Civil aeronautical act (Republic Act 9497: Prescribe the requirement for issuing pilot, F.I.

, ratings, flight engineers,

flight operations etc.
Parts of CAR
Part I: General policies, procedures and definitions
Part II: Personnel Licensing
Part III: Approved Training Organizations
Part IV: Aircraft Registration and Markings
Part V: Airworthiness
Part VI: Approved Maintenance Organizations
Part VII: Instrument and organizations
Part VIII: Operations
Part IX: Air Operator Certificate and Administration
Part X: Commercial Air Transport by Foreign air carriers with in Republic of Philippines
Part XI: Aerial Work and non certified aircraft operation limitations.
Class and Category of Aircraft

1. Category- Indicates a classification of aircraft such as airplane, helicopter, glider, etc.

2. Class - Indicated the difference in basic design of aircraft within a category, such as single Engine land,
multi Engine Sea
Category Class
With respect to certification of Airplane, Rotorcraft, glider, Single Engine Land
airmen lighter than air Single Engine Sea
Multi Engine Land
Multi Engine Sea
With respect to Certification of Normal, Utility, Acrobatic Airplane, Rotorcraft, glider,
a/c Balloon.

Flight Duty Time Limit (FDTL)

1. 1 day- 8hrs
2. 1 week- 30hrs
3. 1 month- 100hrs
4. 1 year- 1000hrs

Rest period for pilot

Each flight crewmember must have a minimum of eight hours of rest in any 24-hour period that includes flight
time. That calculation must be based on the actual conditions on the day of departure regardless of whether the
length of the flight is longer or shorter than the originally scheduled flight time.
Use of intoxicating liquor, narcotics or drugs
1. No person shall pilot an aircraft or act as a crew member of any aircraft under the influence of this one
2. No pilot can operate flight with alcohol content more than 0.04% in blood.
3. Bottle to throttle time must be at least 8 hours.

Flight plan
1. It includes information relative to an intended flight or portion of a flight
2. When to submit to flight plan- a flight plan to be provided with air traffic control service shall be
submitted at least (60) minutes before departure.
3. If submitted during flight, at a time which will ensure its receipt by the appropriate air traffic
services unit at least ten (10) minutes before the aircraft is estimated to reach:

Content of flight plan

1. Aircraft identification- your airplane’s call sign (ex. RPC 833)

2. Flight Rules- I- IFR Y- if IFR first

V- VFR Z- if VFR first

3. Type of flight- S- Scheduled air transport service

N- Non scheduled air transport
G- General Aviation
M- Military
X- Other than any of the defined categories
4.Type of Aircraft- rated type of aircraft used for flight (ex. C172)

5. Wake turbulence Category- H- takeoff mass of more than 136,000kg

M- Takeoff mass of less than 136,000kg

But more than 7,000kg
L- Takeoff mass of less than 7000kg
6. Equipment- Radio Communication, Navigation and Approach aid equipment
S- Standard 2 way radio
O- VOR (very high frequency Omni directional range)
F- ADF (automatic direction finder)
C- Mode C transponder (Surveillance equipment)
7. Departure Aerodrome- departure airport, 4 letter code (ex. RPVM-Cebu)
8. Time- estimated time of desired departure; based on universal time coordination (UTC) minus (-) eight hours
from present time.
9. Cruising speed- K- kph N- Knots M- Mach number
10. Level - cruising altitude
11. Route – flight route you’re going to fly
12. Destination Aerodrome – desired airport to fly in or arrive at with four letter ICAO designator
13. Total EET – Estimated enroute time; total estimated flight time from departure to destination aerodrome.
14. Alternate Aerodrome – alternate airport for arrival or fly in
15. Other information
16. Endurance – aircraft’s fuel time for flight. Endurance is defined as fuel on board of a/c in terms of flight time.
17. P.O.B – persons on board (always in three digits for exam 004-for four persons)
18. Emergency Radio – 121. 5 ELT (Emergency Locater Transmitter)
19. Survival – Emergency and survival equipment on board
M- Maritime, J-Jungle survival, P – Polar survival, D-Desert survival

Aircraft lighting
Right of Way

Approaching Head on When two aircraft are approaching head – on or in – danger of collision,
each shall alter its heading to the right.

Converging When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level, the
aircraft on its right, shall give way.
Overtaking The aircraft being overtaken has the right of way and the aircraft being
overtaken, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight, shall
keep out the way of the other aircraft.

Emergency Landing An aircraft that is aware that another is compelled to land shall give way.

Flying in VMC condition

VFR flight procedure
VFR flight are not applicable on these following VFR minimum safe altitude
conditions
a) when the ceiling is less than 450 meters a) Over congested areas of cities, town or settlements
or over an open-air assembly of person at a height less
b) when the ground visibility is less than 8000 m, or than 300m. (1000ft) above the highest obstacle within a
5000 m for special VFR radius of 600m (2000ft) from the aircraft

c) between sunrise and sunset b) Elsewhere at a height less than 150 meters (500ft)
above the ground or water.
d) above flight level 200

e) at transonic and subsonic speed

Fuel requirement
Fuel requirements for flight in VFR conditions.
(a) No person may begin a flight in an airplane under VFR conditions unless (considering
wind and forecast weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of
intended landing and, assuming normal cruising speed—
(1) During the day, to fly after that for at least 30 minutes; or
(2) At night, to fly after that for at least 45 minutes.

(b) No person may begin a flight in a rotorcraft under VFR conditions unless (considering wind and forecast
weather conditions) there is enough fuel to fly to the first point of intended
landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly after that for at least 20 minutes.

Light Gun Signals

Review 1- General

1. The maximum flying time a pilot can log within a 100 hours
period of 30 days

2. 2. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an Owner or operator of that aircraft.

aircraft in an airworthy condition

3. The applicant for a CPL (A) shall be not less than 18 years old
(PCAR’s Part 2.3.3.3)

4. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed not 150 hours
less than 200 hours of flight time, or _____ if
completed during an Authority-approved training
course provided for in an Approved Training
Organization under Part 3 (PCAR’s Part 2.3.3.3)
 20 hours
5. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed in
airplane not less than _____ number of cross
country flight time as pilot-in-command including a
cross country flight totaling not less than 300
nautical miles in the course of which full-stop
landings at two (2) different aerodromes

6. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed in 25 hours of dual instruction from an authorized
airplane not less than instructor. These 25 hours may include 5 hours
completed in a flight simulator or flight procedures
trainer.

7. The applicant for CPL (A) shall have completed in 20 hours of cross-country flight time as pilot-in-
airplane not less than 200 hours of cross-country command including a cross country flight totaling
flight time as pilot-in-command including a cross not less than 540 km (300 MM) in the course of
country flight totaling not less than (PCAR’s Part which full-stop landings at two different aerodromes
2.3.3.3) shall be made

8. A CPL (A) applicant shall have completed not less 200 hours
than _____ of flight time or 150 hours of flight time
if he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training

9. For instrument approach operations, no person may 50 feet

use an autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that
is less then ____ feet below the MDH or DH.(Part
8.8.4.6)

10. For enroute operations, no person may use an 500 feet

autopilot at an altitude above the terrain that is less
than (Part 8.8.4.6)

11. Who is directly responsible and has the final Pilot in command
authority as to the operation of the aircraft

12. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in Pilot in command

condition for save flight

13. The holder of commercial pilot license shall have the a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air
privilages to transportation in any aircraft having a gross
weight not exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500
 a. lbs.)

b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft

engaged in operations other than commercial air
transportation.

A. 2 way communication is maintained between

14. No Pilot-in-command may allow an airplane to be aircraft’s intercommunication with Ground
refueled when passengers are embarking, on board Crew Refueling aircraft and Qualified personal
or disembarking unless on board
B. Attended by Qualified Personal ready to Initiate
and Direct Evacuation by most practical and
expeditious means available

15. An aircraft carrying passengers for hire has been on An inspection schedule, specifying the intervals in
a schedule of inspection every 100 hours of time in hours or days when routine and detailed inspections
service. Under which condition may that aircraft be will be performed and including instructions for
operated beyond 100 hours without new inspection exceeding an inspection interval by not more than
10 hours while en-route and for changing an
inspection interval because of service experience;

16. How does a pilot indicate a desire for light gun signal Rock the wings
in case of radio failure during the day

17. PCAR’s Part 2 refers to Personnel Licensing

18. PCAR’s Part 5 refers to Airworthiness

19. For aircraft engaged in commercial air transport 60 years old or below
operations requiring more than one pilot as flight
crew members, the AOC holder may use one pilot up
to age 65 provided that the other pilot is less than

20. The Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines (CAAP) DGCA / Director General of Civil Aviation
is headed by
21. The training required for flight crew members Cross Crew Qualification (CCQ) training.
qualifying on another type of aircraft type or variant
with the same or essentially the same cockpit
22. If an alternate minima are not published, and if Ceiling 800 Feet and visibility 2 SM for non-precision
there is no prohibition against using the airport as an
IFR flight planning alternate, each PIC shall ensure
that the meteorological conditions at that alternate
at the ETA will be at or above

23. To act as a crew member, a person must not have 8 hours

consumed alcohol in the preceding

24. The supplemental oxygen supply requirements for All required cabin crew members
non-pressurized aircraft if the entire flight time at above 13,000 ft = constant use.
pressure altitudes above 13,000 feet and for any 10.000 ft -13,000 ft more than 30 mins = Needs to
period exceeding 30 minutes at pressure altitudes be used.
above 10,000 feet but not exceeding 13,000 feet
(Part IS: 7.8.12)

25. The creation of Civil Aviation Authority of the Republic Act 9497 (RA 9497)
Philippines was based on what law

26. In aircraft converging rules, which statement is (1) When aircraft of the same category are
correct converging at approximately the same altitude
(except head-on, or neariy so), the aircraft to the
other's right has the right-of-way.
(2) If the converging aircraft are of different
categories-
(i) A balloon has the right-of-way over any
other category of aircraft;
(ii) A glider has the right-of-way over an
airship, and power driven heavier than air
aircraft; and
(iii) An airship has the right-of-way over a
power driven heavier than air aircraft.

27. The minimum flight visibility for special VFR is The flight visibility is at least 5 km 1,000ft above and
500ft below clouds

28. To act as a crew member, a person must not have 8 hours

consumed alcohol in the preceding
29. The applicant for instrument rating (airplane) shall PPL license
hold at least a

Search and rescue

30. The primary purpose of filling a flight plan is for

31. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under Passing each designated reporting point, to include
IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, shall time and altitude.
report by radio as soon as possible when

32. For pilot under IFR operations, No person may act as Logged at least six hours of instrument flight time
a pilot under IFR, nor in IMC, unless he or she has, including at least three hours in flight in the category
within the past six calendar months (PCAR’s Part of aircraft: and completed at least six instrument
8.4.1.10) approaches.

33. An aircraft being overtaken should expect to be The right

passed on

34. What is the next higher appropriate cruise altitude 6500

or flight level from 5,000 feet MSL for a VFR flight
along an airway whose magnetic course is 1800

CAAP
35. Republic Act 9497 is also known as

10 days

36. If an emergency situation, which endangers the

safety of the aircraft or persons, necessitates the taking
of action, which involves a violation of regulations or
procedures by any crewmember, the pilot-in-command
shall submit a report on any such violation to the CAAP
within:

37. Which statement is true regarding right of way for An aircraft which is being overtaken by another
taxiing aircraft in the maneuvering area of an aircraft has the right of way
aerodrome for one aircraft overtaking the other?
3. The primary purpose of filing a plan is for:

search and rescue.

safety of flight.

to secure clearance from ATS.

4. If not equipped with required position lights, an

aircraft must terminate flight…..

30 minutes after sunset.

1 hour after sunset.

at sunset.

5. _______ of cross country flight time as pilot-in-

command including one flight of not less than
300 nautical miles in the course of which not less
than three full stop landings at different point
shall have been made.

Fifteen hours

Thirty hours

Ten hours

6. Who among the following persons is required by

CAAP to file a flight plan?
Pilot in command.

Aircraft mechanic

Aircraft owner.

7. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot

may not deviate from that clearance, unless the
pilot…..

receives an amended clearance or less an emergency.

requests an amended clearance.

is operating VFR on top.

8. Aerial photography is prohibited in the Philippines

without proper authorization

from…..

Philippine Air Force

NAMRIA
CAAP

9. All flights of civil aircraft over the Manila Flight

Information Region and landing at Philippine
aerodrome shall be carried out in accordance
with……….

the current regulations and policies.

at the discretion of the civil aircraft operator.

policy procedures of the civil aircraft operator.

10. If weather conditions are such that it requires

designating an alternate airport on your IFR flight
plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to
arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly
from that airport to the alternate airport, fly
thereafter…

45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

1 hour at normal cruising speed.

30 minutes at slow cruising speed.

11. An applicant for CPL shall be a qualified person who

is a citizen of the Philippines or:

a qualified citizen of a foreign country granting similar

rights and privileges to citizens of the Philippines;
subject, however to existing treaty or treaties, and
agreements entered into by the Philippines government
with foreign countries, and subject

any citizen of foreign country.

executive to Filipino nationals only.

12. Pilot regulation pertaining to blood alcohol and rest

period before a pilot is eligible to fly an aircraft…..

alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 12 hours

passes between bottle and throttle.

alcohol level in the blood is below 0.04% and that at

least eight (8) hours passes between bottle and throttle.

alcohol level in the blood is 40% and the least 8 hours of

rest period.

13. A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than

______ of flight time or 150 hours of flight time if
he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training.

300 hours

200 hours

400 hours
14. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot
an aircraft carrying passengers during the period
from one hour after sunset to one hour before
sunrise unless he has made at least __________
to full stop during such period within the
preceeding 90

10 take-offs and landings.

5 take-offs and landings.

15 take-offs and landing.

15. Sunset or sunrise, which requires sun to be below

the earth horizon by 3 degrees, is called……

astronomical sunset or sunrise.

aeronautical sunset or sunrise.

civil sunset or sunrise.

16. The maximum flying time a pilot can log within a

period of 30 days.

90 hours

100 hours

80 hours

17. Regulations which refer to "Commercial Operations"

relate to that person
who….

for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by

aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other
than as an air carrier

for Compensation or hire, engages in the carriage by

aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, as an
air carrier.

is the owner of a small scheduled airline.

18. Air traffic services in the Philippines are provided by

the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines,
administrated by the Chief, Air Traffic Service
with the exception of…

Military and private aerodromes

Military aerodromes only.

Private aerodromes only.

19. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in

command must become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight. In addition, the
pilot must…..

list an alternate airport on the flight plan, and

confirm adequate take-off and landing
performance at the destination airport.

be familiar with the runway lengths at airports

of intended use, and the alternatives available,
if the flight cannot be completed.

be familiar with all instrument approaches at

the destination airport.
20. What person is directly responsible for the final
authority as to the operation of the airplane?

Pilot in command

Airplane owner/operator.

Certificate holder

21. A CPL applicant shall have established his medical

fitness on the basis of compliance with the
following medical requirements:

second class medical

third class medical.

first class medical.

22. How many hours of instrument time of which not

more than five hours may be instrument ground
are required for CPL?
Five

Twenty

Ten

23. The minimum age for obtaining a commercial pilot's

license is…..

20 years old.

16 years old.

18 years old.

24. Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have

visibility and distance from cloud of:

horizontal 5 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.

horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.

horizontal 4 miles/vertical 1,000 ft.

25. How does a pilot indicate a desire for flight gun

signal in case of radio failure during the day?

Rock wings.

Flash landing lights.

Pitch aircraft nose.

26. Which is true with respect to operating near other

 aircraft in flight? They are….

authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior

arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft
in the formation.

not authorized, unless the pilot in command of each

aircraft is trained and found competent in formation.

not authorized, when operated so closed to another

aircraft then can create a collision hazard.

27. Which of the following are considered aircraft class

rating?

Airplane, rotorcraft, glider and lighter-than-air.

Single-engine land, multiengine-land, single-engine sea,

and multi engine.

Transport, normally, utility and acrobatic.

28. A pilot performing a published instrument approach

is not authorized to perform a procedure turn
when…..

manuevering at radar vectoring altitudes.

manuevering at minimum safe altitudes

receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.

29. What flight time may a pilot log as second in

command?

All flight time while acting as second in command

regardless of aircraft crew requirements.

All flight time, while acting as second in command

aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

Only that flight time during which the second in

command is the sole manipulation of the control.

30. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a

multiengine airplane approaching from the left.
Which pilot should give way?

The pilot of the single-engine airplane should give way;

the other airplane is to right.

The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way;

the single engine airplane is to the right.

Each pilot should alter course to the right.

31. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot

an aircraft carrying passengers unless within the
preceeding __________ he had made at least 5
take-offs and landing to a full stop in aircraft at
the same category, class and type of aircraft to be
flown.

120 days

60 days

90 days

32. A holder commercial pilot license shall have the

privileges to exercise all the privilege of
 a__________.

Private pilot.

Glider pilot.

Free balloon pilot.

33. Required flight crewmember's seatbelts must be

fastened:

only during take-off and landing

only during takeoff and landing when passengers are

abroad the aircraft.

while the crewmembers are at their stations

34. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane

has the right-of-way?

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the

right.

Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the

left.

Airplane A; the pilot shall alter course to the right to

pass.

35. On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is

applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or
continue the approach unless the…….

approach and runway lights are distinctly visible to the

pilot.

flight visibility and ceiling are at, or above, the published

minimums for that approach.

aircraft is continuously in a position from which a

descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
can be made.

36. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which

aircraft has the right-of-way?

Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the

left.

Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the

right.

Airplane, the airplane pilot should alter course to the

left pass.

37. What altimeter setting is required when operating

an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

29.92" Hg.

Current reported altimeter setting of a station along the

route.

Altimeter setting at the departure or destination airport.

38. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an

aircraft in an airworthy condition?

The lead mechanic responsible for the aircraft.

Owner or operator of that aircraft.

Pilot in command or operator.

39. The holder of a commercial pilot license shall have

the privilege to……

to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air

transportation in any aircraft having a gross weight not
exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)

to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in

operations other than commercial air transportation.

A & B are correct.

40. Name the two aircraft documents required for all

aircraft in operations.

Aircraft engine logbook and owner's manual.

Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.

Aircraft logbook and aircraft inspection logbook.

41. Which is true with respect to formation flights?

Formation flights are….

not authorized when visibilities are less than 3 SM.

not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.

authorized when carrying passengers for hire, with prior

arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft
in the formation.

42. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under

IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact,
shall report by radio as soon as possible when….

passing each designated reporting point, to include time

and altitude.
passing FL 180.

changing control facilities.

43. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is

in condition for safe flight?

A certificated aircraft mechanic

The owner or operator.

The pilot in command.

44. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness

Directive is the responsibility of the……

pilot in command of that aircraft.

owner or operator of that aircraft.

pilot in command and the FAA certificated mechanic

assigned to that aircraft.

45. Whenever a distress call and/or message is

intercepted on radiotelephony or radio telegraph
by a pilot-in command of an aircraft, other than a
search aircraft, he shall….

ignore the distress call or message.

at his discretion continue his flight.

plot the position of the craft in distress if given.

46. In the manner of compliance, what is the basic

difference between ATC procedure and CAR?
Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.

Optional for CAR and mandatory for ATC.

Both mandatory.

47. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and

appropriate pilot certificate their personal
possession when…..

carrying passengers only.

piloting for hire only.

acting as pilot in command

48. When are flight plans filed?

60 minutes before ATA.

60 minutes before ETA.

60 minutes before ETD.

49. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained

when flying……

at 3,000 ft. AGL or more, based on true course.

at 3,000 ft. MSL or more, based on magnetic heading.

more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.

50. Flight plan shall be kept for a period of……

1 month after the date of filling.

6 months after the date of filling.

15 days after the date of filling

36.
38. The primary purpose of filing a plan is for: Search and rescue.

39. If not equipped with required position lights, an At sunset

aircraft must terminate flight…..

40. _______ of cross country flight time as pilot-in- 30 hours

command including one flight of not less than
300 nautical miles in the course of which not less
than three full stop landings at different point
shall have been made.

41. Who among the following persons is required by Pilot in Command

CAAP to file a flight plan?

42. After an ATC clearance has been obtained, a pilot receives an amended clearance or less an emergency.
may not deviate from that clearance, unless the
pilot…..

43. Aerial photography is prohibited in the Philippines CAAP

without proper authorization

from…..
44. All flights of civil aircraft over the Manila Flight The current regulation and policies
Information Region and landing at Philippine
aerodrome shall be carried out in accordance
with……….

45. If weather conditions are such that it requires 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
designating an alternate airport on your IFR flight
plan, you should plan to carry enough fuel to
arrive at the first airport of intended landing, fly
from that airport to the alternate airport, fly
thereafter…

46. An applicant for CPL shall be a qualified person who a qualified citizen of a foreign country granting similar
is a citizen of the Philippines or: rights and privileges to citizens of the Philippines;
subject, however to existing treaty or treaties, and
agreements entered into by the Philippines government
with foreign countries, and subject

47. Pilot regulation pertaining to blood alcohol and rest alcohol level in the blood is below 0.04% and that at
period before a pilot is eligible to fly an aircraft….. least eight (8) hours passes between bottle and throttle.

48 . A CPL applicant shall have completed not less than 200 hours
______ of flight time or 150 hours of flight time if
he has satisfactorily completed a course of
approved training.

49. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot 5 take-offs and landings.
an aircraft carrying passengers during the period
from one hour after sunset to one hour before
sunrise unless he has made at least __________
to full stop during such period within the
preceeding 90
50 . Sunset or sunrise, which requires sun to be below civil sunset or sunrise.
the earth horizon by 3 degrees, is called……

51 . Regulations which refer to "Commercial for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by
Operations" relate to that person aircraft in air commerce of persons or property, other
than as an air carrier
who….

52. Air traffic services in the Philippines are provided by Military and private aerodromes
the Civil Aviation Authority of the Philippines,
administrated by the Chief, Air Traffic Service
with the exception of…

53. Before beginning any flight under IFR, the pilot in be familiar with the runway lengths at airports
command must become familiar with all available of intended use, and the alternatives available,
information concerning that flight. In addition, if the flight cannot be completed.
the pilot must…..

54 . A CPL applicant shall have established his medical First class medical
fitness on the basis of compliance with the
following medical requirements:

55. How many hours of instrument time of which not Ten

more than five hours may be instrument ground
are required for CPL?
56. The minimum age for obtaining a commercial pilot's 18 years old.
license is…..

57. Aircraft flights under VFR condition shall have horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
visibility and distance from cloud of:

58. How does a pilot indicate a desire for flight gun Rock wings.
signal in case of radio failure during the day?

59. Which is true with respect to operating near other not authorized, when operated so closed to another
aircraft in flight? They are…. aircraft then can create a collision hazard.

60. Which of the following are considered aircraft class Single-engine land, multiengine-land, single-engine sea,
rating? and multi engine.

61. A pilot performing a published instrument approach receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.
is not authorized to perform a procedure turn
when…..
62. What flight time may a pilot log as second in All flight time, while acting as second in command
command? aircraft requiring more than one pilot.

63. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane observes a The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way;
multiengine airplane approaching from the left. the single engine airplane is to the right.
Which pilot should give way?

64. A holder of a commercial pilot license shall not pilot 90 days

an aircraft carrying passengers unless within the
preceeding __________ he had made at least 5
take-offs and landing to a full stop in aircraft at
the same category, class and type of aircraft to be
flown.

65. A holder commercial pilot license shall have the Private pilot.
privileges to exercise all the privilege of
a__________.

66. Required flight crewmember's seatbelts must be while the crewmembers are at their stations
fastened:

67. A is overtaking airplane B. Which airplane has the Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the
right-of-way? right.
68. On an instrument approach where a DH or MDA is aircraft is continuously in a position from which a
applicable, the pilot may not operate below, or descent to a normal landing, on the intended runway,
continue the approach unless the……. can be made.

69. An airplane is overtaking a helicopter. Which aircraft Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the
has the right-of-way? right.

70. What altimeter setting is required when operating 29.92" Hg.

an aircraft at 18,000 feet MSL?

71. Who is primarily responsible for maintaining an Owner or operator of that aircraft.
aircraft in an airworthy condition?

72 . The holder of a commercial pilot license shall have a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air
the privilege to…… transportation in any aircraft having a gross weight not
exceeding 5,700 kilograms (12,500 lbs.)

b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in

. operations other than commercial air transportation

73. Name the two aircraft documents required for all Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
aircraft in operations.
74. Which is true with respect to formation flights? not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
Formation flights are….

75. The pilot in command of an aircraft operated under passing each designated reporting point, to include time
IFR, in controlled airspace, not in radar contact, and altitude.
shall report by radio as soon as possible when….

76. Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in The pilot in command.

condition for safe flight?

77. Assuring compliance with an Airworthiness Directive owner or operator of that aircraft.
is the responsibility of the……

78. Whenever a distress call and/or message is plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
intercepted on radiotelephony or radio telegraph
by a pilot-in command of an aircraft, other than a
search aircraft, he shall….

79. In the manner of compliance, what is the basic Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
difference between ATC procedure and CAR?
80. Commercial pilots are required to have a valid and acting as pilot in command
appropriate pilot certificate their personal
possession when…..

81. When are flight plans filed? 60 minutes before ETD.

82. VFR cruising altitudes are required to be maintained more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.
when flying……

83. Flight plan shall be kept for a period of…… 6 months after the date of filling.

Additional Questions

1. Except when cleared by an ATC unit, 1500 feet or less than 5 KM Visibility
a VFR flight cannot enter or leave a
Control Zone when cloud base is
lower than
2. Action should be taken when , Continue flying in VMC and land as soon as possible
during an IFR flight in VMC, pilot
suffer radio failure
3. For a controlled flight before 60 minutes before departure
 departure , a flight plan must be
filed at least
4. A controlled flight is required to 5%
inform the concerned ATC unit when
the average TAS at cruising level
deviates or is expected to deviate
compared to that given TAS in the
Flight Plan by at least plus or minus:
5. What is the rule concerning level or 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within 8kms of the
height the aircraft should maintain estimated position of the aircraft
when flying IFR outside controlled
airspace unless otherwise directed?
6. If the track on an instrument Correct for the correct wind so as to stay within controlled
departure is published, the pilot is airspace
expected to:
7. When the Captain cannot comply He/she may request an amended clearance and, if executable,
with an ATC clearance: he/she will accept that clearance

8. . An aircraft is allowed to descend

below the MSA if: a. The pilot follows the published approach procedures
b. The aircraft receives radar vectors
c. The pilot has visual contact with the runway and surrounding
terrain and is able to maintain visual contact

9. What is required for an IFR flight in light plan required and PIC must notify of any changes regardless if
advisory airspace? wanting advisory service or not

10. . What are the VMC limits for Class B The same as Class D
airspace?
11. . A precision Approach Procedure is An instrument approach procedure utilizing azimuth and glide
defined as: path information provided by an ILS or a PAR

12. An instrument approach is made up 5

of a number of segments. How
many of them are there?
13. . An aircraft flying over the sea 1500m horizontally and 1000ft vertically from cloud with visibility
between 4500ft and 9000ft AMSL of 5km
and outside CAS. To continue under
VFR the meteorological conditions
must remain:
14. A DISTRESS message differs from an There is grave and imminent danger which requires immediate
URGENCY message because: assistance

15. SSR Codes 7500 Hijack

7600 Communication failure

7700 Emergency

0000 Transponder failure

 2000 Crossing FIR/No Code Assign

16. Highest Priority to land A/c in Emergency

17. You see a double white cross in a Glider flying in Progress

signal square, what does this mean?
18. What action should be taken if Initiate a missed approach
contact is lost with the runway
during a circling approach?
19. The longitudinal separation 5 minutes
minimum based on time between
aircrafts at the same FL, where there
is enough coverage for navigation
aids and the preceeding aircraft has
a higher true airspeed of 20kts
minimum is:
20. The transition from IFR to VFR is On the Captain's initiative
done:
21. Pilots are not allowed to use the If asked by ATC
indent function on their SSR, unless
22.

23.

24. Repetitive flight plans (RPL's) . For at least 10 occasions or every day over a period of at least 10
cannot be used for flights other than consecutive days
those executed frequently on the
same days of the following weeks
and:
25. Operationally significant changes to AIRAC(Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control)
AIP shall be published in accordance procedures
with
26. . Which action shall be taken by an The repeated switching on and off of the landing lights
aircraft in the traffic pattern of an
aerodrome experiencing radio
failure to indicate difficulties which
compel it to land without requiring
immediate assistance?
27. When the aircraft carries serviceable Unless otherwise directed by ATC
Mode C transponder, the pilot shall
continuously operate this mode:
28. The Vertical Separation Minimum 1000 feet (300m)
(VSM) for flights in accordance with
IFR within controlled airspace below
FL290 is:
29. What minimum ground visibility is 1500m
required to enable a SVFR flight to
take off from an aerodrome in a
CTR?
30. If so equipped, when should an At all times on the ground when the engines are running
aircraft display the anti-collision
light?
31. What radius from a terminal VOR is 25NM
MSA provided?
32. The loading limitations shall All limiting mass, centre of gravity position, mass distribution and
include: floor landing

33. A marshaller crosses his/her hands Remove chocks

in front of the face, palms outward
and then moves the arms outwards.
What does the signal indicate?
34. Aircraft A flies in VMC with an ATC Aircraft B, if A is to the left of him
clearance within a control area.
Aircraft B without ATC clearance
approaches at roughly the same
height on a converging heading.
Who has the right of way?
35. When a state renders valid a license Not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
issued by another Contracting State,
as an alternative to issuance of its
own license, the validity shall:
36. The International Civil Aviation Standards and recommended international practices for
Organisation (ICAO) establishes: contracting member states

37. Which of the following is an ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards
obligation of being an ICAO detailed in any of the annexes to the Chicago convention
contracting state?
38. . You have been intercepted in the Breaking turn up and left
airspace of a foreign contracting
state. What is the signal for 'clear to
proceed' from the intercepting
aircraft?
39. What is the minimum vertical 2000ft
separation between IFR flights flying
in the same direction below FL 290?
40. . During a straight departure, the Within 15° of runway centre-line
initial track is to be
41. When given instructions to set a Read back mode and code
mode/code, a pilot shall
42. The transition of altitude to flight At the transition altitude in the climb and transition level in the
level and vice versa is made: descent

43. . A type rating is applicable to: An aircraft that requires multi-pilot operation

44. If no ICAO identifier has been ZZZZ

attributed to an aerodrome, what
should be entered in Box 16 of the
Flight Plan?
45. When an aircraft subjected to ach State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
unlawful interference has landed in whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose
a Contracting State, it shall notify by citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
the most expeditious means of the
State of Registry and the State of the
Operator of the landing and, in
 addition, shall similarly transmit all
other relevant information to:
46. When an aircraft subjected to Each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
unlawful interference has landed in whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose
a Contracting State, it shall notify by citizens were known to be on board and ICAO
the most expeditious means of the
State of Registry and the State of the
Operator of the landing and, in
addition, shall similarly transmit all
other relevant information to:
47. The MSA provides 300m obstacle 25NM
clearance within how many miles
radius of the navigation facility at
the aerodrome?
48. When an air carrier airplane with a 4
seating capacity of 187 has 137
passengers on board, what is the
minimum number of flight
attendants required
49. Which is true with respect to not authorized when carrying passengers for hire.
formation flights? Formation flights
are....
50. On an instrument approach where a aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a
DH or MDA is applicable, the pilot normal landing, on the intended runway, can be made.
may not operate below, or continue
the approach unless the.......
51. A pilot flying a single-engine airplane The pilot of the multiengine airplane should give way; the single
observes a multiengine airplane engine airplane is to the right.
approaching from the left. Which
pilot should give way?
52. Flight plan shall be kept for a period 6 months after the date of filling
of......
53. Whenever a distress call and/or plot the position of the craft in distress if given.
message is intercepted on
radiotelephony or radio
telegraph by a pilot-in command of
an aircraft, other than a search
aircraft, he
shall....
54. pilot performing a published receiving a radar vector to final approach course or fix.
instrument approach is not
authorized to perform a
procedure turn when.....
55. How does a pilot indicate a desire Rock wings
for flight gun signal in case of radio
failure during
the day?
56. Before beginning any flight under be familiar with the runway lengths at airports of intended use,
IFR, the pilot in command must and the alternatives available, if the flight cannot be completed.
become familiar with all available
information concerning that flight.
In addition, the pilot must.....
57. How many hours of instrument time 10
of which not more than five hours
may be instrument ground are
required for CPL?
58. Regulations which refer to for compensation or hire engages in the carriage by aircraft in air
"Commercial Operations" relate to commerce of persons or property, other than as an air carrier
that person
who....
59. VFR cruising altitudes are required more than 3,000 ft. AGL, based on magnetic course.
to be maintained when flying......
60. Commercial pilots are required to acting as pilot in command
have a valid and appropriate pilot
certificate their
personal possession when.....
61. The holder of a commercial pilot
license shall have the privilege to...... a. to act as pilot-in-command in commercial air transportation in
any aircraft having a gross weight not exceeding 5,700 kilograms
(12,500 lbs.)
b. to act as pilot-in-command in any aircraft engaged in operations
other than commercial air transportation.

62. Name the two aircraft documents . Aircraft Registration and Airworthiness.
required for all aircraft in
operations.
63. When are flight plans filed? 60 minutes before ETD.

64. Assuring compliance with an Owner or operator of that aircraft.

Airworthiness Directive is the
responsibility of the......
65. . An airplane is overtaking a . Helicopter, the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
helicopter. Which aircraft has the
right-of-way?
66. A holder of a commercial pilot 90 days
license shall not pilot an aircraft
carrying passengers unless within
the preceeding __________ he had
made at least 5 take-offs and landing
to a full stop in aircraft at the same
category, class and type of aircraft
to be flown.
67. . Air traffic services in the Philippines Military and private aerodromes
are provided by the Civil Aviation
Authority of the Philippines,
administrated by the Chief, Air
Traffic Service with the exception
of...
68. Which is true with respect to not authorized, when operated so closed to another aircraft then
operating near other aircraft in can create a collision hazard.
flight? They are....
69. In the manner of compliance, what Mandatory for CAR and optional for ATC.
is the basic difference between ATC
 procedure and CAR?
70. If an emergency situation, which 10 days
endangers the safety of the aircraft
or persons, necessitates the taking
of action, which involves a violation
of regulations or procedures by any
crewmember, the pilot-in-command
shall submit a report on any such
violation to the CAAP within:
71. ______ of cross country flight time Thirty hours
as pilot-in-command including one
flight of not less than 300 nautical
miles in the course of which not less
than three full stop landings at
different point shall have been
made.
72. The pilot in command of an aircraft passing each designated reporting point, to include time and
operated under IFR, in controlled altitude.
airspace, not in radar contact, shall
report by radio as soon as possible
when....
73. What altimeter setting is required 29.92" Hg.
when operating an aircraft at 18,000
feet MSL?
74. Airplane A is overtaking airplane B. Airplane B; the pilot should expect to be passed on the right.
Which airplane has the right-of-
way?
75. A holder commercial pilot license a. Private pilot.
shall have the privileges to exercise
all the privilege of a__________.
76. 2. What flight time may a pilot log as All flight time, while acting as second in command aircraft
second in command? requiring more than one pilot.

77. A holder of a commercial pilot . 5 take-offs and landings.

license shall not pilot an aircraft
carrying passengers during the
period from one hour after sunset to
one hour before sunrise unless he
has made at least __________ to full
stop during such period within the
preceeding 90
78. . If weather conditions are such that 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
it requires designating an alternate
airport on your IFR flight plan, you
should plan to carry enough fuel to
arrive at the first airport of intended
landing, fly from that airport to the
alternate airport, fly thereafter...
79. Aircraft flights under VFR condition . horizontal 1 mile/vertical 1,000 ft.
shall have visibility and distance
from cloud of:
80. After an ATC clearance has been receives an amended clearance or less an emergency.
 obtained, a pilot may not deviate
from that clearance, unless the
pilot.....
81. Sunset or sunrise, which requires civil sunset or sunrise.
sun to be below the earth horizon
by 3 degrees, is called......
82. Which statement is true regarding An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft has the
right of way for taxiing aircraft in the right of way
manuevering area of an aerodrome
for one aircraft overtaking the
other?
83. If not equipped with required . at sunset.
position lights, an aircraft must
terminate flight.....
84. The holder of a pilot licence, when 50% of the copilot flight time towards the total flight time
acting as copilot of an aircraft required for a higher grade of a pilot license
required to be operated with a
copilot, shall be entitled to be credit
with not more than:

85. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the estimated
the rule regarding level to be position of the aircraft
maintained by an aircraft flying IFR
outside controlled airspace?
86 A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS 8km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal and
airspace classified as C has to maintain the 300m vertical from clouds
following minima of flight visibility and
distance from clouds

87. VMC minima for VFR flights in 8km visibility, and clear of clouds
Class B airspace, above 3050m
(10000ft) AMSL, are

88. Aerodrome Alternate ● A Take-off alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft would be

able to land should this become necessary shortly after take-off
and it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.

● An En-route alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft would

be able to land in the event that a diversion becomes necessary
while en route.

● A Destination alternate is an aerodrome at which an aircraft would

be able to land should it become either impossible or inadvisable
to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

89. The holder of a pilot 50% of the copilot flight time towards the total flight time
 license, when acting as required for a higher grade of a pilot license
copilot of an aircraft
required to be operated ●
with a copilot, shall be
entitled to be credit with
not more than
90. Unless otherwise prescribed, what is 1000ft above the highest obstacle within 8km of the
the rule regarding level to be maintained estimated position of the aircraft
by an aircraft flying IFR outside
controlled airspace?

91. A VFR flight when flying inside an ATS

airspace classified as C has to maintain
the following minima of flight visibility 8km at or above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL 1500m horizontal
and distance from clouds and 300m vertical from clouds

92. VMC minima for VFR flights in Class B 8km visibility, and clear of clouds
airspace, above 3050m (10000ft) AMSL,
are

Sterile Cockpit: "sterile cockpit rule," these regulations specifically prohibit crew member performance of non-
essential duties or activities while the aircraft is involved in taxi, takeoff, landing, and all other flight operations
conducted below 10,000 feet MSL, except cruise flight.

- Fire in cabin in flight is reportable event to CAAP

Oxygen Requirement
1 Crew must be supplemented with oxygen for entire duration of flight if fly above 14001 feet MSL.
2. Each occupant including pilot and occupants must have access to oxygen if flying above 15000 feet for more
than 30 mins.