SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

First and last name

Question 1/225
What are the minimum certification requirements to act as captain of a
large transport aircraft?
A. An ATPL, category 1 operation and a type rating
B. A CPL, type rating and a valid first-class medical certificate
C. An ATPL, category 1 operation and a valid first class medical
certificate
D. An ATPL, type rating and a valid first class medical certificate

Question 2/225
For which of the following license holder(s) do not require medical examination before license initial issue or
renewal?
A. Commercial pilot (airship)
B. Flight dispatcher
C. Commercial pilot (airplane)
D. None of the above

Question 3/225
Rotation about the lateral axis is known as:
A. Yawing and, and is controlled with the rudder
B. Yawing, and is controlled with the ailerons
C. Pitching and is controlled with the elevator
D. Rolling, and is controlled with the ailerons

Question 4/225
One of the main objectives of ICAO is to:
A. Develop principles and technique for international aviation
B. Approve the ticket prices set by international airline companies
C. Approve new international airlines
D. Approve new international airlines with jet aircraft

Question 5/225
The operating mass:
A. Is the actual mass of the aircraft on take-off
B. Is the dry operating mass and the fuel load
C. Is the lower of the structural mass and the performance limited mass
D. Is the higher of the structural mass and the performance limited mass

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Question 6/225
Which of the following document describes how a commercial air carrier is to comply with the various
applicable regulations and procedures?
A. Minimum equipment list (MEL)
B. Company flight manual
C. Operations specifications
D. Aircraft flight manual

Question 7/225
The primary reason for computing density altitude is to:
A. Determine aircraft performance
B. Determine pressure altitude
C. Ensure safe cruising altitude over mountainous terrain
D. Establish flight levels above 18,00 feet msl

Question 8/225
The aerodrome QFE is:
A. The reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the sea level barometric pressure is set on the sub
scale
B. The aerodrome barometric pressure
C. The reading on the altimeter on an aerodrome when the aerodrome barometric pressure is set on the
subscale
D. The reading on the altimeter on touch down at an aerodrome when 1013.2 is set on the sub scale

Question 9/225
Rapid and extra breathing while using oxygen can cause a condition
known as:
A. Hyperventilation
B. acro sinusitis
C. caerotitis
D. hypoxia

Question 10/225
Emergency distance as it relates to the runway is the
A. Length of the runway plus stopway plus clearway
B. length of the runway plus clearway
C. length of the runway plus accelerate distance plus stopway
D. Length of runway plus stopway only

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Question 11/225
What is index?
A. A mass divided by moment
B. moment divided by mass
C. moment divided by a constant
D. mass multiplied by a constant

Question 12/225
The operation of aircraft is unauthorized within which of the following areas?
A. Restricted areas
B. Warning areas
C. Prohibited areas
D. All special use airspace

Question 13/225
When an aircraft is flying, under what flight rules must the flight be conducted?
A. At the commander‟s discretion
B. IFR in IMC and VFR in VMC
C. Either IFR or VFR
D. In accordance with ATC instructions

Question 14/225
Which level of arousal gives the most effective performance?
A. Optimal arousal
B. Low arousal
C. It depends on the individual
D. High arousal

Question 15/225
Details on how to file flight plan
A. Nig. Cars circulars
B. NOTAMS
C. AIP
D. AIC

Question 16/225
An aircraft is climbing at a constant CAS in ISA conditions what
will be the effect on TAS and Mach No?
A. Both increase
B. Both decrease
C. TAS increases and Mach No decreases
D. TAS decreases and Mach No increases

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Question 17/225
The primacy controls surface of an aircraft is
A. Ailerons, rudders, and elevators
B. Rudders and elevator
C. Flaps, elevator and rudder
D. all the something that control movements along the primary axis

Question 18/225
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute
ceiling is:
A. 0ft/min
B. 500ft/min
C. 125ft/min
D. 100ft/m

Question 19/225
Which of the following distances will increase if you increase V1?
A. Accelerate Stop Distance
B. Take off distance
C. take-off run
D. All Engines Take-off distance

Question 20/225
According to the regulations, the cockpit voice recorder of a 50 seat
multi-engined aircraft having been granted an airworthiness certificate
after 1st April, 1998 shall start recording:
A. Automatically when the wheels leave the ground until the moment
when the wheels touch the ground again
B. Automatically prior to the aircraft moving under its own power
until flight completion when the aircraft is no longer able to move
under its own power
C. When the pilot selects the “CVR:ON” during engine start until the
pilot selects the “CVR:OFF” during the engine shut down
D. From the first radio contact with Air Traffic Control until radio
shut down after the flight

Question 21/225
The angle of attackof an aerofoil is the angle between the:
A. Bottom surface and the horizontal
B. Chord line and the relative airflow
C. Bottom surface and the chord line
D. Bottom surface and the relative airflow

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Question 22/225
The mach number is:
A. The ratio of the aircraft conventional airspeed to the sonic velocity
at the altitude considered
B. The ratio of the indicated airspeed to the sonic velocity at the
altitude considered
C. A direct function of temperature; it varies in proportion to the
square root of the absolute temperature
D. The ratio of the true airspeed to the sonic velocity at the altitude
considered

Question 23/225
The tendency of the airplane to develop forces that further remove the
airplane from its original position, when disturbed from a condition of
steady flight, is kown as:
A. Positive static stability
B. Static instability
C. Neutral static stability
D. Dynamic instability

Question 24/225
The readability scale 3 is:
A. Readable now and then
B. Perfectly readable
C. Readable
D. Readable but with difficulty

Question 25/225
If airplane A is overtaking airplane B, which airplane has the right of
way?
A. Airplane A and it should alter course to the left to pass
B. Airplane B and it should expect to be passed on the right
C. Airplane A and it should alter course to right to pass
D. Airplane B and it should expect to be passed on the left

Question 26/225
In radiotelephony, the words and phrases “verify” means
A. Examine a system or procedure
B. Have I correctly received the following
C. Establish radio contact switch
D. Check and confirm with the originator

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Question 27/225
Flight data recorders must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
A. 30 hours of operation
B. 48 hours of operation
C. 25 hours of operation
D. The whole flight

Question 28/225
The primary reason for computing density altitude is to:
A. Establish flight levels above 18,000ft msl
B. Ensure safe cruising altitude over mountainous terrain
C. Determine pressure altitude
D. Determine aircraft performance

Question 29/225
Dry operating weight consists of:
A. Crew, catering, fuel, basic aircraft weight
B. Operating weight plus payload
C. Basic weight of aircraft
D. Basic weight of aircraft, crew, catering

Question 30/225
To meet the recent flight experience requirements for acting as pilot in
command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made within
the preceding 90 days and at night at least:
A. Three touch and go landings in the same category and class of
aircraft to be used
B. Three takeoffs and three landings, either full stop or touch and go,
but must be accompanied by a certificated flight instructor who meets
the recent experience for night flight
C. Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in the same
category and class of aircraft to be used
D. Three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in the same
category but not necessarily in the same class of aircraft to be used

Question 31/225
The proficiency check of a pilot took place the 15th of April. The
validity of the previous proficiency check was 30th of June. The
period of the new check can be and can‟t exceed
A. 30th of April the following year
B. 31st of December the same year
C. 30th of October the same year
D. 15th of October the same year

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Question 32/225
A pilot should not fly at least how long after a general anesthetic?
A. 48 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 12 hours
D. 2 hours

Question 33/225
One of the main functions of the airline battery is to:
A. Provide DC power for certain equipment
B. Provide AC power for certain equipment
C. Provide electric power for heating
D. Be an emergency source of electric power

Question 34/225
What are the three elements of an air traffic control service?
A. Radar, procedures and alerting service
B. Area, approach and aerodrome
C. Radar, procedural and FIS
D. Radar, SAR and FIS

Question 35/225
Decision making is concept which represents:
A. A spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given
situation when faced with a defined problem
B. A voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among
possible solutions for a given problem
C. An automated or automation like act of applying defined
procedures
D. An automatic process of selection from among the various
solutions to a given problem

Question 36/225
The rate of pressure decrease with height eg in Hpa/100ft is:
A. Greatest in warm air
B. Greatest in cold air
C. The same in cold air and in warm air
D. Inversely proportional to density

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Question 37/225
The mean aerodynamic chord is:
A. A line that separates the upper surface of the wing from the lower
surface of the wing
B. A line from wing tip to wing tip
C. The chord of an imaginary wing with aerodynamic characteristics
of the actual wing
D. The chord line of the wing root

Question 38/225
When a medium range jet transport aircraft descends at the maximum
range speed:
A. Mach number decreases
B. CAS increases
C. Mach number increases
D. IAS increases

Question 39/225
Regulations which refer to the „operational control‟ of a flight are in
relation to:
A. The specific duties of any required crew member
B. Acting as the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls
C. Exercising the privileges of pilot in command of an aircraft
D. Exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating of
a flight

Question 40/225
In TCAS II, a filled red square indicates:
A. Resolution advisory
B. Proximity traffic
C. Non-threat traffic
D. Traffic advisory

Question 41/225
What are stress factors or stressors?
A. Measures of stress exhibited by a person
B. Pulse rate inducers
C. Events and circumstances which cause stress
D. Circumstances or events which provide any kind of reaction to the
demands placed upon the human organism

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Question 42/225
In mass and balance terms, what is an index?
A. A moment divided by a constant
B. A cut down version of a force
C. A mass divided by a moment
D. A moment divided by a mass

Question 43/225
Which of the following is a method of delaying aircraft to help
maintain separation and provide a smooth flow of traffic?
A. Holding system
B. Holding altitude
C. Holding area
D. Holding patterns

Question 44/225
Words for expression “permission not granted is a
A. Never
B. correction
C. not approved
D. negative

Question 45/225
A blocked Eustachian tube
A. Can cause severe pain in the descent
B. Normally only causes severe pain during climb
C. Can cause problems with balancing the pressures the inner ear and the
outside air

Question 46/225
Decompression sickness is cause by
A. Nitrogen bubbles coming out of solution in the blood to form bubbles in
the body tissues
B. The pressure of carbon monoxide from leaking exhausts
C. Over breathing, thereby exceeding the breathing rate needed to maintain
the correct amount of carbon- dioxide in the blood

Question 47/225
The permanent denial of flying license will be the result of a pilot suffering
from;
A. Anxiety and phobic
B. Depression
C. Schizophrenia and Manic Depression

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Question 48/225
if an aircraft with a gross weight of 3000 pounds were subjected to a total load
of 9000 pounds in flight, the load factor will be
A. 2 Gs
B. 3 Gs
C. 9 GS

Question 49/225
The best way in which to overcome hyperventilation is to
A. Increase stress and activity levels
B. Breath normally
C. Declare emergency landing

Question 50/225
The aircraft is pressurized by:
A. Controlling the amount of bleed air off the engines
B. Controlling the amount of bleed air in the engine
C. Controlling the rate that air flow out of the cabin
D. Controlling the rate that air flow into the cabin

Question 51/225
The main purpose of using anti-skid units in the wheel-brake system is to:
A. Prevent brake unit heating becoming excessive
B. Reduce tyre wear
C. Increase the landing distance
D. Reduce the landing speed

Question 52/225
What is meant by presbycusis?
A. Gradual onset of long-sightedness with age.
B. Total loss of hearing in both ears due to disease.
C. Total loss of hearing in one ear due to use of a headset in the cockpit.
D. Gradual loss of hearing with age

Question 53/225
An aeroplane that has positive static stability:
A. can be dynamically stable, neutral, or unstable.
B. is never dynamically stable.
C. is always dynamically unstable
D. is always dynamically stable

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Question 54/225
An alternate airport for departure is required:
A. when destination weather is marginal VFR(ceiling less than 3000 feet and
visibility less than 5sm)
B. when destination weather is marginal VFR ( ceiling less than 1000feet and
visibility less than 2sm)
C. when the weather forecast at the ETD is for landing minimums only at the
departure airport
D. If weather conditions are below authorized landing minimums at departure
airport

Question 55/225
Who is responsible for furnishing the PIC while in flight, by appropriate means with information
which may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight:
A. Flight dispatcher
B. AOC holder
C. Authority
D. Operator

Question 56/225
The manual for aircraft performance planning and aircraft loading and
handling shall be:
A. Specific to the aircraft category and group
B. Specific for the aircraft type and variant
C. Specific to the aircraft type
D. Specific to the aircraft category

Question 57/225
When planning a flight in icing conditions, what are the requirements?
A. Apply anti-fluid
B. Aircraft to be equipped with approved anti-icing equipment
C. Met officer will decide if the flight can take place
D. Take off anyway and hope for the best

Question 58/225
Which statement concerning hypoxia is true?
A. Heavy smokers may experience symptoms of hypoxia at lower altitudes than
non smokers
B. Closing the eyes for a short time may help to overcome the effects of hypoxia
C. The body has a built in alarm system to warn of the onset of hypoxia
D. It is possible to predict exactly when and what flight level hypoxia will occur

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Question 59/225
Why does the wind have a tendency to follow the isobars above the friction level?
A. The coriolis force acts 900 to a line connecting the highs and lows
B. The coriolis force tends to counter balance the horizontal pressure gradient force
C. The friction of the air with the earth deflects the air at 900 to the pressure gradient
D. Isobars are lines connecting points of equal wind direction aloft

Question 60/225
In radiotelephony, the words and phrases “verify” means
A. Examine a system or procedure
B. Have I correctly received the following
C. Establish radio contact switch
D. Check and confirm with the originator

Question 61/225
Flight data recorders must keep data and parameters for at least the last:
A. 30 hours of operation
B. 48 hours of operation
C. 25 hours of operation
D. The whole flight

Question 62/225
One of the reasons the captain of an aircraft needs to know the height of the
tropopause is
because:
A. Density starts to increase
B. It indicates the height of the thermal wind
C. It normally represents the limit of weather
D. There are no longer jet streams and CA

Question 63/225
What is the definition of Vref?
A. 1.3 Vso
B. 1.3 Vstall
C. 1.3 APP

Question 64/225
When does third segment climb end?
A. Flaps up
B. V2
C. Landing gear up

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Question 65/225
The following details apply to a certain Runway 15/33. Runway length 9200ft.
Runway 15 has a displaced threshold of 400ft. Runway 33 has Stop way 250ft and Clearway 600ft.
What is the Landing Distance Available on Runway 15?
A. 9200ft
B. 8800ft
C. 9600ft

Question 66/225
With references to question 6 above
(The following details apply to a certain Runway 15/33. Runway length 9200ft.
Runway 15 has a displaced threshold of 400ft. Runway 33 has Stop way 250ft and Clearway 600ft.)
What is the Take-off Distance Available
on runway 33?
A. 8600ft
B. 9300ft
C. 9800ft
D. 9650ft

Question 67/225
The body‟s internal biological clocks take longer to adjust to local time when flying:
A. West
B. North
C. East
D. South

Question 68/225
During which segment will the W.A.T limit apply for take off
A. 1st segment
B. 2nd segment
C. 3rd segment
D. 4th segment

Question 69/225
What effect would change in ambient temperature or air density have on gas turbine-engine performance?
A. As air density decreases, thrust increases
B. As temperature increase, thrust increases
C. As temperature increases, Thrust decreases

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Question 70/225
What effect, if any does high ambient temperature has upon the thrust output of
a turbine engine?
A. Thrust will be reduced due to decrease in air density
B. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher
C. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air

Question 71/225
What information does flight information service provide ?
A. FIR service only
B. FIR and Alerting services
C. FIR services, alerting services and ATC services

Question 72/225
What are ICAO defined instrument approaches?
A. Instrument precision and CAT 11/111
B. Precision in general
C. Non – precision and CAT 1/11/111 precision
D. Precision CAT 1/11/111

Question 73/225
A national air carrier flight (engage with international flight) lands at an intermediate airport at 1105Z, the latest
time that it may depart without being re-dispatched is:
A. 0005Z
B. 1705Z
C. 2005Z
D. 2305Z

Question 74/225
When does the first segment of take-off begin?
A. When flaps are up
B. When 35ft is reached
C. When v2 is reached
D. When gear and flaps are up

Question 75/225
Where are you likely to find the strongest winds close to the ground?
A. In the transition zone between two air masses
B. At the centre of low pressure system
C. At the centre of a high pressure system
D. Where there is little variation in pressure over a large area during the winter months

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Question 76/225
Flight data recorders systems shall be recalibrated at least every
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 5 years
D. 3 years

Question 77/225
Under part 8 of Nigerian Civil Aviation Regulations the minimum of crew required for IFR commercial air
transport operation is
A. 1 flight crew
B. 2 flight crew
C. 3 flight crew
D. 4 flight crew

Question 78/225
The authority will consider flight crew members to be on continuous duty aloft unless he or she receives a rest
of
A. 8 consecutive hours on the ground
B. 9 consecutive hours on the ground
C. 10 consecutive hours on the ground
D. 11 consecutive hours on the ground

Question 79/225
Who is responsible for designating a qualified person to exercise the functions and Responsibilities for
operational control of each flight in commercial transport?
A. The director of operation
B. PIC
C. The managing director
D. AOC holders

Question 80/225
To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a category 11 authorization, what recent instrument
approach experience isrequired?
A. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category 1 DH
by the use of an approach coupler
B. Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches flown by use of an approach coupler to the category 1
DH
C. Within the previous 12 calendar months, three ILS approaches flown by the use of an approach coupler
to the Category 11 DH

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Question 81/225
What instrument flight time may be logged by a second-in-command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?
A. All of the time the second-in-command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight
instruments
B. One half the time flight is on an IFR flight plan
C. One-half the time the airplane is in actual conditions

Question 82/225
Load sheets are required for every aircraft of more than 1600kg in?
A. The air transport category
B. All categories
C. All categories except private

Question 83/225
Before carrying passengers the pilot in command of an aircraft must have completed, on the aircraft type in
which he intends carrying passengers
A. 5 take offs and landing in the preceding 90 days
B. 5 takes offs and landings in the preceding 6 months
C. 3 take offs and landing in the preceding 90 days
D. 3 take offs and landing in the preceding 6 months

Question 84/225
If a flight plan is to be filled in flight according to CAR‟S part 8, at least how long must it be filled before
entering controlled or advisory air space
A. 30 minutes
B. 60 minutes
C. 10 minutes
D. 15 minutes

Question 85/225
Critical phase of flight includes all ground operations and taxi, take-off and climb to cruise
A. Up to 1500 feet
B. Above 10, 000 feet
C. Up to 10,000 feet
D. Up to 5,000 feet

Question 86/225
During flight, the wing anti-ice system has to protect:
A. The whole upper wing surface and the flaps
B. Leading edges, slats and the leading edge flaps
C. Slats and the leading edge flaps only
D. Leading edges only

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Question 87/225
An ATS flight plan for an internatiomnal flight must be filed at least?
A. 30 minutes before start clearance or taxi clearance is requested
B. 1 hour before departure time
C. 1 hour before stare clearance or taxi clearance is requested
D. 30 minutes before departure time

Question 88/225
Regulations which refer to "operator" relate to that person who
A. Cause the aircraft to be used or authorizes its use
B. Is the sole manipulator of the aircraft controls
C. Is a required crew member aboard the aircraft
D. acts as pilot in command of the aircraft

Question 89/225
Flight Release - Commercial Air Transport is detailed in which part of NIG CARs?
A. 2.8.1
B. 8.12
C. 2.6.1
D. 8.7.1

Question 90/225
Aircarft Operating and Peformance Limitations are stated in which part of NIG CARs?
A. 2.8
B. 8.7
C. 8.12
D. 2.3

Question 91/225
No Aircraft owner or operator shall operate an aircraft without each seat being equipped with?
A. A seat belt
B. A safety harness for all crew members
C. A seat belt for cabin crew members and a safety harness for each flight doctor

Question 92/225
What information must the pilot in command of a supplemental air carrier flight or commercial operator carries
to the destination airport?
A. Cargo and passenger distribution information
B. Copy of flight plan
C. Names of all crew members and designated pilot in command

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Question 93/225
A turbine-engine-powered flag airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the
required fuel reserve?
A. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in a no wind condition fuel consumption
B. 2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption
C. 30 minutes plus 10 percent of total flight time

Question 94/225
What restriction applies to a cargo bin in passenger compartment? The bin
A. May have an open top if it placed in front of the passengers and the cargo is secured by a cargo net
B. Must withstand the load factor required of passengers seats, multiplied 1.15, using the combined weight
of the bin and the maximum weight of the cargo that may be carried in the bin
C. Must be constructed of flame retardant material and fully enclosed

Question 95/225
A crew member interphone system is required on which plane
A. A large airplane
B. A turbojet airplane
C. Any airplane with more than 19 passenger seats

Question 96/225
If an air carrier airplane‟s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route
of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only
A. When able to climb and descend VFR and maintain VFR en route
B. in VFR conditions
C. in day VFR conditions

Question 97/225
When is DME required for an instrument flight/
A. At or above 24,000 feet MSL if VOR navigator equipment is required
B. in terminal radar service area
C. Above 12, 400 feet MSL

Question 98/225
What does the Tri- VASI consist of?
A. Three light bars; red, green, and amber
B. One light projector with three colors; red, green, amber
C. Three glide slopes, each a different color; red green amber

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Question 99/225
A swept wing has:
A. Less drag at low Mach No. more drag at high Mach no.
.
B. More drag at low Mach No. less drag at high Mach no
C. More drag at low and high Mach no

Question 100/225
All aeroplanes with a certificated take-off mass in excess of 27,000kg are required to have fited which type of
light data recorder?
A. Type IIa
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type l

Question 101/225
DA is?
A. A specified altitude in the precision approach to a runway at which a missed approach must be initiated
if the required visual reference to continue the approach has not been established
B. None of the options is correct
C. Both options are correct
D. Decision altitude is referenced to mean sea level

Question 102/225
The aspect ratio of the wing:
A. is the ratio between the tip chord and the wing span
B. is the ratio between the wing span and the root chord
C. is the ratio between the wing span and the mean geometric chord
D. is the ratio between chord and root chord

Question 103/225
A location in the aeroplane which is identified by a number designating its distance from datum is known as:
A. station
B. moment
C. MAC
D. index

Question 104/225
The manual for aircraft performance planning and aircraft loading and handling shall be:
A. Specific to the aircraft category and group
B. Specific for the aircraft type and variant
C. Specific to the aircraft type
D. Specific to the aircraft category

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Question 105/225
Which of the following statement defines a flight release?
A. Both options are correct
B. None of the options is correct
C. A preparation identifying the type of operation with the permitting weight limitations, fuel requirement,
weather conditions at departure, en-route, destination, and alternate airport for safe operation
D. A flight prepared for departure with qualified crew and considering baggage weight and balance, flight
plan, departure weather contingency plans and security brief

Question 106/225
Are flights permitted to deviate from their filed flight plan route?
A. No, it is not approved by the civil aviation authority
B. No even if Ops Manual denotes what types of route are permitted to be used during flight
C. Flights may deviate from these routes to avoid weather or per ATC requests

Question 107/225
The most important restriction to the operation of turbo jet and turboprop engine is
A. Limiting compressor speed
B. Limiting exhaust gas temperature
C. Limiting torque
D. Limiting speed

Question 108/225
The maximum rate of climb that can be maintained at the absolute ceiling is:
A. 0ft/min
B. 500ft/min
C. 125ft/min
D. 100ft/m

Question 109/225
Under normal operating conditions, the maximum cabin altitude of a typical jet transport aircraft will
be maintained between:
A. sea level and 13,000ft
B. sea level and 10,000ft
C. sea level and 8000ft
D. sea level and 15,000ft

Question 110/225
Who make sure that the air transportation of an item of dangerous goods is not prohibited?
A. The loader
B. The shipper when completing the shipper’s declaration for dangerous goods
C. The captain, always using the list of prohibited aircraft items
D. The operator

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Question 111/225
The number and composition of the flight Crew shall not be less than that specified in the
A. Nigerian CARS
B. Certificate of Regulation
C. Flight Manual or other documents associated with the certificate of Airworthiness

Question 112/225
No person may act as PIC or in any other capacity as a required flight Crew member of a civil aircraft of
Nigerian registry unless
A. He or She carries on board the aircraft the appropriate and current logbook
B. He or She carries on board the aircraft a valid medical Certificate and current License issued by ICAO
contracting state
C. He or She carries on board the aircraft the appropriate and current license issued by the authority for
flight crew position for the types of aircraft and valid medical certificate

Question 113/225
No person shall act as PIC of an airplane under IFR, or in weather conditions less than the minimum prescribed
for VFR unless
A. The pilot holds CPL License with Instrument ratings
B. The Pilot holds ATP License with an appropriate aeroplane category, class and type ratings for any type
of aeroplane
C. The pilot holds an instrument rating or ATP license with an appropriate aeroplane category, class and
type (if required) rating for the aeroplane being flown

Question 114/225
The kind of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the
A. Certificate holder’s operation specifications
B. Application submitted for an air Carrier or operating certificate by applicant
C. Air Carrier Certificate or Operating Certificate

Question 115/225
Landings are carried out into the wind because…
A. It gives the pilot greater control over the aircraft at lower speeds
B. It increases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance required
C. It decreases the ground speed and reduces the landing distance available
D. It will reduce the ground speed and reduce the landing distance required

Question 116/225
One of the prerequisites for the formation of a thunderstorm is:
A. The presence of moist air through a considerable depth of the atmosphere
B. A cold isothermal layer through a considerable depth of the atmosphere
C. A rapid drop in surface temperature with an increase in wind strength
D. A gradual increase in cloud cover above 20,000ft

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Question 117/225
Severe turbulence is hazardous to flight through or near CB clouds because of:
A. Loss of control, considerable altitude change
B. Loss of lift, jamming of controls, increase in stalling speed
C. Structural damage to leading edges and windscreen
D. Loss of radio communication on bands below VHF

Question 118/225
The maximum number of hours that a commercial air carrier pilot may fly as a crew in a commercial operation
in any 30 consecutive days period is:
A. 120 hours
B. 100 hours
C. 300 hours
D. 30 hours

Question 119/225
The state of registration is?
A. The state of the owner of the aircraft
B. The state where the aircraft is currently registered
C. The state where the aircraft is first registered
D. The state where the aircraft is finally registered

Question 120/225
How do air masses move at a cold front?
A. Warm air undercuts a cold air mass
B. Warm air overrides a cold air mass
C. Cold air undercuts a warm air mass
D. Cold air overrides a warm air mass

Question 121/225
Which takeoff computation must exceed the length of the runway for a turbine-engine powered small transport
category airplane?
A. Takeoff Distance
B. Acceleration Stop distance
C. Acceleration-Climb distance

Question 122/225
According to NCAR Part 2, what classes of medical exist?
A. Class 1 only
B. Class 1 and 2
C. Class 1,2 and 3
D. Class 1,2, 3 and 4

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Question 123/225
ICAO Annex 6 is applicable to operators authorized to conduct?
A. Only Air Transport operations
B. Only general aviation operations
C. Scheduled and non-scheduled international commercial air transport operations
D. Private and commercial operations

Question 124/225
Flight planning and supervision is stated in which part of NIG CAR?
A. 2.8
B. 2.6
C. 8.12
D. 8.6

Question 125/225
When must a radiation indicator be carried
A. for flights above 29000ft
B. for flights above 49000ft
C. for flights above 39000ft
D. for flights above 59000ft

Question 126/225
What part/subpart of [Link] deals with Flight Dispatch License
A. 2.3
B. 2.8
C. 8.3
D. 8.11

Question 127/225
Air traffic control centres issue clearances for the purpose of?
A. providing advisory ATC
B. Expediting and separating traffic
C. Providing FIS
D. Achieveing seperation between IFR flights

Question 128/225
What is an ATC clearance?
A. A directive for a specific action
B. Authorization to proceed
C. The same as ATC instruction
D. A request for authorization

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Question 129/225
What indicates that a compressor stall has developed and become steady?
A. Strong vibrations and loud roar
B. Occasional loud "bang"
C. Complete loss of power with severe reduction in airspeed

Question 130/225
Which procedure produces the minimum fuel consumption for a given leg of the cruise flight?
A. Increase speed for a tailwind.
B. Increase altitude for a headwind, decrease altitude for a Tailwind.
C. Increase speed for a headwind.

Question 131/225
What is the landing distance required when on a wet runway as opposed to the normal dry length required?
A. 120%
B. 110%
C. 115%

Question 132/225
Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane?
A. VLE.
B. VMO/MMO.
C. VLO/MLO.

Question 133/225
Stress in an individual is largely dependent on:
A. Evaluation of ability and the demands placed upon it
B. Psychological reaction to stimuli
C. Physiological reaction to stimuli

Question 134/225
Donating blood by an operating flight deck crew member is
A. Not permitted for aircrew who are actively flying
B. only permitted within 12 hours of one’s next flight when cleared by a qualified aviation doctor.
C. permitted subject to at least 24 hours elapsing before one’s next flight

Question 135/225
The severity of noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is determined by
A. The volume of noise experienced
B. The duration of high noise levels experienced
C. The volume and duration of the noise experienced

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Question 136/225
An attention gaining mechanism is required in information processing since:
A. The processing capacity and working are limited
B. The memory cannot assimilate all the stimuli around us
C. It is required to pass information from the working to the long term memory

Question 137/225
Anthropometric data is used in the design of Aircraft and flight decks; and the Data is taken from
A. A selected cross-section of the general public
B. A specific population
C. A general cross section of the general public

Question 138/225
Information Obtained From Flight Data and Cockpit Voice Recorder Shall Be Used Only For Determining.
A. Who Was Responsible For Any Accident or Incident.
B. Evidence for Use in Civil Penalty or Certificate Action
C. Possible Causes of Accidents or Incidents

Question 139/225
What does the Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) Consist Of.........
A. Row of Four Lights Parallel to the Runway, Red, White and Green
B. One Light Projector with Two Colors, Red and White
C. Row of Four Lights Perpendicular to the Runway; Red and White

Question 140/225
Which color on a Tri-color VASI is a “high” indication?
A. Red
B. Amber
C. Green

Question 141/225
A green landing gear warning light indicates that the landing gear is
A. Unsafe
B. In transit
C. Up and lock
D. Down and lock

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Question 142/225
In case of an engine failure which is recognized at or above V1:
A. a height of 50 ft most be reached within the takeoff distance
B. the takeoff should be rejected if the speed is still below VR
C. the take-off must be continued
D. the take-off must be rejected, if the speed is still below VLOF

Question 143/225
Following an emergency how soon should dispatcher and pilot file a report?
A. Within 10 days
B. As soon as possible after but not later than 3 days following the event
C. Within 7 days
D. Within 48 hours

Question 144/225
The maximum numbers of hours that a flight crew member for an international flight using two pilots and
additional flight crew member may fly during 90 consecutive days is:
A. 300 hours
B. 350 hours
C. 275 hours
D. 250 hours

Question 145/225
On arrival at an aerodrome the lowest height altitude at which the pilot in command of a turbojet or large aircraft
shall enter the traffic pattern until further descend is required for landing is?
A. 1500ft AGL
B. 1500ft AMSL
C. 500ft AMSL
D. 1000ft AGL

Question 146/225
Stratiform clouds contain
A. small water droplets of rime ice hit the aircraft and freezes rapidly
B. large water droplets of clear ice hit the aircraft and freezes slowly
C. no water droplets

Question 147/225
A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of the Earth to a specified upper limit is:
A. Air traffic zone.
B. Control area.
C. Control zone.
D. Advisory airspace.

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Question 148/225
A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit above the earth is called a:
A. Control zone.
B. Control area.
C. Control center.
D. Terminal control area.

Question 149/225
What is a danger area?
A. An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which flight
of aircraft is prohibited.
B. An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may exist at
specified times.
C. A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded.
D. An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and
to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Question 150/225
What signal shall be used by an emergency aircraft on radio?
A. SOS
B. Emergency
C. Distress
D. MAYDAY

Question 151/225
A "flat-rated" jet engine will give
A. a constant thrust for temperatures above a certain value
B. a constant thrust for temperatures below a certain value
C. decreasing thrust as temperatures decreases below a certain value
D. increasing thrust as temperatures increases above a certain value

Question 152/225
Hypertension is:
A. elevated arterial blood pressure
B. a high state of stress
C. a pre- cursor to the onset of a heart attack
D. a cause of a gout

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Question 153/225
On the retina of the eye, the rod cells are:
A. Sensitive to much lower light levels than the cone cells
B. concentrated in the fovea
C. Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the blue end of the spectrum
D. Highly sensitive to colour changes particularly those at the red end of the spectrum

Question 154/225
An airline operates a flight in VFR over – the – top conditions. What radio navigation equipment is required to
be a dual installation?
A. VOR and DME
B. VOR and ILS
C. VOR
D. DME

Question 155/225
When computing the takeoff data, what is percentage of the effective tailwind component which may be applied
to the still air” data?
A. Not less than 150 percent
B. Not more than 100 percent
C. Not more than 50 percent

Question 156/225
When computing the takeoff data, what is the percentage of the effective headwind component which may be
applied to the still air” data?
A. Not more than 100 percent
B. Not more than 50 percent
C. Not more than 25 percent

Question 157/225
For which of these aircraft is the ‘clearway” for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight
limitation?
A. Passenger-carrying transport aircraft
B. U.S certified air carrier airplanes
C. Turbine-engine-power transport airplanes

Question 158/225
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions
A. Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain
B. Excessive carbon dioxide in the blood stream
C. Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles

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Question 159/225
Hyperventilation is overbreathing which changes:
A. Carbon dioxide balance in the blood
B. Oxygen balance in the blood
C. Nitrogen Balance in the blood

Question 160/225
Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the:
A. Operation manual
B. Flight manual
C. Journey logbook
D. Operational flight plan

Question 161/225
When are life jackets required?
A. 50nm from land
B. 100nm from land
C. 300nm from land
D. 400nm from land

Question 162/225
After an accident, the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorders must keep the original recordings
for a minimum period of:
A. 30 days
B. 90 days
C. 45 days
D. 60 days

Question 163/225
A copy of what info is to be left on the ground?
A. Passenger manifests, notification of special passengers
B. Route specific maps and charts
C. NOTAMs, Tech log, Op flight plan, Mass & Balance, Spec load notification
D. AICs, AISs, and all company NOTAMs

Question 164/225
What is DH used for?
A. Visual manoeuvring
B. Circling to land
C. Precision approaches
D. Non-precision approaches

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Question 165/225
If no other figure is published, by what factor must the landing distance on a wet runway be corrected by?
A. 5%
B. 10 %
C. 15 %
D. 20 %

Question 166/225
What is the weight range for medium category aircraft?
A. 5,700kg to 100,000kg
B. 7,000kg to 125,000kg
C. 5,700kg to 136,000kg
D. 7,000kg to 136,000kg

Question 167/225
After decompression and descent, there will be enough supplementary oxygen available for flight crew for all
flight time above:
A. 13,000ft
B. 15,000ft
C. 25,000ft
D. 14,000ft

Question 168/225
is in the direction of - and lift is perpendicular to the:
A. longitudinal axis
B. horizon
C. chord line
D. relative wind/airflow

Question 169/225
You are on the final approach to a runaway with a standard 3 bar VASI lighting system, The 2 rows of lights
closet to the aircraft are indicating white. Your action should be
A. Climb as you are below the glide slope
B. Continue as you are on the glide slope
C. Descend as you are above the glide slope

Question 170/225
Identify REIL
A. Amber lights f for the first 2,000 feet of runway
B. Green lights at the threshold and red lights at far end of runaway
C. synchronized flashing lights laterally at each slide of the runaway threshold

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 171/225
The principal purpose of flap it to:
A. Reduce stalling speed
B. increase drag while lift is also augmented
C. Reduce Camber

Question 172/225
Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustment trim tab move when the control
surface is moved?
A. Same direction
B. Opposite direction
C. Remains fixed for all positions

Question 173/225
Which is the purpose of leading –edge slats on high performance wings?
A. increase lift at relative low speeds
B. improve aileron control during low angels of attack
C. direct air from the low pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing

Question 174/225
During the acceleration from subsonic to supersonic speed, the center of pressure will:
A. Move forward
B. Move rearward
C. Remain the same

Question 175/225
For a given aircraft mass, the climb gradient:
A. Decreases if flap angle increases, and if temperature decreases
B. Increases if flap angle increases, and if temperature increases
C. Decreases if flap angle increases, and if temperature increases
D. Increases if flap angle increases, and if temperature decreases

Question 176/225
Which of the following correctly defines aerodrome operating minima?
A. Cloud base and RVR for take-off
B. Cloud ceiling and RVR for take-off
C. Cloud ceiling and ground visibility for take-off
D. Cloud base and ground visibility for take off

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Question 177/225
Which statement is true concerning airplane speed symbol?
A. VY; best angle of climb speed
B. VX; best angle of climb speed
C. VSO; power-on stalling speed, gear and flaps retracted
D. VLE; minimum landing speed

Question 178/225
When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums
under IFR for a three-engine airplane?
A. 5km
B. 800m
C. 600m
D. 1500m

Question 179/225
Each crew member shall have readily available for individual use on each flight
A. a Key to the flight deck door
B. Certificate holder manual
C. Flash light in good working order

Question 180/225
Life preservers required for under water operations are stored
A. Within easy reach of each passenger
B. Under occupant seat
C. Within easy reach of each seated occupant

Question 181/225
What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the
airborne weather radar becomes inoperative enroute on IFRflight for which weather reports
indicates possible thunderstorms?
A. Request radar vector from ATC to the nearest suitable airport andl and
B. Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the
operations manual for such event
C. Return to the departure airport if the thunderstorms have not been encountered, and there is enough fuel
remaining

Question 182/225
Full dark adaptation of the cones takes approximately how long?
A. 7 minutes
B. l0 minutes
C. 30 minutes

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 183/225
What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be
considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine powered aircraft?
A. Clearway.
B. Stopway.
C. Obstruction clearance plane

Question 184/225
The pilot in command of an airplane en route determine that icing conditions can be expected that might
adversely affect safety of the flight. Which actions is appropriate
A. The flight may be continued to the original destination airport provided all anti-icing and deicing
equipment is operational and is used.
B. The flight may continue to the original destination airport after climbing to a higher altitude
C. The pilot in command shall not continue flight into the icing conditions
D. The flight may continue to the original destination airport but at a lower altitude.

Question 185/225
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft, you must have either a logbook endorsement showing the satisfactory
completion of a flight review or the pilot proficiency check within the preceding
A. 6 calender months
B. 24 calender months
C. 12 calender months
D. 36 calender months

Question 186/225
Which equipment requirement must be met by air carrier that elects to use a dual inertial Navigation System
(INS) on proposed flight?
A. A dual VOCTAC/ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS
B. The dual system must consist of two operative INS units
C. Only one INS is required to be operative if a Doppler Radar is substituted for the other INS
D. ILS system may be substituted for an inoperative INS

Question 187/225
Blood is carried by ….
A. Alveoli
B. Pulmonary artery
C. Haemoglobin

Question 188/225
Stress management is …
A. Avoidance of stress
B. Removal of stress
C. None is correct

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 189/225
What feature is associated with a temperature inversion?
A. A stable layer of air.
B. An unstable layer of air.
C. Air mass thunderstorms.

Question 190/225
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A. Cumulus.
B. Dissipating.
C. Mature.

Question 191/225
If the unit of measuring MAC is in percentage, what is the percentage of LEMAC?
A. 100 %
B. 25 %
C. 0%
D. 50 %

Question 192/225
If the unit of measuring MAC is in percentage, what is the percentage of TEMAC?
A. 100 %
B. 25 %
C. 0%
D. 50 %

Question 193/225
Cumuliform clouds contain
A. small water droplets of rime ice hit the aircraft and freezes rapidly
B. large water droplets of clear ice hit the aircraft and freezes slowly =
C. no water droplets

Question 194/225
A VFR flight while reporting to ATC should include details like
A. Departure aerodrome, alternate aerodrome, route, destination, altitude, true airspeed
B. Departure aerodrome, destination alternate, true airspeed
C. No option is correct

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 195/225
Area control centers issue clearances for the purpose of
A. Achieving separation between IFR Flights
B. Providing flight information service
C. Providing advisory service
D. Achieving separation between controlled flights

Question 196/225
What is a controlled flight?
A. A flight under IFR and in accordance with AOC
B. A flight which is subjected to an ATC clearance
C. A flight in controlled airspace in IFR or VFR

Question 197/225
What is the meaning of the phrase "ACKNOWLEDGE"?
A. I have received all of your last transmission.
B. Repeat all or the following part of your last transmission.
C. Let me know that you have received and understood this message.
D. My transmission is ended and I expect a response from you.

Question 198/225
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern hemisphere?
A. It remains constant throughout the year.
B. It remains constant from north to south.
C. It increases from south to north.
D. It decreases from equator to pole.

Question 199/225
The height and the temperature of the tropopause are respectively in the order of
A. 8 km and - 75°C over the poles
B. 16 km and -40°C over the poles
C. 16 km and -75°C over the equator
D. 8 km and -40°C over the equator

Question 200/225
The percentage concentration of gases in the atmosphere is constant from the surface of the earth to a certain
altitude with the exception of:
A. Hydrogen
B. Water vapour
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 201/225
Which layer of the atmosphere contains more than 90 % of the total amount of water vapour?
A. Higher stratosphere
B. Ionosphere
C. Troposphere
D. Lower stratosphere

Question 202/225
Where in the NCAR will you find detailed of flight crew duty rest period set out?
A. Part 8
B. Part 2
C. Part 7
D. ICAO Annex 1

Question 203/225
Maximum indicated Airspeed below 10,000ft
A. 250 kts
B. 230 kts
C. 200 kts

Question 204/225
hin What Frequency Range Does the Localizer Transmitter of the ILS Operate?
A. 108.10 to 118.I0MHZ
B. 108.l0 to 111.95MHZ
C. I08.10 to 117.95MHZ

Question 205/225
at high subsonic or transonic speeds the most important type of drag to be considered is:
A. Induced drag
B. form drag
C. interference drag

Question 206/225
Which of the following statements is true?
A. Any psychiatric disease results in a permanent loss of license
B. Psychosis results in permanent loss of license
C. Neurosis result in permanent lost of license

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 207/225
During the life cycle of a thunderstorm, which stage is characterized predominately by downdrafts?
A. Dissipating
B. Maturity
C. Building
D. Cumulus

Question 208/225
When wind blows and there is friction between the ground and the wind, what is the effect of the friction on the
wind on the ground?
A. veering and increasing
B. veering and decreasing
C. backing and increasing
D. backing and decreasing

Question 209/225
HOW DO YOU TRANSMITT 112.775 MHZ?
A. WUN WUN TOO DAYSEEMAL SEVEN SEVEN FIFE
B. ONE ONE TWO DESIMAL SEVEN SEVEN FIVE
C. WUN WUN TWO DACIMAL SEVEN SEVEN FIFE

Question 210/225
If the control column is moved forward and to the left:
A. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves up
B. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves down
C. the left aileron moves up, right aileron moves down, elevator moves down
D. the left aileron moves down, right aileron moves up, elevator moves up

Question 211/225
What does the word "cancel" mean?
A. Consider that transmission as not sent.
B. A change has been made to your last clearance.
C. Annul the previously transmitted clearance.
D. Wait and I will call you.

Question 212/225
Drag is in the direction of --- and lift is perpendicular to the:
A. longitudinal axis
B. horizon
C. chord line
D. relative wind/airflow

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 213/225
An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:
[Link] blocks, confusion and channelized attention
[Link], frustration, rage
[Link] in motor coordination
[Link] pitch voice and fast speaking
A. 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
B. 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
C. 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
D. 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

Question 214/225
A squall line usually is most likely to be encountered:
A. In an air mass with cold mass properties
B. Behind of a stationary front
C. Ahead of a cold front
D. At an occluded front

Question 215/225
What is the readability scale of number 2?
A. Readable now and then
B. Unreadable
C. Readable but with difficulty
D. None of above

Question 216/225
A line drawn on a chart joining places having the same barometric pressure at the same level and at the same
time is?
A. An isobar
B. An isotherm
C. An isollabar
D. A contour

Question 217/225
One method to compensate adverse yaw is a
A. balance tab
B. differential aileron
C. antibalance tab
D. balance panel

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 218/225
Under what condition does pressure altitude have the same value as density altitude?
A. When the altimeter has no position error
B. At standard temperature
C. When the altimeter setting is 1013.2 hpa
D. At sea level when the temperature is 0C

Question 219/225
Which factor has the effect of increasing V1 speed?
A. Low temperature
B. Dry cold air
C. Slush or standing water on the runway
D. High takeoff gross weight

Question 220/225
Moist air is:
A. Less dense than dry air
B. Warmer than dry air
C. Denser than dry air
D. Colder than dry air

Question 221/225
Bernoulli's equation can be written as: (pt = total pressure, ps = static pressure, q = dynamic pressure)
A. pt - q = ps
B. pt = q - ps
C. pt = ps - q
D. pt + ps = q

Question 222/225
As a general rule, aircraft tend to become more stable with
A. flaps extended
B. light loads
C. forward loading
D. aft loading

Question 223/225
A Rhumb line is
A. the shortest distance between two points on a Polyconic projection
B. any straight line on a Lambert projection
C. a line on the surface of the earth cutting all meridians at the same angle
D. a line convex to the nearest pole on a Mercator projection

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 SFO 28 FD1 RESIT PRACTICE FINAL - questions

Question 224/225
The pressure system which gives rise to a subsidence inversion is
A. cyclone
B. anticyclone
C. trough
D. col

Question 225/225
To which aircraft do ICAO rules of the air apply to
A. All aircraft
B. All aircraft flying over the seas
C. All aircraft with MTOM > 5700kg flying for commercial air transport
D. Aircraft bearing an ICAO contracting state registration mark

40