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Biology 6. The asexual spores of deuteromycetes are:

1. Aplanospores
1. Select the correctly written complete 2. Conidia
scientific name of Mango which was first 3. Zoospores
described by Carolus Linnaeus: 4. Basidiospores
1. Mangifera Indica
2. Mangifera indica Car. Linn. 7. Which of the following nucleic acids is
3. Mangifera indica Linn. present in an organism having 70 S ribosomes
4. Mangifera indica only?
1. Single-stranded DNA with a protein coat
2. Match the following: 2. Double-stranded circular naked DNA
List I List II 3. Double-stranded DNA enclosed in nuclear
A. Rose I. Twisted aestivation membrane
4. Double-stranded circular DNA with histone
B. Pea II. Perigynous flower
proteins
C. Cotton III. Drupe
Marginal 8. Which of the following statements is
D. Mango IV.
placentation incorrect?
Biomass decreases from first to fourth
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. trophic level.
given below: Energy content gradually increases from
1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2.
first to fourth trophic level.
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Number of individuals decreases from first
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 3.
trophic level to fourth trophic level.
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Energy content gradually decreases from
4.
3. Following crops have been extensively first to fourth trophic level.
cultivated in CO2 rich atmosphere for higher
yield:
9. With respect to metaphase, which of the
1. Sugar beet and Cabbage
following statements is incorrect ?
2. Carrots and Tomatoes
3. Wheat and Sugar beet Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
1.
4. Tomatoes and Bell pepper takes place.
2. Chromosomes are highly condensed.
4. What is the reason for the formation of Metaphase chromosomes are made up of
embryoids from pollen grain in tissue culture 3. four sister chromatids held together by
medium? centromere.
1. Cellular totipotency 4. Chromosomes lie at the equator of the cell.
2. Organogenesis
3. Double fertilization
4. Test tube culture 10. In which of the following sets of families,
the pollen grain are viable for months?
5. Production of cucumber has increased 1. Solanaceae, Poaceae and Liliaceae
manifold in recent years. Application of which 2. Brassicaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
of the following phytohormones has resulted in 3. Rosaceae, Liliaceae and Poaceae
this increased yield as the hormone is known to 4. Leguminosae, Solanaceae and Rosaceae
produce female flowers in plants?
1. Cytokinin 2. ABA
3. Gibberellin 4. Ethylene

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11. In which of the following interactions both 16. What is the net gain of ATP when each
partners are adversely affected? molecule of glucose is converted to two
1. Competition 2. Predation molecules of pyruvic acid?
3. Parasitism 4. Mutualism 1. Eight 2. Four
3. Six 4. Two

12. Compared to a dicot root, a monocot root

has: 17. Which one of the following is not a criterion
1. Many xylem bundles of genetic material?
2. Inconspicuous annual rings Should not provide the scope for changes for
3. Relatively thicker periderm 1.
evolution
4. More abundant secondary xylem Should be able to express itself in the form of
2.
Mendelian character
13. World Summit on Sustainable Development
3. Should be able to generate its replica
(2002) was held in:
4. Should be stable chemically and structurally
1. Brazil 2. Sweden
3. Argentina 4. South Africa
18. Which classes of algae possess pigment
fucoxanthin and pigment phycoerythrin,
14. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been respectively?
used for designing novel: 1. Phaeophyceae and Chlorophyceae
1. Bioinsecticidal plants 2. Phaeophyceae and Rhodophyceae
2. Bio-mineralization processes 3. Chlorophyceae and Rhodophyceae
3. Biofertilizers 4. Rhodophyceae and Phaeophyceae
4. Bio-metallurgical techniques
19. Match Column I with Column II for housefly
15. Which one of the following can be classification and select the correct option using
explained as the basis of Mendel's Law of the codes given below:
dominance?
Column I Column II
Out of one pair of factors, one is dominant
A: A. Family (i) Diptera
and the other is recessive.
B. Order (ii) Arthropoda
Alleles do not show any expression and both
B: the characters appear as such in C. Class (iii) Muscidae
F2 generation. D. Phylum (iv) Insecta
Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid 1. A-(iii) B-(i) C-(iv) D-(ii)
C: 2. A-(iii) B-(ii) C-(iv) D-(i)
plants.
3. A-(iv) B-(iii) C-(ii) D-(i)
The discrete unit controlling a particular
D: 4. A-(iv) B-(ii) C-(i) D-(iii)
character is called factor.
The expression of only one of the parental
E:
characters is found in a monohybrid cross.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A, C, D and E only
2. B, C and D only
3. A, B, C, D and E
4. A, B and C only

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20. Correct position of floral parts over 25. The difference in gram ⊕ and gram Θ
thalamus in the mustard plant is: bacteria is due to:
Gynoecium occupies the highest position, 1. Cell wall 2. Cell membrane
1.
while the other parts are situated below it. 3. Ribosome 4. Cytoplasm
Margin of the thalamus grows upward,
2. enclosing the ovary completely, and other
parts arise below the ovary. 26. Which of the following statements is not
Gynoecium is present in the center and other
correct?
3.
parts cover it partially. 1. Pyramid of energy is always upright.
Gynoecium is situated in the center, and Pyramid of numbers in a grassland
2.
4. other parts of the flower are located at theecosystem is upright.
rim of the thalamus, at the same level. Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
3.
inverted.
Pyramid of biomass in sea is generally
21. Which one of the following is wrong in 4. upright.
relation to photorespiration:
1. It occurs in chloroplasts
2. It occurs in the daytime only 27. Arrange the following events of meiosis in a
3. It is a characteristic of C4 plants correct sequence:
4. It is a characteristic of C3 plants I. Crossing over
II. Synapsis
III. Terminalisation of chiasmata
IV. Disappearance of nucleolus
1. II, I, IV, III 2. II, I, III, IV
3. I, II, III, IV 4. II, III, IV, I

22. Somaclones are obtained by:

1. tissue culture 28. In angiosperms, microsporogenesis and
2. plant breeding megasporogenesis?
3. irradiation 1. Occur in anther
4. genetic engineering 2. Form gametes without further divisions
3. Involve meiosis
23. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be 4. Occur in ovule
produced by:
removing androecium of flowers before
1.
pollen grains are released
treating the plants with low concentrations
2.
of gibberellic acid and auxins
3. raising the plants from vernalised seeds
treating the plants with phenylmercuric
4.
acetate

24. Diatomaceous earth is used as a heat

insulator in boilers and steam pipes because
the cell wall of diatom is
1. Composed of iron
2. Composed of silicon dioxide
3. a good conductor of heat
4. a bad conductor of electricity

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29. Match List I with List II. 33. Which one from those given below is the
List I List II period for Mendel's hybridization experiments?
Unlimited resource 1. 1840-1850 2. 1857-1869
A. Logistic growth I. availability 3. 1870-1877 4. 1856-1863
condition
Limited resource
B. Exponential growth II. availability 34. Which of the following statements
condition regarding mitochondria is incorrect?
The percent Mitochondrial matrix contains single
1.
individuals of pre- circular DNA molecule and ribosomes.
reproductive age is Outer membrane is permeable to monomers
Expanding age 2.
C. III. largest followed by of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins.
pyramid
reproductive and Enzymes of electron transport are embedded
post reproductive 3.
in the outer membrane.
age groups Inner membrane is convoluted with
The percent 4.
infoldings.
individuals of pre-
D. Stable age pyramid IV. reproductives and
reproductive age 35. Which of the following rRNA acts as
group are same structural RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
Choose the correct answer from the 1. 5S rRNA
options given below:
2. 18S rRNA
Options: A B C D
3. 23S rRNA
1. II IV III I
4. 5.8S rRNA
2. II I III IV
3. II III I IV
4. II IV I III 36. The plant body is thalloid in:
1. Sphagnum 2. Salvinia
3. Marchantia 4. Funaria
30.
The cork cambium, cork and secondary cortex
are collectively called:
37.
1. phellogen
Which one of the following animals is correctly
2. periderm
matched with its particular named taxonomic
3. phellem
category?
4. phelloderm
1. Cuttlefish – Mollusca, a class
2. Humans – Primate, the family
31. Which of the following is considered a hot
3. Housefly – Musca, an order
spot of biodiversity in India?
4. Tiger – Tigris, the species
1. Western Ghats
2. Indo-Gangetic plain
3. Eastern Ghats
4. Aravalli hills

32. Which of the following yields citric acid?

1. Penicillium citrinum
2. Aspergillus niger
3. Saccharomyces
4. Azospirillium

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38. Which of the following is the correct floral 42. Stored food in fungi:
formula of Liliaceae? 1. Starch
2. Proteins
1. 3. Glycogen
4. Chitin

2. 43. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II
Disc shaped sacs or cisternae
A Fleming I.
3. near cell nucleus
Robert
B. II. Chromatin
Brown
4. George
C. III. Ribosomes
Palade
Camillo
D. IV. Nucleus
Golgi
39. Which of the following statements is Choose the correct answer form the options
incorrect? given below:
1. RuBisCO is a bifunctional enzyme 1. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
In C4 plants, the site of RuBisCO activity is 2. A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
2. 3. A-I,B-II, C-III, D-IV
mesophyll cell
The substrate molecule for RuBisCO activity 4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
3.
is a 5-carbon compound
44. The vertical distribution of different species
4. RuBisCO action requires ATP and NADPH
occupying different levels in a biotic
community is known as:
1. divergence
40. To obtain virus-free healthy plants from a 2. stratification
diseased one by tissue culture technique, which 3. zonation
part/parts of the diseased plant will be taken? 4. pyramid
1. Apical meristem only
2. Palisade parenchyma
3. Both apical and axillary meristems 45. Which stage of meiotic prophase shows
4. Epidermis only terminalisation of chiasmata as its distincitve
feature?
1. Diakinesis
41. It takes a very long time for pineapple 2. Pachytene
plants to produce flowers. Which combination 3. Leptotene
of hormones can be applied to artificially 4. Zygotene
induce flowering in pineapple plants
throughout the year to increase yield? 46. A population will not exist in Hardy-
1. Cytokinin and Abscisic acid Weinberg equilibrium if:
2. Auxin and Ethylene 1. individuals mate selectively
3. Gibberellin and Cytokinin 2. there are no mutations
4. Gibberellin and Abscisic acid 3. there is no migration
4. the population is large

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47. Colostrum, the yellowish fluid, secreted by 51. Bt toxin protein that can kill many insects,
the mother during the initial days of lactation is doesn't kill the Bacillus because:
very essential to impart immunity to newborn 1. Bt toxin requires acidic pH for activation
infants because it contains: 2. Bacillus has protective mechanism against it
1. Immunoglobulin A 2. Natural killer cells In Bacillus, it is present in an inactive state
3. Monocytes 4. Macrophages 3. and once insects ingests it, it is converted to
active form
The protoxin requires protein conjugate for
48. Which of the following graphs depicts the 4. its activation
effect of substrate concentration on velocity of
enzyme catalysed reaction?
52. Ventricular contraction is in command of :
1. S.A. Node
2. A.V. Node
1. 2. 3. Purkinje fibers
4. Papillary muscles

53. Choose the correct statement given below

regarding juxta medullary nephron.
Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron
1.
lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron
2.
3. 4. runs deep into medulla.
Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the
3.
cortical nephrons.
Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the
4.
columns of Bertini.

49. Injury localized to the hypothalamus would

most likely disrupt: 54.
1. short-term memory Which one of the following is the most widely
2. co-ordination during locomotion accepted method of contraception in India, as
3. executive functions, such as decision making present?
4. regulation of body temperature
1. Tubectomy
50. Reduction in pH of blood will? 2. Diaphragms
1. reduce the blood supply to the brain 3. IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
4. Cervical caps
decrease the affinity of hemoglobin with
2.
oxygen
lead to release of bicarbonate ions by the
3.
liver
4. reduce the rate of heartbeat

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55. Which of the following statements are 60. Which one of the following features are not
correct regarding skeletal muscle? true for chordates?
Muscle bundles are held together (a) Heart is dorsal.
A: by collagenous connective tissue layer called (b) Pharynx is perforated by gill slits.
fascicle. (c) Central nervous system is ventral, solid and
Sarcoplasmic reticulum of muscle fibre is a single.
B: (d) Post-anal tail is present.
store house of calcium ions.
(e) Notochord is present.
Striated appearance of skeletal muscle fibre
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
C: is due to distribution pattern of actin and
option given below:
myosin proteins.
1. (e) only 2. (a), (d) and (c) only
M line is considered as functional unit of
D: 3. (b) and (c) only 4. (a) and (c) only
contraction called sarcomere.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the

options given below: 61. The concept of chemical evolution is based
on:
1. C and D only 2. A, B and C only
1. crystallization of chemicals
3. B and C only 4. A, C and D only
interaction of water, air, and clay under
2.
intense heat
56. Ureters act as urinogenital ducts in: 3. effect of solar radiation on chemicals
1. frog's males possible origin of life by a combination of
2. human males 4. chemicals
3. human females under suitable environmental conditions
4. frogs, both males and females

57. After ovulation, follicles convert into:62. Match List-I with List-II:
1. Corpus luteum List-I List-II
2. Corpus albicans (a) Cellular barrier (i) Interferons
3. Corpus cavernosa
(b) Cytokine barrier (ii) Mucus
4. Corpus callosum
(c) Physical barrier (iii) Neutrophils
58. Thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR (d) Physiological (iv)
HCI in gastric
was isolated from: barrier juice
1. Thermus aquaticus
2. Escherichia coli Choose the correct answer from the options
3. Agrobacterium tumefaciens given below:
4. Bacillus thuringiensis (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
59. 2. (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Which one of the following pairs of organs
3. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
includes only the endocrine glands?
4. (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
1. Parathyroid and adrenal
2. Pancreas and parathyroid
3. Thymus and testes 63. Concanavalin A is:
4. Adrenal and ovary 1. a pigment
2. an alkaloid
3. an essential oil
4. a lectin

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64. Select the answer with correct matching of 67.

the structure, its location and function: 'Bundle of His' is a part of which one of the
A B C following organs in humans?
Controls
respiration 1. Heart
1. Cerebellum Mid brain 2. Kidney
and gastric
secretions 3. Pancreas
4. Brain
Controls body
temperature,
68. Which one of the following statement with
2. Hypothalamus Fore brain urge for
regards to the excretion by the human kidneys
eating and
is correct?
drinking
Descending limb of Loop of Henle is
Near the 1.
Rods and cones impermeable to water
place where
are Distal convoluted tubule is incapable of
3. Blind spot optic nerve 2.
present but reabsorbing HCO3
leaves the
inactive here
eye Nearly 99 per cent of the glomerular filtrate
Equalizes air 3. is reabsorbed
Anterior part pressure on by the renal tubules
Eustachian
4. of internal either sides of Ascending limb of Loop of Henle is
tube 4.
ear tympanic impermeable to electrolytes
membrane

69. Select the option including all sexually

65. Which of the following options correctly transmitted diseases:
represents the lung conditions in asthma and 1. Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes
emphysema, respectively? 2. AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
Inflammation of bronchioles; decreased 3. Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
1. 4. Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
respiratory surface
Increased number of bronchioles; increased
2. 70. Which of the following joints would allow
respiratory surface
no movement?
Increased respiratory surface; inflammation
3. 1. Fibrous joint
of bronchioles
2. Cartilaginous joint
Decreased respiratory surface; inflammation 3. Synovial joint
4.
of bronchioles 4. Ball and socket joint

71. Choose the correct statement about a

66. Tobacco plants resistant to a nematode have muscular tissue:
been developed by the introduction of DNA that Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and
produced (in the host cells): 1.
found in parallel bundles.
1. A particular hormone
Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle
2. An antifeedant 2.
cells to contract as a unit.
3. A toxic protein
4. Both sense and anti-sense RNA The walls of blood vessels are made up of
3.
columnar epithelium.
Smooth muscles are multinucleated and
4.
involuntary

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72. Given below are two statements: one is 75. Match the following genera with their
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is respective phylum :
labelled as Reason (R): Column I Column II
FSH acts upon ovarian follicles (a) Ophiura (i) Mollusca
Assertion (A): in female and Leydig cells in (b) Physalia (ii) Platyhelminthes
male.
(c) Pinctada (iii) Echinodermata
Growing ovarian follicles
(d) Planaria (iv) Coelenterata
secrete estrogen in female while
Reason (R):
interstitial cells secrete
androgen in male human being. Select the correct option :
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1. iv i iii ii
correct answer from the options given below: 2. iii iv i ii
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 3. i iii iv ii
1.
correct explanation of (A). 4. iii iv ii i
2. (A) is True but (R) is False
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 76. Given below are some stages of human
4. evolution. Arrange them in the correct
correct explanation of (A).
sequence (Past to Recent):
A. Homo habilis
73. Genetic engineering involves: B. Homo sapiens
1. Use of restriction endonuclease on bacterial C. Homo neanderthalensis
DNA and formation of new traits D. Homo erectus
2. Use of Ligase for cutting DNA Choose the correct sequence of human
3. Developing instruments evolution from the options given below :
4. Use of statistic in genetics 1. B-A-D-C
2. C-B-D-A
74. Injury to adrenal cortex is not likely to 3. A-D-C-B
affect the secretion of which one of the 4. D-A-C-B
following?
1. Aldosterone 77. HIV that causes AIDS first starts destroying:
2. Both androstenedione and 1. B-lymphocytes 2. leucocytes
dehydroepiandrosterone 3. helper T-lymphocytes 4. thrombocytes
3. Adrenalin
4. Cortisol
78. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is:
1. lysozyme
2. ribozyme
3. ligase
4. deoxyribonuclease

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79. A diagram showing the axon terminal and 82. The haemoglobin content per 100 ml of
synapse is given. Identify correctly at least two blood of a normal healthy human adult is:
of A-D: 1. 25-30 g
2. 17-20g
3. 12-16 g
4. 5-11

83. Match the following parts of a nephron with

their function:
Descending
1. B- Synaptic connection; D- K+ Reabsorption of salts
(a) limb of Henle's (i)
2. A- Neurotransmitter; B- Synaptic cleft only
loop
3. C- Neurotransmitter; D- Ca++ Proximal
4. A- Receptor; C- Synaptic vesicles Reabsorption of water
(b) convoluted (ii)
only
tubule
80. Given below are two statements: One is Conditional
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled (c) Ascending limb (iii) reabsorption of sodium
as Reason R. of Henle's loop
ions
During the transporation of Distal Reabsorption of ions,
gases, about 20-25 percent of (d) convoluted (iv) water, and organic
Assertion (A):
CO2 is carried by haemoglobin tubule nutrients
as carbamino-haemoglobin.
This binding is related to high Select the correct option from the following:
Reason (R): pCO and low pO in the tissues
2 2
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1. i iii ii iv
correct answer from the options given below. 2. ii iv i iii
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. i iv ii iii
2. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. iv i iii ii
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 84. Which of the following sexually transmitted
4. diseases is not completely curable?
correct explanation of (A).
1. Chlamydiosis
2. Gonorrhoea
81. RNA interference is used for which of the 3. Genital warts
following purposes in the field of 4. Genital herpes
biotechnology?
1. to develop a plant tolerant to abiotic stresses 85. Which of the following is present between
the adjacent bones of the vertebral column?
to develop a pest-resistant plant against
2. 1. Smooth muscle
infestation by nematode
2. Intercalated discs
3. to enhance the mineral usage by the plant 3. Cartilage
4. to reduce post-harvest losses 4. Areolar tissue

86. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in

which part of the reproductive system?
1. Seminal vesicles
2. Mushroom glands
3. Testes
4. Vas deferens

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87. In a human female, the blastocyst: 90. Match the following

List-I List-II
gets implanted into uterus three days after (a) Physalia i. Pearl oyster
1.
ovulation (b) Limulus ii. Portuguese Man of War
gets nutrition from uterine endometrial (c) Ancylostoma iii. Living fossil
2.
secretion only after implantation
(d) Pinctada iv. Hookworm
gets implanted in endometrium by the
3.
trophoblast cells Choose the correct answer from the options
4. forms placenta even before implantation given below:

Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)

88. Given below are two statements: one is 1. ii iii iv i
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is 2. i iv iii ii
labelled as Reason (R) 3. ii iii i iv
Polymerase chain reaction is
Assertion (A): 4. iv i iii ii
used in DNA amplification.
The ampicillin resistant gene is
Reason (R): used as a selectable marker to
check transformation. Chemistry
In the light of the above statements, choose the 91. The compound that contains zero oxidation
correct answer from the options given below: state of Fe is:
1. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
1. [Fe(CN)6]-4 2. [Fe(CN)6]-3
Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2. 3. Fe(CO)5 4. All of the above.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
3.
the correct explanation of (A).
4. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. 92. Uncertainty in position of a e− and He is
similar. If uncertainty in momentum of e− is
32 × 10 , then uncertainty in momentum of
5

89. Which of the following is an amino acid He will be:

derived hormone? 1. 32 × 105 2. 16×105
1. Epinephrine 3. 8 × 105 4. None of the above
2. Ecdysone
3. Estradiol
4. Estriol 93. Which of the following reactions cannot
form new carbon-carbon bonds?
1. Reimer-Tiemann reaction
2. Cannizaro reaction
3. Wurtz reaction
4. Friedel-Crafts acylation

94. Which of the following pairs of ions are

isoelectronic and isostructural?
2− 2−
1. CO3 , SO3
− 2−
2. ClO3 , CO3
2− −
3. SO3 , NO
3
− 2−
4. ClO3 , SO3

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95. Product 'P' in the above reaction is: 99. Anticancer agent among the following is:

1. 2.

1. 2.
3. 4.

3. 4.

100. In acidic medium, H2O2 changes Cr2O7–2 to

CrO5 which has two (–O – O–) bonds.
96. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
−
DMF
−
The oxidation state of Cr in CrO5 is:
R − Br + Cl −−
− → R − Cl + Br
1. +5
one of the following that has the highest 2. +3
relative rate is: 3. +6
4. -10

1. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 Br 2. 101. The nitration of aniline in a strong acidic

medium results in the formation of m-
nitroaniline because:
In spite of substituents, the nitro group
1.
always goes to only the m-position.
3. 4. CH3 CH2 Br
In electrophilic substitution reactions, the
2.
amino group is meta-directive.
In the absence of substituents, the nitro
3.
group always goes to only m-position.
97. A compound contains C, H, and O. If C = 40% 4. In an acidic (strong) medium, aniline is
and H = 6.67% and rest is oxygen, then the present as an anilinium ion.
empirical formula of the compound will be:
1. CH2 O
2. CH4 O 102. The correct thermal stability order for
3. CH4 O2 H2 E, E = O, S, Se, Te and Po among the
4. CHO following is:
1. H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 Po < H2 O < H2 S
98. How many grams of cobalt metal will be 2. H2 S < H2 O < H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 Po
deposited when a solution of cobalt (II) chloride 3. H2 O < H2 S < H2 Se < H2 Te < H2 PO
is electrolyzed with a current of 10 amperes for 4. H2 Po < H2 Te < H2 Se < H2 S < H2 O
109 minutes?
(1 Faraday = 96,500 C; Atomic mass of Co = 59 u) 103. A saturated solution of Ba(OH)2 has a pH of
1. 4.0 2. 20.0 12. The value of its Ksp will be:
3. 40.0 4. 0.66 1. 4. 00 × 10−6 M 3
−7
2. 4. 00 × 10 M
3

3. 5. 00 × 10−6 M
3

−7
4. 5. 00 × 10 M
3

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

104. In which of the following compounds, the 108. The correct statement regarding a solution
C—Cl bond ionization shall give the most stable of two components A and B exhibiting positive
carbonium ion? deviation from ideal behaviour is :
Intermolecular attractive force between A-A
1.
1. 2. and B-B are stronger than those between A-B
2. ∆mixH = 0 at constant T and P
3. ∆mixV = 0 at constant T and P
3. 4. Intermolecular attractive forces between A-A
4.
and B-B are equal to those between A-B

109. The following data is for a reaction

105. A gas is allowed to expand in a well- between reactants A and B:
insulated container against a constant external Rate
pressure of 2.5atm from an initial volume of [A] [B]
mol L−1 s−1
2.50 L to a final volume of 4.50L. The change in
internal energy U of the gas in joules will be: 2 × 10
−3
0.1 M 0.1 M
1. –500J 2. –505J 4 × 10
−3
0.2 M 0.1 M
3. –506J 4. –508J 1.6 × 10
−2
0.2 M 0.2 M

The order of the reaction with respect to A and

106. The incorrect statement among the B, respectively are:
following is: 1. 1, 0
1. SnF4 is ionic in nature. 2. 0, 1
2. PbF4 is covalent in nature. 3. 1, 2
3. SiCl4 is easily hydrolysed. 4. 2, 1
4. GeX4 (X = F, Cl, Br, I) is more stable than
110. During the preparation of Mohr's salt
GeX2
solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which
of the following acid is added to prevent
107. The first ionization enthalpies of elements
hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?
X and Y are 419 kJ mol–1 and 590 kJ mol–1, 1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
respectively and the second ionization 2. Dilute nitric acid
enthalpies of X and Y are 3069 kJ mol–1 and 3. Dilute sulphuric acid
1145 kJ mol–1, respectively. The correct 4. Dilute hydrochloric acid
statement is:
X is an alkali metal and Y is an alkaline earth
1.
metal.
X is an alkaline earth metal and Y is an alkali
2.
metal.
3. Both X and Y are alkali metals.
4. Both X and Y are alkaline earth metals.

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

111. The major product P formed in the 114. The change in oxidation number of
following reaction sequence is: chlorine when Cl2 gas reacts with hot and
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is:
1. Zero to +1 and Zero to –5
2. Zero to –1 and Zero to +5
3. Zero to –1 and Zero to +3
4. Zero to +1 and Zero to –3

115. Maximum number of electrons in a

subshell with l = 3 and n = 4 is:
1. 2.
1. 14
2. 16
3. 10
4. 12

3. 4. 116. Among the following, which hydrolysis

reaction occurs at the slowest rate:

1.
112. The product formed in the below-
mentioned reaction is:
2.

3.
1.

4.
2.

3. 117. The compound that forms linear polymer

due to H-bond is:
1. H2O 2. NH3
4.
3. HBr 4. HCl

113. Which hormone facilitates the conversion

of glucose to glycogen?
1. Bile acids
2. Adrenaline
3. Insulin
4. Cortisone

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

118. Identify the final product [D] obtained in 122. Match Column I with Column II, Columns I
the following sequence of reactions: and II represent complexes and magnetic
moment (BM) respectively.
Column I Column II
(a) [FeCN6]3- (i) 5.92 BM
(b) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (ii) 0 BM
(c) [Fe(CN)6]4- (iii) 4.90 BM
(d) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (iv) 1.73 BM
1. HC ≡ C
−
Na
+
2.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
3. 4. C4 H10 (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
2. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
119. Which of the following meta-directing 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
substituents is the most deactivating in 4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
aromatic substitution?
1. –SO3H 2. –COOH
3. –NO2 4. –C≡N 123. The calculated spin only magnetic moment
of Cr2+ ion is:
1. 4.90 BM
120. Find the molarity of liquid HCl if the 2. 5.92 BM
density of liquid HCl is 1.17 g/cc. 3. 2.84 BM
4. 3.87 BM
1. 36.5 2. 18.25
3. 32.05 4. 42.10 124. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
(Amine) (pK value)
121. The number of Faradays (F) required to β

produce 20 g of calcium from molten CaCl2 A. Benzenamine I. 3.38

(Atomic mass of Ca = 40 g mol–1) is: B. Phenylmethanamine II. 9.38
1. 2 C. Methenamine III. 4.70
2. 3 D. N-Ethylethanamine IV. 3.0
3. 4 Choose the correct answer from the options
4. 1 given below:
1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
4. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

125. Among the following which is the strongest

oxidising agent?
1. F2
2. Br2
3. l2
4. Cl2

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

126. Given that the equilibrium constant for the 129. P bO2 → P bO ΔG298 < 0

reaction SnO2 → SnO ΔG298 > 0

2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2SO3(g) The most probable oxidation state of Pb & Sn
has a value of 278 at a particular temperature, will be:
the value of the equilibrium constant for the 1. Pb+4 , Sn+4
following reaction at the same temperature will 2. Pb+4 , Sn+2
be: +2 +2
3. Pb , Sn
SO3(g) ⇋ SO2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)
+2 +4
4. Pb , Sn
1. −3
3. 6 × 10
−2
2. 6. 0 × 10 130. What is the correct order of electron gain
3. −5
1. 3 × 10 enthalpy from least negative to most negative
4. −3
1. 8 × 10 for the elements C, Ca, Al, F, and O?
1. Al < Ca < O < C < F
127. Given below are two statements: 2. Al < O < C < Ca < F
In an organic compound, when 3. C < F < O < Al < Ca
inductive and electromeric 4. Ca < Al < C < O < F
Statement I: effects operate in opposite
directions, the inductive effect 131. Beans get cooked earlier in a pressure
predominates. cooker, because:
Hyperconjugation is observed in The boiling point increases with increasing
Statement II: 1.
o-xylene. pressure
In the light of the above statements, choose the 2. The boiling point decreases with increasing
correct answer from the options given below: pressure
1. Statement I is true but Statement II is false. The extra pressure of the pressure cooker
3.
2. Statement I is false but Statement II is true softens the beans
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. Internal energy is not lost while cooking in a
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 4. pressure cooker

128. Choose the correct statement for the work

done in the expansion and heat absorbed or 132. For a reaction 3A → 2B
released when 5 liters of an ideal gas at 10 The average rate of appearance of B is given by
atmospheric pressure isothermally expands Δ[B]

into a vacuum until the volume is 15 liters: .

Δt

Both the heat and work done will be greater The correct relation between the average rate
1.
than zero. of appearance of B with the average rate of
Heat absorbed will be less than zero and disappearance of A is:
2.
work done will be positive. 1.
−Δ[A]
2.
−3Δ[A]

Δt 2Δt
Work done will be zero and heat absorbed or
3. −2Δ[A] Δ[A]
evolved will also be zero. 3. 4.
3Δt Δt

Work done will be greater than zero and

4.
heat absorbed will remain zero.

Page: 16
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics
133. Given below are two statements:
Propene on treatment with
diborane gives an addition 136. A particle of mass M is situated at the
Statement I :
product with the formula centre of a spherical shell of the same mass and
(CH3 )2 − CH )3 − B radius a. The magnitude of the gravitational
Oxidation of potential at a point situated at a/2 distance from
(CH3 )2 − CH )3 − Bwith the centre will be:
Statement II : GM
1. − a
hydrogen peroxide in presence
of N aOH gives propan-2-ol. 2 GM
2. − a
In the light of the above statements, choose the 3 GM

most appropriate answer from the options 3. − a

4 GM
given below: 4. − a
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
137. The capacitance of a parallel plate
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct capacitor with air as a medium is 6 μF. With
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect the introduction of a dielectric medium, the
capacitance becomes 30 μF. The permittivity
134. The increasing order of reactivity of the
of the medium is:
following compounds towards acid-catalyzed −12 2 −1 −2
dehydration is: (ε0 = 8.85 × 10 C N m )

2 −1
1. 1.77 × 10−12 C N m−2
2
2. 0.44 × 10−10 C N−1 m−2
1. 2. 2
3. 5.00 C N m−2
−1

2
4. 0.44 × 10−13 C N−1 m−2

138. If the equation of a wave is represented

3. 4. x
−4
by: y = 10 sin (100t − ) m, where x is
10
in meters and t in seconds, then the velocity of
1. (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV) 2. (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV) the wave will be:
3. (I) < (III) < (IV) < (II) 4. (III) < (I) < (II) < (IV) 1. 100 m/s 2. 4 m/s
3. 1000 m/s 4. 0 m/s

135. In DNA, the complementary bases are:

1. Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosine 139. Two identical balls A and B having
2. Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil velocities of 0.5 m/s and −0.3 m/s ,
3. Adenine and guanine, thymine and cytosine respectively, collide elastically in one
4. Uracil and adenine; cytosine and guanine dimension. The velocities of B and A after the

collision, respectively, will be:

1. −0.5 m/s and 0.3 m/s
2. 0.5 m/s and − 0.3 m/s

3. −0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

4. 0.3 m/s and 0.5 m/s

Page: 17
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

140. A particle of mass m oscillates along the x- 144. Nickel shows the ferromagnetic property
axis according to the equation x = asinωt. The at room temperature. If the temperature is
nature of the graph between momentum and increased beyond Curie's temperature, then it
displacement of the particle is: will show:
1. circle 1. paramagnetism
2. hyperbola 2. anti-ferromagnetism
3. no magnetic property
3. ellipse
4. diamagnetism
4. a straight line passing through the origin
145. As a result of a change in the magnetic flux
linked to the closed-loop shown in the figure, an
141. A thin conducting ring of the radius R is emf, V volt is induced in the loop. The work
given a charge +Q. The electric field at the done (joules) in taking a charge Q coulomb
centre O of the ring due to the charge on the once along the loop is:
part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at
the centre due to the charge on the part ACDB
of the ring is:

QV
1. QV 2.
2

3. 2QV 4. zero

1. 3E along KO
2. E along OK 146. The ratio of contributions made by the
3. E along KO electric field and magnetic field components to
4. 3E along OK
the intensity of an electromagnetic wave is: (c =
speed of electromagnetic waves)
1. 1 : 1 2. 1 : c
142. A linear aperture whose width is 0.02 cm 3. 1 : c
2
4. c : 1

is placed immediately in front of a lens of focal

length 60 cm. The aperture is illuminated
normally by a parallel beam of wavelength 147. The light rays having photons of energy
4.2 eV are falling on a metal surface having a
−5
5 × 10 cm. The distance of the first dark
band of the diffraction pattern from the centre work function of 2.2 eV. The stopping potential
of the screen is: of the surface is:
1. 0.10 cm 2. 0.25 cm 1. 2 eV
3. 0.20 cm 4. 0.15 cm 2. 2 V
3. 1.1 V
4. 6.4 V
143. A plane convex lens (μ = 1.5) has a radius
of curvature 10 cm. It is silvered on its plane
surface. The focal length of the lens after
silvering is:
1. 10 cm 2. 20 cm
3. 15 cm 4. 25 cm

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

148. The net impedance of the circuit (as shown 152. The dimensions of (μ0 ε0 )−1/2 are:
in the figure) will be:
1. [L−1 ] T
−1
2. [LT ]

3. [L
−1/2
] T
1/2

4. [L
−1/2
] T
−1/2

153. The binding energy per nucleon in

deuterium and helium nuclei are 1.1 MeV and
1. 25 Ω 2. 10√2 Ω 7.0 MeV, respectively. When two deuterium

3. 15 Ω 4. 5√5 Ω nuclei fuse to form a helium nucleus the energy

released in the fusion is:
1. 2.2 MeV
149. In the Bohr model of H-atom, an electron 2. 28.0 MeV
(e) is revolving around a proton (p) with
3. 30.2 MeV
4. 23.6 MeV
velocity v. If r is the radius of the orbit, m is the
mass and ε0 is vacuum permittivity, then the
154. The magnetic force acting on a charged
value of v is:
e particle of charge −2 μC in a magnetic field of
1.
√4πmε r 0 2 T acting in the y-direction, when the particle
2e
2. velocity is (2^ ^ 6
i + 3 j) × 10 ms
−1
is:
√πmε0 r

3.
e
1. N in −z-direction.
8
√πmε0 r
e 2. 4 N in the z-direction.
4. 4πmε0 r
3. 8 N in the y-direction.
4. 8 N in the z-direction.
150. →
If vectors A
^ ^
= cos ωt i + sin ωt j and
→
ωt ωt
B = cos( are functions of 155. Three liquids of densities ρ , ρ and ρ
2
^
) i + sin(
2
^
)j
1 2 3

time. Then, at what value of t are they (ρ 1 > ρ 2 > ρ 3 ) having the same value of the
orthogonal to one another? surface tension T , rise to the same height in
π
1. t = 4ω three identical capillaries. The angles of contact
θ1 , θ2 and θ3 obey:
2. t = 2ω
π

π
π 1. 2 > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0
3. t = ω
2. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π2
4. t = 0
π
3. 2 < θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π
151. A light rod of length l has two masses, m1 4. π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 > π
2
and m2 , attached to its two ends. The moment
of inertia of the system about an axis
perpendicular to the rod and passing through
the centre of mass is:
m m
1. m +m l2
1 2

1 2

m1 +m2
2. m1 m2
l
2

3. (m1 + m2 )l
2

4. √(m1 m2 )l2

Page: 19
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

156. A particle moving in a circle of radius R 159. A 12 cm wire is given a shape of a right-
with a uniform speed takes a time T to angled triangle ABC having sides 3 cm, 4 cm
complete one revolution. If this particle were and 5 cm, as shown in the figure. The resistance
projected with the same speed at an angle θ to between two ends (AB, BC, CA) of the
the horizontal, the maximum height attained by respective sides are measured one by one by a
it equals 4R. The angle of projection, θ is then multi-meter. The resistances will be in the ratio:
given by:
2
1/2 2 1/2
π R 2gT
1. θ = sin
−1
( 2
) 2. θ = sin
−1
( 2
)
gT π R

2 1/2 1/2
gT 2
π R
3. θ = cos
−1
(
2
) 4. θ = cos
−1
( 2
)
π R gT

157. The (P -V ) diagram for an ideal gas in a

piston-cylinder assembly undergoing a 1. 9 : 16 : 25
thermodynamic process is shown in the figure. 2. 27 : 32 : 35
The process is: 3. 21 : 24 : 25
4. 3 : 4 : 5

160. Two wires are made of the same material

and have the same volume. The first wire has a
cross-sectional area A and the second wire has
a cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of the
first wire is increased by Δl on applying a force
1. adiabatic 2. isochoric F , how much force is needed to stretch the
3. isobaric 4. isothermal second wire by the same amount?
1. 9F 2. 6F

3. 4F 4. F
158. A person holding a rifle (mass of person
and rifle together is 100 kg) stands on a smooth
surface and fires 10 shots horizontally, in 5 s. 161. The two ends of a rod of length L and a
Each bullet has a mass of 10 g with a muzzle uniform cross-sectional area A are kept at two
velocity of 800 ms-1. The final velocity acquired temperatures T1 and T2 (T1> T2). The rate of
by the person and the average force exerted on dQ

the person are: heat transfer dt through the rod in a steady

1. −0.08 ms−1 ; 16 N state is given by:
dQ KL(T1 −T2 )
2. −0.8 ms
−1
; 16 N 1. =
dt A
3. −1.6 ms
−1
; 16 N dQ K(T1 −T2 )
2. =
4. −1.6 ms
−1
;8 N dt LA
dQ
3. dt
= KLA(T1 − T2 )

dQ KA(T1 −T2 )
4. dt
=
L

Page: 20
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

162. A particle has initial velocity ^ 165. A satellite S is moving in an elliptical orbit
^
(2 i + 3 j)
around the Earth. If the mass of the satellite is
and acceleration (0. 3 i + 0. 2 j). The very small as compared to the mass of the
^ ^

earth, then:
magnitude of velocity after 10 s will be: 1. The angular momentum of S about the
9√2 units 1. centre of the earth changes in direction, but
2. 5√2 units its magnitude remains constant.
3. 5 units The total mechanical energy of S varies
2.
4. 9 units periodically with time.
The linear momentum of S remains constant
163. The following logic gate is: 3.
in magnitude.
The acceleration of S is always directed
4.
towards the centre of the earth.

1. AND
2. NAND 166. An electric dipole has the magnitude of its
3. EX-OR charges as q and its dipole moment is p. It is
4. OR placed in a uniform electric field E . If its dipole
moment is along the direction of the field, the
164. Match Column I and Column II and force on it and its potential energy are
choose the correct match from the given respectively:
choices. 1. q ⋅ E and p ⋅ E
Column I Column II 2. zero and minimum
Root mean square 1
3. q ⋅ E and maximum
(A) speed of gas (P) nmv̄ 2
4. 2q ⋅ E and minimum
3
molecules
The pressure 3RT
(B) exerted by an ideal (Q) √ 167. A transverse wave propagating along the
gas M
x-axis is represented by:
The average kinetic 5 y(x, t) = 8.0 sin(0.5πx − 4πt −
π
), where x
(C) energy of a (R) RT 4

molecule 2
is in meters and t in seconds. The speed of the
The total internal wave is:
3
(D) energy of a mole of (S) kB T 1. 4π m/s
a diatomic gas 2 2. 0.5 m/s
π
3. 4 m/s
(A) (B) (C) (D) 4. 8 m/s
1. (Q) (P) (S) (R)
168. A particle of mass m1 is moving with a
2. (R) (Q) (P) (S)
velocity v1 and another particle of mass m2 is
3. (R) (P) (S) (Q)
moving with a velocity v2. Both of them have
4. (Q) (R) (S) (P)
the same momentum, but their kinetic energies
are E1 and E2 respectively. If m1 > m2 then:
E1 m1
1. E2
=
m2

2. E1 > E2

3. E1 = E2

4. E1 < E2

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

169. A rectangular block of mass m and area of 174. An electron moves on a straight-line path
cross-section A floats in a liquid of density ρ. If XY as shown. The abcd is a coil adjacent to the
it is given a small vertical displacement from path of electrons. What will be the direction of
equilibrium, it undergoes oscillation with a current if any, induced in the coil?
time period T. Then:
1. T ∝ √ρ
1
2. T ∝
√A

1
3. T ∝
ρ

1
4. T ∝
√m

170. A dipole with moment p→ is placed in a

uniform electric field →. The torque acting on
E

the dipole is given by:

1. τ→ → →
= p ⋅ E

→ × E→
2. τ→ = p
→ + E→
3. τ→ = p 1. abcd
→ − E→
4. τ→ = p 2. adcb
The current will reverse its
171. Two slits in Young's double slit experiment 3.
direction as the electron goes past the coil
are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a 4. No current included
distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength
of light used is 600 × 10 m then the fringe
−9

separation is: 175. An electromagnetic wave of frequency

1. 4 × 10 m
−5
ν = 3.0 MHz passes from a vacuum into a

2. 9 × 10 m
−8
dielectric medium with relative permittivity
3. 4 × 10 m ε = 4.0. Then:
−7

4. 4 × 10 m
−4
wavelength is doubled and frequency
1.
becomes half
172. Two transparent media A and B are wavelength is halved and frequency remains
2.
separated by a plane boundary. The speeds of unchanged
light in those media are 1.5 × 10 m/s and
8
wavelength and frequency both remain
3.
2.0 × 10
8
m/s, respectively. The critical angle unchanged
for a ray of light for these two media is: wavelength is doubled and frequency
4.
1. tan (0.750) 2. sin (0.500)
−1 −1
unchanged
−1
3. sin (0.750) 4. tan−1 (0.500)

173. For a vibration magnetometer, the time

period of the suspended bar magnet can be
reduced by:
1. moving it towards the south pole
2. moving it towards the north pole
3. moving it towards the equator
4. anyone of them

Page: 22
 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 14 Apr
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

176. 180. Which of the following statements are

Monochromatic light of wavelength 667 nm is correct?
produced by a helium-neon laser. The power centre of mass of a body always coincides
emitted is 9mW. The number of photons (a) with the centre of gravity of the body .
arriving per second on average at a target centre of gravity of a body is the point
irradiated by this beam is: (b) about which the total gravitational torque
1. 9 x 1017 on the body is zero.
2. 3 X 10 16
a couple on a body produce both
(c)
3. 9 x 1015 translational and rotation motion in a body.
4. 3 X 10 19 mechanical advantage greater than one
(d) means that small effort can be used to lift a
large load.

177. A capacitor is connected to a

10 μF 1. (a) and (b) 2. (b) and (c)
210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in the figure.
3. (c) and (d) 4. (b) and (d)
The peak current in the circuit is nearly
(π = 3.14):

Fill OMR Sheet*

*If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
there

1. 0.93 A

2. 1.20 A

3. 0.35 A

4. 0.58 A
CLICK HERE to get
178. Let T1 and T2 be the energy of an electron
in the first and second excited states of the
FREE ACCESS for 2
hydrogen atom, respectively. According to
Bohr's model of an atom, the ratio T1 : T2 is:
days of ANY
1. 9 : 4
2. 1 : 4
NEETprep course
3. 4 : 1
4. 4 : 9

179. If a vector (2^

i + 3^ ^
j + 8k) is
perpendicular to the vector (4^
i − 4^ ^
j + αk)

then the value of α is:

1. −1
−1
2. 2
1
3. 2

4. 1

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