. 1. Which plasma protein maintains colloid osmotic pressure?
A. Globulin
B. Albumin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Transferrin
2. The pacemaker of the human heart is:
A. AV node
B. SA node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. Bundle of His
3. Which blood vessel carries oxygenated blood from lungs to
heart?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Pulmonary vein
C. Aorta
D. Coronary vein
4. The QRS complex in ECG represents:
A. Atrial depolarization
B. Ventricular depolarization
C. Ventricular repolarization
D. Atrial repolarization
5. Which is the largest type of leucocyte?
A. Neutrophil
B. Monocyte
C. Eosinophil
D. Basophil
6. During ventricular systole:
A. AV valves are open
B. Semilunar valves are open
C. Blood flows into atria
D. Ventricular pressure is low
7. Most CO₂ in blood is transported as:
A. Dissolved CO₂
B. Bicarbonate ions
C. Carbaminohaemoglobin
D. Carbonic acid
8. Which ion triggers cardiac muscle contraction?
A. Na⁺
B. K⁺
C. Ca²⁺
D. Mg²⁺
9. Which valve is between right atrium and right ventricle?
A. Tricuspid
B. Bicuspid
C. Aortic
D. Pulmonary
10. Stroke volume × Heart rate =
A. Tidal volume
B. Cardiac output
C. Residual volume
D. Minute volume
11. Which blood vessel has the greatest cross-sectional area?
A. Arteries
B. Veins
C. Capillaries
D. Arterioles
12. Fibrinogen is involved in:
A. Osmotic balance
B. Immunity
C. Blood clotting
D. O₂ transport
13. Which sound is due to closure of AV valves?
A. First heart sound
B. Second heart sound
C. Both
D. None
14. Pulmonary circulation starts from:
A. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right atrium
D. Right ventricle
15. Cardiac muscle cells are connected by:
A. Desmosomes only
B. Gap junctions only
C. Both
D. Tight junctions
Assertion–Reason – Q16 to Q25
(A = Assertion, R = Reason; Choices: A) Both true, R correct
explanation, B) Both true, R not explanation, C) A true R false, D)
A false R true)
16. A: SA node initiates heartbeat.
R: It is located in right atrium near superior vena cava.
17. A: Veins have valves to prevent backflow.
R: Venous BP is lower than arterial BP.
18. A: AV node delays impulse conduction.
R: This allows ventricles to complete filling.
19. A: Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood.
R: All arteries carry oxygenated blood.
20. A: Closure of semilunar valves produces second heart sound.
R: It occurs at onset of ventricular systole.
21. A: Baroreceptors detect BP changes.
R: Located in carotid sinus and aortic arch.
22. A: Platelets release thromboplastin.
R: Thromboplastin initiates clot formation.
23. A: Cardiac output increases with exercise.
R: Stroke volume and heart rate both increase.
24. A: Lymph transports absorbed fats.
R: Fats are absorbed as chylomicrons into lacteals.
25. A: Intercalated discs allow synchronous heart contractions.
R: They permit ion flow between cells.
Section B: The Living World (Excl. Taxonomical Aids) (Q26–Q45)
MCQs – Q26 to Q35
26. Binomial nomenclature was given by:
A. Darwin
B. Linnaeus
C. Haeckel
D. Whittaker
27. Correct hierarchy: Kingdom → Phylum → Class → Order →
Family → Genus → ___
A. Species
B. Domain
C. Variety
D. Subspecies
28. Biological species concept is based on:
A. Morphology
B. Interbreeding potential
C. Biochemistry
D. Habitat
29. Which domain has ether-linked membrane lipids?
A. Bacteria
B. Archaea
C. Eukarya
D. Protista
30. Viruses are inert outside host because:
A. They lack metabolism
B. They lack nucleic acids
C. They lack protein coat
D. They lack genetic material
31. Cyanobacteria belong to:
A. Protista
B. Monera
C. Plantae
D. Fungi
32. Which kingdom includes multicellular eukaryotic
heterotrophs with chitin walls?
A. Protista
B. Plantae
C. Fungi
D. Animalia
33. Who proposed five-kingdom classification?
A. Whittaker
B. Woese
C. Haeckel
D. Copeland
34. Viruses have:
A. DNA or RNA, never both
B. Both DNA and RNA
C. Only DNA
D. Only RNA
35. Three-domain system was proposed by:
A. Woese
B. Whittaker
C. Linnaeus
D. Margulis
Assertion–Reason – Q36 to Q45
36. A: Archaea lack peptidoglycan in cell walls.
R: They have pseudopeptidoglycan or other polymers.
37. A: Cyanobacteria perform oxygenic photosynthesis.
R: They have chlorophyll a and phycobilins.
38. A: Species is the basic unit of classification
R: Members of a species can interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
39. A: Viruses are obligate parasites.
R: They can multiply only inside host cells.
40. A: Bacteria have 80S ribosomes.
R: Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S.
41. A: Plantae includes all autotrophic eukaryotes.
R: Some plants are partially heterotrophic.
42. A: Binomial name is always underlined when handwritten.
R: Genus starts with a capital letter, species with a small letter.
43. A: In Linnaean hierarchy, order includes one or more families.
R: Family includes one or more genera.
44. A: Protists show both plant and animal features.
R: Euglena has chloroplasts but can ingest food.
45. A: Viruses have a protein coat called capsid.
R: It is made up of subunits called capsomeres.
Section C: Cell Cycle & Cell Division (Q46–Q70)
MCQs – Q46 to Q60
46. DNA replication occurs in:
A. G1 phase
B. S phase
C. G2 phase
D. M phase
47. Synapsis and crossing over occur in:
A. Prophase I
B. Metaphase I
C. Anaphase I
D. Telophase I
48. Reductional division occurs in:
A. Mitosis
B. Meiosis I
C. Meiosis II
D. Binary fission
49. 13. A cell divides every 10 minutes and fills the cup in 12 hours.
When would the cup be 1/16th filled?
A. 45 minutes
B. 11 hours 20 minutes
90 minutes
D. 10 hours 20 minutes
51. Calculate the total number of meioses required to produce 150 pollen
grains?
A. 38
B. 37
C. 37.5
D.150
52. In mitosis, separation of sister chromatids occurs during:
A. Metaphase
B. Anaphase
C. Telophase
D. Prophase
53. The nuclear membrane reappears in:
A. Prophase
B. Metaphase
C. Anaphase
D. Telophase
54. Chiasmata are first visible during:
A. Leptotene
B. Zygotene
C. Pachytene
D. Diplotene
55. G₀ phase is:
A. Active cell division
B. Resting but metabolically active
C. DNA replication
D. Organelle duplication
56. Which structure organizes the spindle apparatus in animal cells?
A. Centriole
B. Kinetochore
C. Centrosome
D. Centromere
57. Crossing over occurs between:
A. Sister chromatids
B. Non-sister chromatids of homologues
C. Centromeres
D. Chromatids of different species
58. Which checkpoint ensures DNA replication completion?
A. G₁/S checkpoint
B. G₂/M checkpoint
C. Metaphase checkpoint
D. Cytokinesis checkpoint
59. Cell plate is characteristic of:
A. Plant cell cytokinesis
B. Animal cell cytokinesis
C. Meiosis only
D. Binary fission
60. Genetic variation in meiosis is introduced through:
A. DNA replication
B. Crossing over and independent assortment
C. Cytokinesis
D. Mitosis
Assertion–Reason – Q61 to Q70
61. A: S phase involves DNA synthesis.
R: Histone proteins are also synthesized during S phase.
62. A: Meiosis results in haploid cells.
R: Chromosome number is halved during meiosis I.
63. A: Mitosis is equational division.
R: Daughter cells have the same chromosome number as parent.
64. A: Prophase I is longer than prophase of mitosis.
R: It involves pairing and recombination of homologues.
65. A: Cohesin proteins hold sister chromatids together.
R: Separase enzyme breaks them at anaphase.
66. A: Spindle fibres attach to centromeres via kinetochores.
R: Kinetochores are protein complexes on chromatids.
67. A: G₂ phase precedes M phase.
R: It allows repair of DNA errors before division.
68. A: Cytokinesis always follows karyokinesis.
R: It divides the cytoplasm between daughter cells.
69. A: Cyclin-dependent kinases are activated by cyclins.
R: Activated CDKs phosphorylate target proteins to progress the cycle.
70. A: Telophase in plants involves vesicle fusion.
R: Vesicles form the cell plate from Golgi apparatus.
Section D: Excretory Products and Their Elimination (till Types of Nephron)
(Q71–Q90)
MCQs – Q71 to Q80
71. Structural and functional unit of kidney is:
A. Nephron
B. Glomerulus
C. Bowman’s capsule
D. Loop of Henle
72. Which part of nephron is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Collecting duct
73. Juxtaglomerular cells secrete:
A. ADH
B. Aldosterone
C. Renin
D. ANP
74. Primary urine is formed by:
A. Tubular secretion
B. Glomerular filtration
C. Tubular reabsorption
D. Osmoregulation
75. Counter-current mechanism operates in:
A. Loop of Henle & vasa recta
B. PCT & DCT
C. Glomerulus
D. Collecting duct only
76. Urea contributes to:
A. Plasma oncotic pressure
B. Medullary osmotic gradient
C. Blood pH buffering
D. Blood clotting
77. Which nephron type has long loops of Henle?
A. Cortical nephron
B. Juxtamedullary nephron
C. Intermediate nephron
D. Medullary nephron
78. Majority of glucose reabsorption occurs in:
A. PCT
B. Loop of Henle
C. DCT
D. Collecting duct
79. In humans, nitrogenous waste is mainly:
A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid
D. Creatinine
80. Which hormone increases water reabsorption in kidneys?
A. Aldosterone
B. ADH
C. Renin
D. ANP
Assertion–Reason – Q81 to Q90
81. A: GFR in a healthy adult is ~125 mL/min.
R: It is regulated by glomerular capillary hydrostatic pressure.
82. A: Filtration slits are between podocyte foot processes.
R: They restrict passage of large plasma proteins.
83. A: ADH increases permeability of DCT and collecting duct.
R: It inserts aquaporins in their membranes.
84. A: Afferent arteriole constriction decreases GFR.
R: Less blood enters glomerular capillaries.
85. A: Counter-current in loop of Henle concentrates urine.
R: Ascending limb is impermeable to water and pumps out NaCl.
86. A: Cortical nephrons have shorter loops of Henle.
R: They are less involved in urine concentration.
87. A: Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.
R: ACE converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II.
88. A: Urea recycling helps maintain medullary hyperosmolarity.
R: It moves urea from collecting duct to loop of Henle.
89. A: Proximal tubule reabsorbs most filtrate.
R: It has abundant microvilli and mitochondria.
90. A: Juxtamedullary nephrons are essential for producing concentrated
urine.
R: Their long loops of Henle extend deep into medulla
HOT QUESTIONS
Q1]A= B= C=
D=
2
.
16. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: Atria receive blood from all parts of the body which
subsequently flows to ventricles.
Statement 2: Action potential generated at the sino-atrial node passes
atria to ventricles.
a. Action mentioned in Statement 1 is dependent on action mentioned
in Statement 2
b. Action mentioned in Statement 2 is dependent on action mentioned
in Statement 1
c. Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 is independent of each other.
d. Action mentioned in Statements 1 and 2 is synchronous.
Solution:
Q1: Given below are two statements:
Statement 1:
The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins.
Statement II:
Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes.
<
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate
answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
Q2: Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. Increased ventricular pressure causes closure of the semilunar
valves.
2 The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential
to stimulate atrial contraction
3 The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure
exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria.
4 Blood moves freely from the atrium to the ventricle during joint
diastole.
Q: A specialised nodal tissue embedded in the lower corner of the
right atrium, close to atrio-ventricular septum, delays the
spreading of impulses to heart apex for about 0.1 sec.
This delay allows -
1. blood to enter aorta.
2. the ventricles to empty completely.
3. blood to enter pulmonary arteries.
4. the atria to empty completely.
