T
3
2. 2
T
4
3. 3
T

4. T

Page: 22
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
152.
8527521718
156.
One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a process The second overtone of an open organ pipe has the same
described by the equation. PV 3 = cons tan t. The heat frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe L meter
capacity of the gas during this process is: long. The length of the open pipe will be:
3
1. 2
R 1. L

2. 5
R 2. 2L
2

3. 2R 3. L/2

4. R 4. 4L

153. 157.

The temperature inside a refrigerator(reversible process) is t Three sound waves of equal amplitudes have frequencies (n-
o 1), n, (n + 1). They superimpose to give beats. The
C and the room temperature is t oC. The amount of number of beats produced per second will be
2 1
heat delivered to the room for each joule of electrical 1. 1
energy consumed ideally will be:
2. 4
1. t1
t1−t2
3. 3
t1+273
2. t1−t2 4. 2
3. t2+273 158.
t1+t2

t1+t2
An electric dipole is placed at an angle of 30 ° with an
4.
t1+273 electric field intensity 2 x 105 N/C. It experiences a
154. torque equal to 4 Nm. The charge on the dipole, if the
dipole length is 2 cm, is
A given sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a
pressure P and absolute temperature T. The mass of each 1. 8 mC
molecule of the gas is m. Which of the following gives 2. 2 mC
the density of the gas?
3. 5 mC
1. P/(kT)
4. 7 μC
2. Pm/(kT)
3. P/(kTV)
4. mkT
155.
A body of mass m is attached to the lower and of a spring
whose upper end is fixed. The spring has negligible
mass. When the mass m is slightly pulled down and
released, it oscillates with a time period of 3 s. When the
mass m is increased by 1 kg, the time period of
oscillations becomes 5 s. The value of m in kg is:
3
1.
4
4
2.
3

16
3. 9

9
4. 16

Page: 23
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
159.
8527521718
162.
A parallel-plate capacitor of area A, plate separation d A long wire carrying a steady current is bent into a
and capacitance C is filled with four dielectric materials circular loop of one turn. The magnetic field at the centre
having dielectric constants k1, k2, k3 and k4 as shown in of the loop is B. It is then bent into a
the figure below. If a single dielectric material is to be circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field at the centre
used to have the same capacitance C in this capacitor, of this coil of n turns will be:
then its dielectric constant k is given by
1. nB

2. n2B
3. 2nB

4. 2n2B
163.
A bar magnet is hung by a thin cotton thread in a uniform
horizontal magnetic field and is in the equilibrium state.
The energy required to rotate it by 60o is W. Now the
torque required to keep the magnet in this new position
1. K = k1 + k2 + k3 + 3k4 is:
2. K = 2
(k1 + k2 + k3)+2k4 1. W
3 √3
2 k1 k2 k3
3. k = k4( + + )
2. √3W
3 k1+K4 k2+k4 k3+k4
1
4.
k = 1
+ 1
+ 1
+ 3 3. √3W
k1 k2 2k4 2
160. k3 4. 2W
√3

The potential difference VA − VB between the points A

164.
and B in the given figure is :
An electron is moving in a circular path under the
influence of a transverse magnetic field of 3.57 x 10 -2 T.
If the value of e/m is 1.76 x 10 11 C/kg, the frequency of
revolution of the electron is:
1. 1 GHz
1. -3V 2. 100 MHz
2. +3V 3. 62.8 MHz
3. +6V 4. 6.28 MHz
4. +9V 165.
161. 3. 26 fi
A filament bulb (500 W, 100 V) is to be used in a 230 V 4. 13 fi
main supply. When a resistance R is connected in series,
it works perfectly and the bulb consumes 500 W. The
value of R is :
1. 230 fi
2. 46 fi

Page: 24
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Which of the following combinations should be 8527521718
selected for better tuning of an L-C-R circuit used
for communication?
(1) R = 20 fi, L = 1. 5 H, C = 35 μF
(2) R = 25 fi, L = 2. 5 H, C = 45 μF
(3) R = 15 fi, L = 3. 5H, C = 30 μF
(4) R = 25 fi, L = 1. 5 H, C = 45 μF

Page: 25
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
166.
8527521718
169.
A uniform magnetic field is restricted within a region of Two identical glass ( μg= 3/2) equiconvex lenses of focal length f
radius r. The magnetic field changes with time at a rate each are kept in contact. The space between the
dB . Loop 1 of radius R > r encloses the region r and loop
two lenses is filled with water ( μw = 4/3). The focal
dt
2 of radius R is outside the region of the magnetic field length of the combination is :
as shown in the figure. Then, the emf generated is: 1. f/3
2. f
3. 4f
3

4. 3f
4
170.
An air bubble in a glass slab with refractive index 1.5
(near-normal incidence) is 5 cm deep when viewed from
one surface and 3 cm deep when viewed from the
opposite face. The thickness (in cm) of the slab is :

1. Zero in loop 1 and zero loop 2 1. 8

2. − dB
πr2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2 2. 10
dt
dB
3. 12
3. − πR2 in loop 1 and zero in loop 2
dt
4. 16
4. Zero in loop 1 and not defined in loop 2
171.
167.
The interference pattern is obtained with two coherent
The potential differences across the resistance, light sources of intensity ratio n. In the interference
capacitance and inductance are 80 V, 40 V and 100 V pattern, the ratio Imax−Imin will be
Imax+Imin
respectively in an L-C-R circuit. The power factor of this
circuit is: √n
1.
n+1
1. 0.4
2. 2√n
2. 0.5 n+1

3. 0.8 3. √n
( n+1 ) 2
4. 1.0
4. 2√n
168. ( n+1 ) 2
A 100 fi resistance and a capacitor of 100 fi reactance 172.
are connected in series across a 220 V source. When the
capacitor is 50% charged, the peak value of the A person can see clearly objects only when they lie
displacement current is: between 50 cm and 400 cm from his eyes. In order to
increase the maximum distance of distinct vision to
1. 2.2 A infinity, the type and power of the correcting lens, the
2. 11 A person has to use, will be

3. 4.4 A 1. convex, +2.25 diopter

2. concave, -0.25 diopter
4. 11√2 A
3. concave -0.2 diopter
4. convex, +0.5 diopter

Page: 26
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
173.
8527521718
177.
A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm is placed The half-life of a radioactive substance is 30 minutes. The
immediately in front of a lens of focal length 60 cm. The time (in minutes) taken between 40% decay and 85%
aperture is illuminated normally by a parallel beam of decay of the same radioactive substance is:
wavelength 5 x 10-5 cm. The distance of the first dark
1. 15
band of the diffraction pattern from the center of the
screen is : 2. 30
1. 0.10 cm 3. 45
2. 0.25 cm 4. 60
3. 0.20 cm 178.

4. 0.15 cm For the CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage

174. across the collector resistance of 2kfi is 4V. If the current
amplification factor of the transistor is 100 and the base
Electrons of mass m with de- Broglie wavelength λ fall resistance is 1kfi, then the input signal voltage is:
on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut off wavelength
(λo) of the emitted X-ray is : 1. 10 mV
2. 20 mV
1. λ0 2mcλ2
= h 3. 30 mV
2h
2. λ0 =
mc 4. 15 mV

3. λ0
2m2c2λ2 179.
= h2

4. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as

λ0 = λ
shown in the figure below. The current flowing through
175. the resistance R1 will be:
Photons with energy 5 eV are incident on a cathode C in
a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of emitted
photoelectrons is 2 eV. When photons of energy 6 eV are
incident on C, no photoelectrons will reach the anode A,
if the stopping potential of A relative to C is :
1. +3V
2. +4V
3. -1V
4. -3V
1. 2.5 A
176.
2. 10.0 A
If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd
orbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon of wavelength λ. 3. 1.43 A
When it jumps from the 4th orbit to the 3rd orbit, the 4. 3.13 A
corresponding wavelength of the photon will be
16
1. λ
25
9
2. λ
16
20
3. λ
7
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 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
4. 20
λ 8527521718
13

Page: 28
 NEET 2016 Phase 2 Paper
Contact Number: 9667591930 /
180.
8527521718
What is the output Y in the following circuit, when all
the three inputs A, B, C are first 0 and then 1?

1. 0, 1
2. 0, 0
3. 1, 0
4. 1, 1

Fill OMR Sheet

Page: 29