1.

When collection of various computers seems a single coherent system to its client, then it is
called _________
a) computer network
b) distributed system
c) networking system
d) mail system
e) None of these

2. Two devices are in network if __________

a) a process in one device is able to exchange information with a process in another device
b) a process is running on both devices
c) PIDs of the processes running of different devices are same
d) a process is active and another is inactive
e) None of these

3. In computer network nodes are _________

a) the computer that originates the data
b) the computer that routes the data
c) the computer that terminates the data
d) option a, b, c are correct
e) None of these

4. Communication channel is shared by all the machines on the network in ________

a) broadcast network
b) unicast network
c) multicast network
d) anycast network
e) None of these

5. The IETF standards documents are called ________

a) RFC
b) RCF
c) ID
d) DFC
e) None of these

6. In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower layers, headers are
___________
a) Added
b) Removed
c) Rearranged
d) Modified
e) None of these

7. The structure or format of data is called ___________

a) Syntax
b) Semantics
c) Struct
d) Formatting
e) None of these

8. Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves ______________ transmission.

a) Automatic
b) Half-duplex
c) Full-duplex
d) Simplex
e) None of these

9. The first Network was called ________

a) CNNET
b) NSFNET
c) ASAPNET
d) ARPANET
e) None of these

10. A _______ is the physical path over which a message travel.

a) Path
b) Medium
c) Protocol
d) Route
e) None of these

11. Which organization has authority over interstate and international commerce in the
communications field?
a) ITU-T
b) IEEE
c) FCC
d) ISOC
e) None of these

12. Which of this is not a network edge device?

a) PC
b) Smartphones
c) Servers
d) Switch
e) None of these
13. The portion of physical layer that interfaces with the media access control sublayer is called
___________
a) physical signaling sublayer
b) physical data sublayer
c) physical address sublayer
d) physical transport sublayer
e) None of these

14. The physical layer provides __________

a) mechanical specifications of electrical connectors and cables
b) electrical specification of transmission line signal level
c) specification for IR over optical fiber
d) option a,b,c are correct
e) None of these

15. In asynchronous serial communication the physical layer provides ___________

a) start and stop signaling
b) flow control
c) both start & stop signaling and flow control
d) only start signaling
e) None of these

16. The physical layer is responsible for __________

a) line coding
b) channel coding
c) modulation
d) option a, b, c are correct
e) None of these

17. A single channel is shared by multiple signals by ____________

a) analog modulation
b) digital modulation
c) multiplexing
d) phase modulation
e) None of these

18. Wireless transmission of signals can be done via ___________

a) radio waves
b) microwaves
c) infrared
d) option a, b, c are correct
e) None of these
19. Physical or logical arrangement of network is __________
a) Topology
b) Routing
c) Networking
d) Control
e) None of these

20. _______ topology requires a multipoint connection.

a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
e) None of these

21. Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is ________
a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
e) None of these

22. Data communication system within a building or campus is________

a) LAN
b) WAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
e) None of these

23. WAN stands for __________

a) World area network
b) Wide area network
c) Web area network
d) Web access network
e) None of these

24. In TDM, slots are further divided into __________

a) Seconds
b) Frames
c) Packets
d) Bits
e) None of these

25. A local telephone network is an example of a _______ network.

a) Packet switched
b) Circuit switched
c) Bit switched
d) Line switched
e) None of these

26 As the data packet moves from the _______ layer down to the _______ layer, headers and a
trailer are added
a) Application
b) Physical
c) Network
d) Data Link
e) None of these

27 A network maintained without using wires is called ........ and ....... are the different types of
networking.
a) Metropolitan area network
b) Wide area network
c) Local area network
d) Personal area network
e) None of these
28. Network .................... refers to the layout in which various ………. of a network are
connected
a) Resources
b) Wireless Network
c) Topology
d) Components
e) None of these
29. A _____ is a device that forwards ………… between networks by processing the routing
information included in the packet.
a) Router
b) Firewall
c) Bridge
d) Packets
e) None of these

30. Protocols associated with application layer (OSI model) are:

a) HTTP
b) P2P
c) FTP
d) UDP
e) None of these
31. The sub-layers of a Data Link layer are ___.
a) LLC - Logical Link Control Layer
b) MAC - Medium Access Control Layer
c) Both A and B
d) Data Layer
e) None of the above

32. The functions of a Logical Link Layer (LLC) are ___.

a) Error control
b) Flow control
c) Creating and managing the communication link between two devices with the help of the
Transport layer.
d) All the above
e) None of the above

33. The types of data services offered by an LLC (Logical Link Control) layer are ___.
a) Connectionless which is fast and unreliable
b) Connection-Oriented which is slow and reliable
c) Both A & B.
d) None of the above
e) Security Decrement i.e., neither connectionless nor connection-oriented

34. The types of Medium Access Control are ___.

a) Centrally Access Control
b) Distributed Access Control
c) Decentralized Access Control
d) Both A and B
e) None of the above

35.The modes of a MAC to share a transmission medium are ___.

a) Round Robin
b) Reservation
c) Contention
d) All the above
e) None of the above

36. A Token Ring implementation works on the __ mode.

a) Contention
b) Reservation
c) Round Robin
d) All the above
e) None of the above

37. The physical address to each machine is provided by which layer in an OSI reference model?
a) Physical layer
b) Data Link Layer
c) Network Layer
d) Transport Layer
e) None of the above

38. Choose the Protocols working in the Data Link Control Layer of OSI model below.
a) ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode), Frame Relay
b) HDLC (High-Level Data Link Control), SDLC (Synchronous Data Link Control)
c) ARP (Address Resolution Protocol), IEEE-802.3
d) All the above
e) None of the above

39. IEEE stands for ___.

a) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineering
b) Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers
c) Institute Ethernet and Electronics Engineering
d) None of the Above
e) All of the Above

40. An Ethernet Jack is ___.

a) RJ11
b) RJ14
c) RJ45
d) None of the Above
e) All of the Above

41. What is the meaning of Carrier Sense in CSMA (Carrier Sense Multiple Access)?
a) The ability to check the shared transmission medium whether it is being used by any other
node or not
b) The ability to restrict other nodes to access the shared medium
c) The ability to gain access to the shared medium
d) None of the Above
e) All of the Above

42. What happens in an Ethernet network implementing CSMA-CD when a collision is detected?
a) The station retransmits the frame again immediately
b) The station retransmits the lost frames after a delay
c) The station retransmits the all frames after a delay
d) The station aborts the whole transmission of data
e) None of the Above

43. Choose the topologies used in a LAN network below.

a) BUS
b) RING
c) STAR, TREE
d) All of the above
e) None of the Above
44. What are the other collision detection and recovery methods used along with Ethernet?
a) ALOHA
b) Slotted ALOHA, R-ALOHA
c) AX.25
d) All the above
e) None of the Above

45. Each Frame in an Ethernet packet starts with a ___.

a) SFD (Start Frame Delimiter) with alternating 0 and 1 for 7 bytes
b) SFD (Start Frame Delimiter) with alternating 0 and 1 for 4 bytes
c) Start Frame Sequence
d) Start Frame Indicator
e) None of the Above

46. Header of a frame generally contains ______________

a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) All of the mentioned
e) None of the Above

47. CRC stands for __________

a) cyclic redundancy check
b) code repeat check
c) code redundancy check
d) cyclic repeat check
e) None of the Above

48. An Aloha network uses an 18.2 kbps channel for sending message packets of 100 bits long
size. Calculate the maximum throughput.

a) 5999
b) 6900
c) 6027
d) 5027
e) None of the Above

49. On a simplex data link, which of the following is a possible error recovery technique?

a) Backward error correction (BEC)

b) The use of hamming codes
c) Automatic Repeat Request (ARQ)
d) Downward error correction (DEC)
e) None of the Above
50. Which of the statement is correct with regard to Time Division Multiplexing (TDM) and its
variants?

a) Statistical TDM makes efficient use of the bandwidth only if the arrival pattern of the data
stream is probabilistic.
b) TDM requires the transmitter and receiver to be synchronized periodically.
c) Both A & B
d) Statistical TDM is efficient if the data stream is deterministic.
e) None of the Above

51. What is the maximum efficiency of pure aloha at G = 1/2?

a) 1.89
b) 17.99
c) 18.999
d) 18.4
e) None of the Above

52. What is the size of the sender window in the Go Back N (ARQ) protocol?

a) 0
b) 1
c) 10
d) n
e) None of the Above

53. What is the efficiency of the Go back N (ARQ) protocol?

a) N = N / (2a + 2a)
b) N = N / (1 + 2a)
c) N = N * (2a + 2a)
d) N = N * (1 + 2a)
e) None of the Above

54. MAC address is also called ______.

a) Physical address
b) Logical address
c) Source address
d) Destination address
e) None of the Above

55. Which among the following represents the objectives/requirements of Data Link Layer?
a) Frame Synchronization
b) Error & Flow Control
c) Both a & b
d) None of the above
e) Segmentation & Reassembly

56. When does the station B send a positive acknowledgement (ACK) to station A in Stop and
Wait protocol?

a) Only when no error occurs at the transmission level

b) When retransmission of old packet in a novel frame is necessary
c) Only when station B receives frame with errors
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

57. Which consequences are more likely to occur during the frame transmission in Stop -and-
Wait ARQ mechanism?

a) Loss of frame or an acknowledgement

b) Delay in an acknowledgement
c) Both A & B
d) Misplaced Acknowledgement
e) None of the above

58. Which ARQ mechanism deals with the transmission of only damaged or lost frames despite
the other multiple frames by increasing the efficiency & its utility in noisy channels?

a) Go-Back-N ARQ
b) Selective Repeat ARQ
c) Stop-and-Wait ARQ
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

59. Which category of HDLC frames undergoes error and flow control mechanisms by
comprising send and receive sequence numbers?

a) U-frames
b) I-frames
c) S-frames
d) All of the above
e) None of the above

60. What are the frames issued by the secondary station of HDLC, known as?

a) Link
b) Command
c) Response
d) None of the above
e) All of the above

61. A packet used for the transmission purpose is basically a combination of __________

a. group of bits
b. source & destination addresses
c. routing table
d. option b and c
e. none of the above

62. Packetizing at the network layer involves

a. Encapsulating the payload at the source
b. Adds a header that contains the source and destination information
c. Decapsulating the payload at the destination
d. All of the above
e. none of the above

63. Routers in the path are not allowed to ________________________ ___.

a. fragment the packet they receive
b. decapsulate the packet
c. change source or destination address
d. All of the choices are correct
e. none of the above

64. Which of the following is/are not a function of network layer?

a. routing
b. framing
c. congestion control
d. error control
e. none of the above

65. Transmission delay does not depend on

a. Packet length
b. Distance between the routers
c. Transmission rate
d. all of the above
e. none of the above

66. A 4-byte IP address consists of __________

a. only network address
b. only host address
c. network address & host address
d. network address & MAC address
e. none of the above
67. DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.
a. IP address
b. MAC address
c. URL
d. Socket address
e. none of the above

68. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________
a. spanning tree
b. spider structure
c. spider tree
d. special tree
e. none of the above

69. Which of the following algorithm(s) is/are not used for congestion control?
a. traffic aware routing
b. admission control
c. load shedding
d. distance vector
e. link state

70. The ability of a single network to span multiple physical networks is known as ______

a. Subnetting
b. Masking
c. Fragmenting
d. Hopping
e. None of the above

71. IP is _________ datagram protocol

a. unreliable
b. connectionless
c. reliable
d. connection oriented
e. none of the above

72. The IPv4 header size _______

a. is 20 to 60 bytes long
b. is 10 bytes long
c. is 64 bytes long
d. is 80 bytes long
e. none of the above

73. In IPv4, what is the value of the total length field in bytes if the header is 28 bytes and the
data field is 400 bytes?
a. 428
b. 407
c. 107
d. 427
e. none of the above

74. The header length of an IPv6 datagram is ___________.

a. 10 bytes
b. 25 bytes
c. 30 bytes
d. 40 bytes
e. none of the above

75. The TTL field has value 10. How many routers (max) can process this datagram?
a. 11
b. 5
c. 10
d. 1
e. 9

76. In IPv6, the _______ field in the base header restricts the lifetime of a datagram
a. version
b. next-header
c. hop limit
d. neighbor-advertisement
e. none of the above

77. An IPv6 address is _________ bits long

a. 16
b. 32
c. 64
d. 128
e. none of the above

78. An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons

a. 8
b. 7
c. 4
d. 5
e. none of the above

79. In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. none of the above

80. Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. none of the above

81. The number of addresses in a class C block is _______

a. 128
b. 65,534
c. 16,777,216
d. 256
e. none of the above

82. Match the classes of IP addresses with their functional applications

A. Class A -------------------- 1) Multicast services

B. Class B -------------------- 2) Reserved for future use
C. Class D -------------------- 3) Large organizations
D. Class E -------------------- 4) Midsize Organizations

a. A- 4, B- 3, C- 2, D- 1
b. A- 2, B- 4, C- 1, D- 3
c. A- 3, B- 4, C- 1, D- 2
d. A- 1, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4
e. A- 4, B- 2, C- 3, D- 4

83. On which factors do the size of block depends in classless addressing?

a. Nature of an entity
b. Size of an entity
c. Number of addresses
d. Availability of the address space
e. None of the above

84. The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______

a. can be any number
b. must be a multiple of 256
c. must be a multiple of 128
d. must be a power of 2
e. none of the above
85. The __________________ technique(s) is/are close-loop congestion policy
a. backpressure
b. choke packet
c. retransmission policy
d. acknowledgement policy
e. None of the above

86. Routing inside an autonomous system is referred to as ________ routing.

a. interdomain
b. intradomain
c. out-of-domain
d. autonomous
e. None of the above

87. In ________, each node maintains a vector (table) of minimum distances to every node.
a. path vector
b. distance vector
c. link state
d. flooding
e. None of the above

88. In distance vector routing, each node periodically shares its routing table with _________
and whenever there is a change.
a. every other node
b. its immediate neighbors
c. one neighbor
d. any two neighbors
e. None of the above

89. The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is an intradomain routing based on _________
routing.
a. distance vector
b. link state
c. path vector
d. flooding
e. None of the above

90. The _________ routing uses the Dijkstra algorithm to build a routing table.
a. distance vector
b. link state
c. flooding
d. path vector
e. None of the above
91. Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before
passing it to ____________
a) network layer
b) data link layer
c) application layer
d) physical layer
e) None of the above

92. Which of the following are transport layer protocols used in networking?
a) TCP and FTP
b) UDP and HTTP
c) TCP and UDP
d) HTTP and FTP
e) None of the above

93. User datagram protocol is called connectionless because _____________

a) all UDP packets are treated independently by transport layer
b) it sends data as a stream of related packets
c) it is received in the same order as sent order
d) it sends data very quickly
e) None of the above

94. Transmission control protocol ___________

a) is a connection-oriented protocol
b) uses a three-way handshake to establish a connection
c) receives data from application as a single stream
d) all of the mentioned
e) None of the above

95. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

__________
a) socket
b) pipe
c) port
d) machine
e) None of the above

96. Socket-style API for windows is called ____________

a) wsock
b) winsock
c) wins
d) sockwi
e) None of the above

97. Which one of the following is a version of UDP with congestion control?
a) datagram congestion control protocol
b) stream control transmission protocol
c) structured stream transport
d) user congestion control protocol
e) None of the above

98. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port
b) pipe
c) node
d) protocol
e) None of the above

99. Transport layer protocols deals with ____________

a) application to application communication
b) process to process communication
c) node to node communication
d) man to man communication
e) None of the above

100. Which of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol
b) internet control message protocol
c) neighbor discovery protocol
d) dynamic host configuration protocol
e) None of the above

101. The most important and common protocols associated TCP/IP internetwork layer are.
i) Internet Protocol (IP) ii) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
iii) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP) iv) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
v) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
a) i, ii, iii, and iv only
b) ii, iii, iv and v only
c) i, iii, iv and v only
d) All i, ii, iii, iv and v only
e) None of the above

102. ........... is responsible for converting the higher-level protocol addresses to physical Network
Addresses.
a) Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)
b) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP)
c) Bootstrap Protocol (BOOTP)
d) Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
e) None of the above

103. Which of the following is not a mechanism that DHCP supports for IP address allocation?
a) Automatic allocation
b) Static allocation
c) Dynamic allocation
d) Manual allocation
e) None of the above

104. Which mode of IPsec should you use to assure the security and confidentiality of data
within the same LAN?
a) AH transport mode
b) ESP transport mode
c) ESP tunnel mode
d) AH tunnel mode
e) None of the above

105. Which two types of encryption protocols can be used to secure the authentication of
computers using IPsec?
a) Kerberos V5
b) SHA
c) MD5
d) Both SHA and MD5
e) None of the above

106. Which two types of IPsec can be used to secure communications between two LANs?
a) AH tunnel mode
b) ESP tunnel mode
c) Both AH tunnel mode and ESP tunnel mode
d) ESP transport mode
e) None of the above

107. ______ provides authentication at the IP level.

a) AH
b) ESP
c) PGP
d) SSL
e) None of the above

108. IPsec defines two protocols: _______ and ________

a) AH; SSL
b) PGP; ESP
c) AH; ESP
d) PGP; SSL
e) None of the above
109. IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Physical
e) None of the above

110. ESP does not provide ________

a) source authentication
b) data integrity
c) privacy
d) error control
e) None of the above

111. In computer security _______ means that computer system assets can be modified only by
authorized parities.
a) confidentiality
b) integrity
c) availability
d) authenticity
e) None of the above

112. State true or false.

i) Socks are a standard for circuit level gateways.
ii) The NAT is used for small number of the hosts in a private network.
a) True, False
b) False, True
c) True, True
d) False, False
e) None of the above

113. A .................. is an extension of an enterprise’s private intranet across a public Network

such as
the Internet across a public Network such as the Internet, creating a secure private connection.
a) VNP
b) VPN
c) VSN
d) VSPN
e) None of the above

114. The primary goal of the ...................... protocol is to provide a private channel between
communicating application, which ensures privacy of data authentication of the partners, and
integrity.
a) SSL
b) ESP
c) TSL
d) PSL
e) None of the above

115. The ................is used to provide integrity check, authentication and encryption to IP
datagram.
a) SSL
b) ESP
c) TSL
d) PSL
e) None of the above

116. In ........................ mode, a common technique in packet-switched networks consists of

wrapping a
packet in a new one.
a) Tunneling
b) Encapsulation
c) Both A and B
d) Only A & Not B
e) None of the above

117. The ............................. Is a collection of protocols designed by Internet Engineering Task

Force (IETF)
to provide security for a packet at the Network level.
a) IPsec
b) Netsec
c) Packetsec
d) Protocolsec
e) None of the above

118. At the lower layer of SSL, a protocol for transferring data using a variety of predefined
cipher and authentication combinations called the ……………….
a) SSL handshake protocol
b) SSL authentication protocol
c) SSL record protocol
d) SSL cipher protocol
e) None of the above

119. While initiating SSL session, the client code recognizes the SSL request and establishes a
connection through TCP Part ................. to the SSL code on the server.
a) 420
b) 1032
c) 443
d) 322
e) None of the above
120. On the upper layer of SSL, a protocol for initial authentication and transfer of encryption
keys, called the …………………
a) SSL handshake protocol
b) SSL authentication protocol
c) SSL record protocol
d) SSL cipher protocol
e) None of the above

121. Which is not an application layer protocol?

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
e) None of the mentioned

122. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigm?

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
e) None of the mentioned

123. Pick the odd one out.

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
e) None of the mentioned

124. Which of the following is an application layer service?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
e) None of the mentioned

125. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
e) None of the mentioned

126. Which of the following layers is an addition to OSI model when compared with TCP IP
model?
a) Application layer
b) Presentation layer
c) Session layer
d) Session and Presentation layer
e) None of the mentioned

127. Application layer is implemented in ____________

a) End system
b) NIC
c) Ethernet
d) Packet transport
e) None of the mentioned

128. The functionalities of the presentation layer include ____________

a) Data compression
b) Data encryption
c) Data description
d) All of the mentioned
e) None of the mentioned

129. Application layer protocol defines ____________

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
e) None of the mentioned

130. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP
network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple network management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
e) None of the mentioned

131. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the _____________
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) TCP protocol
e) None of the mentioned

132. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site
and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) TCP
e) None of these

133. Which one of the following protocols delivers/stores mail to receiver server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
e) None of these

134. FTP server listens for connection on port number ____________

a) 20
b) 21
c) 22
d) 23
e) None of These

135. In FTP protocol, client contacts server using ____ as the transport protocol.
a) transmission control protocol
b) user datagram protocol
c) datagram congestion control protocol
d) stream control transmission protocol
e) None of these

136. The File Transfer Protocol is built on ______________

a) data centric architecture
b) service-oriented architecture
c) client server architecture
d) connection-oriented architecture
e) None of these

137. Expansion of FTP is __________

a) Fine Transfer Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) First Transfer Protocol
d) Fast Transfer Protocol
e) None of these

138. FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) None of these

139. FTP server _____________

a) Maintains state information
b) Is stateless
c) Has single TCP connection for a file transfer
d) Has UDP connection for file transfer
e) None of these

140. When the mail server sends mail to other mail servers it becomes ____________
a) SMTP server
b) SMTP client
c) Peer
d) Master
e) None of these

141. If you have to send multimedia data over SMTP it has to be encoded into _______
a) Binary
b) Signal
c) ASCII
d) Hash
e) None of these

142. The underlying Transport layer protocol used by SMTP is ________

a) TCP
b) UDP
c) Either TCP or UDP
d) IMAP
e) None of these

143. Choose the statement which is wrong in case of SMTP?

a) It requires message to be in 7bit ASCII format
b) It is a pull protocol
c) It transfers files from one mail server to another mail server
d) SMTP is responsible for the transmission of the mail through the internet
e) None of these

144. Typically the TCP port used by SMTP is _________

a) 25
b) 35
c) 50
d) 15
e) None of these

145. Which of the following is an example of user agents for e-mail?

a) Microsoft Outlook
b) Facebook
c) Google
d) Tumblr
e) None of these

146. When the sender and the receiver of an email are on different systems, we need only
_________
a) One MTA
b) Two UAs
c) Two UAs and one MTA
d) Two UAs and two MTAs
e) None of these

147. Which one of the following is not true?

a) telnet defines a network virtual terminal (NVT) standard
b) client programs interact with NVT
c) server translates NVT operations
d) client can transfer files using to remote server using NVT
e) None of these

148. URL stands for ________

a) unique reference label
b) uniform reference label
c) uniform resource locator
d) unique resource locator
e) None of these

149. Identify the correct order in which the following actions take place in an interaction
between a web browser and a web server.
The web browser requests a webpage using HTTP.
The web browser establishes a TCP connection with the web server.
The web server sends the requested webpage using HTTP.
The web browser resolves the domain name using DNS.
A)4,2,1,3
B)1,2,3,4
C)4,1,2,3
D)2,4,1,3
e) None of these

150. Which phase/s of POP3 allow/s a user agent to retrieve the messages as well as to mark the
messages for deletion purpose?

a. Authorization Phase
b. Transaction Phase
c. Update Phase
d. All of the above
e) None of these
Answers:

1. B
2. A
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. A
7. A
8. D
9. D
10. B
11. C
12. D
13. A
14. D
15. C
16. D
17. C
18. D
19. A
20. D
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. B
26. A, B
27. B, C
28. C, D
29. A, D
30. A, B, C
31. C
32. D
33. C
34. D
35. D
36. C
37. B
38. D
39. B
40. C
41. A
42. B
43. D
44. D
45. A
46. D
47. A
48. C
49. B
50. C
51. D
52. D
53. B
54. A
55.C
56. A
57. C
58. B
59. C
60. C
61. A, B
62. D
63. C
64. B, D
65. B
66. C
67. A
68. A
69. D, E
70. A
71. A, B
72. A
73. A
74. D
75. C
76. C
77. D
78. B
79. A
80. B
81. D
82. C
83. A, B
84. D
85. A, B
86. B
87. B
88. B
89. A
90. B
91. A
92. C
93. A
94. D
95. A
96. B
97. A
98. A
99. B
100. A
101. D
102. A
103. B
104. B
105. D
106. C
107. A
108. C
109. A
110. D
111. B
112. C
113. B
114. A
115. B
116. C
117. A
118. C
119. C
120. A
121. D
122. D
123. D
124. D
125. A
126. D
127. A
128. D
129. D
130. B
131. A
132. C
133. A
134. B
135. A
136. C
137. B
138. B
139. A
140. B
141. C
142. A
143. B
144. A
145. A
146. D
147. D
148. C
149. A
150. B