BIOHACK NOTES

REPRODUCTION
IN ORGANISMS
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • INTRODUCTION

1. Who was the father of plant embryology ?

2. Life span of parrot is _____ while than of crow is _____
3. No individual is immortal except -
4. Life span of banyan tree, tortoise, cow, dog, horse and crocodile, elephant, rice plant, fruitfly are -
5. Organisms internal physiology is not responsible for how it reproduces. T/F

• ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION

6. Morphologically and genetically similar individuals are called ______ (NEET)

7. Paramoecium undergoes binary fission. T/F
8. What does an amoeba do under unfavourable conditions ? This phenomenon is called _______
9. Most common asexual reproductive structure is - (NEET)
10. When favourable condition return, amoeba divide by ________ and produces many minute ______ or
_______. This phenomenon is called _______
11. Units of vegetative propagation in plants are (6) - (NEET)
DigaQ. 1
12. Hydra show fragmentation. T/F
13. Terror of bengal is actually a aquatic plant ______
14. Terror of bengal cause death of fishes because - (NEET)
15. It was introduced in india because -
16. Rhizomes ex are (2) - (NEET)
17. Algae and fungi shift to asexual mode of reproduction
just before the onset of adverse condtion. T/F

A
X
X

Y
B C D
 DigaQ. 2 X
X
Y Y
C

A
Z
X B

E
D

• SEXUAL REPRODUCTION

18. Sexual reproduction is a slow process. T/F

19. The period of growth is called _______
20. In the inter-flowering phase, the plant is called juvenile/mature.
21. Bamboo species flower only once/twice after ___-___ years. (NEET)
22. _________ flowers once in 12 years.
23. Neelakuranji flowers in the hilly areas of _____,_____,_____
24. Apes have oestrous/menstrual cycle.
25. Oestrous cycle is present in (6) -
26. The 3 events of sexual reproduction are -
27. Pre-fertillisation event include - (2)
28. Example of Isogametes -
29. In several _____ and _____, monocious or _______ term is used to denote bisexual condition.
30. Unisexual male flower is called _______
31. Unisexual female flower is called _______
32. Monoecious plant ex - (2) (NEET)
 DigaQ. 3

A B C

33. Dioecious plant ex - (2)

34. Bisexual animals ex - (4)
35. All gametes are produced by meiotic division. T/F
36. What are meiocytes ? (NEET)
37. No. of chromosomes in meiocyte of housefly, rat, dog, cat, fruitfly, ophioglossum, apple, rice, maize,
potato, butterfly and onion are -
DigaQ. 4
38. In few cases of fungi, both types of gametes are motile. T/F
39. Peas are bisexual/unisexual.
40. Most crucial and vital event in sexual reproduction is -
41. Fertillisation is also called _______
42. Ex. of parthenogenesis (4) - X
43. Internal fertillisation doesn't occur in any fungi. T/F
44. In seed plants, however, the non-motile male
gametes are carried to female gametes by pollen tubes. T/F Y
A
45. ______ is the vital link that ensures continuity of species.
46. Zygote develops a thick wall that is resistant to desiccation and damage in - (2)
47. During embryogenesis, zygote undergoes _______ and _______
48. Chances of survival in oviparous is more than viviparous. T/F
49. Even after fertillisation, sepals remain attached in - (3)
50. Ovules develop into _____ and ovary develop into _____ X
51. Plants are defined as ______ and ______
52. Flowers are defined as ______ and ______ Y
53. ______ is the progenitor of the next generation.

B
REPRODUCTION
IN ORGANISMS

ANSWERS
• INTRODUCTION 29. Fungi and algae, homothallic
1. Panchanan Maheshwari 30. Staminate
2. 140, 15 31. Pistillate
3. Unicellular organism 32. cucurbits and coconuts
4. 200 yr., 100-150 yr., 20-25 yr., 25-30 yr., 33. papaya and date palm
60 yr., 60 yr., 3-4 months, 2 weeks 34. Earthworms, sponge, tapeworm and leech
5. F 35. T
• ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION 36. Gamete mother cells
6. Clones 37. 12, 42, 78, 38, 8, 1260, 34, 24, 20, 48, 380, 16
7. T 38. T
8. Withdraws pseudopodia and secrete 3 layer hard 39. Bisexual
covering, encystation 40. Fertillisation
9. Zoospore 41. Syngamy
10. Multiple fission, amoeba and pseudopodiospores, 42. Rotifers, honey bees, some lizards and turkey
sporulation 43. F
11. runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb 44. T
12. T 45. Zygote
13. Water hyacinth 46. Fungi and algae
14. It drains oxygen from the water 47. Cell division and cell differentiation
15. beautiful flowers and shape of leaves (isliye 48. F
kahte hai khubsurati dhoka de jati hai, XD) 49. tomato, brinjal, guava
16. Banana and ginger 50. Seed, fruit
17. F, shift to sexual mode 51. Monoecious and dioecious
• SEXUAL REPRODUCTION 52. Unisexual and bisexual
18. T 53. Embryo
19. Juvenile phase • DigaQs
20. Juvenile DigaQ. 1 - Asexual reproductive structures:
21. Once, 50-100 A – Zoospores of Chlamydomonas
22. Strobilanthus kunthiana (neelakuranji) B – Conidia of Penicillium
23. Kerala, karnataka, tamil nadu X – Conidia
24. Menstrual C – Buds in Hydra
25. cows, sheep, rats, deers, dogs, tiger X – Mouth
26. pre-fertilisation, fertilisation and the post- Y – Bud
fertilisation events D – Gemmules in sponge
27. Gametogenesis and gamete transfer
28. Cladophora
DigaQ. 2 - Vegetative propagules in angiosperms DigaQ. 3 - Types of gametes
A – Eyes of potato A – Isogametes of Cladophora
X – Eyes B – Heterogametes of Fucus (an alga)
Y – Germinating eye buds C – Heterogametes of Homo sapiens
B – Rhizome of ginger DigaQ. 4 - Diversity of sexuality in organisms
X – Nodes A – Monoecious plant (Chara)
Y – Buds X – Oogonium (female sex organ)
Z – Adventitious root Y – Antheridium (male sex organ)
C – Bulbil of Agave B – Bisexual flower (sweet potato)
D – Leaf buds of Bryophyllum X – Stamen
X – Adventitious buds Y – Carpel
E – Offset of water hyacinth
X – Offset

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 BIOHACK NOTES

REPRODUCTION
IN FLOWERING PLANTS

• Based on active recall and spaced repetition

• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • PRE-FERTILLISATION : STRUCTURE & EVENTS

• STAMENS, MICROSPORANGIUM & POLLEN GRAIN

1. _______ are morphological and embryological marvels.
2. 2 parts of stamen are -
3. The proximal/distal end of the filament is attached to _____ or _____ of the flower. (NEET)
4. A typical angiosperm anther is unilobed/bilobed and monothecous/dithecous condition.
5. Anther consist of ____ no. of microsporangia.
DigaQ. 1
6. Microsporangia develop further and become ______
7. The 4 wall layers of microsporangium are - A
8. ______ nourishes the developing pollen grain. B
9. The outer 3 layers perform the function of - (2)
10. Tapetum have light/dense cytoplasm and one/more than one nucleus. C
11. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged cells called
_______ occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
12. The two anther lobes are attached to each other by _______
13. ______ help in dehiscence of anther due to their hygroscopic nature.
14. Tapetum surrounds the sporogenous tissue. T/F
15. Sporogenous tissue undergo meiotic divisions to form _________ D
16. What is microsporogenesis ?
17. As the anthers mature and rehydrate, the microspores dissociate from each other and develop into
pollen grains. T/F
18. Pollen grain measures about ___-___ mm in diameter.
19. Its wall is single layered. T/F
20. The hard outer layer called _____ is made up of _______
21. _______ is one of the most resistant organic material known.
22. No enzyme that degrades sporopollenin is so far known. T/F
23. Part of exine where sporopollenin is absent is -
A
DigaQ. 2
B
C
A
B D
C
D E
F
X E Y
 DigaQ. 3
24. Intine is thin/thick layer made up of _____ and _____
25. Mature pollen grain contain 2 cells, namely -
26. Irregular shaped nucleus is present in vegetative/generative cell. T/F
27. Generative cell is _____ shaped. A
28. _______ floats in the cytoplasm of ________
29. Generative cell have dense cytoplasm and nucleus. T/F
B
30. In less than ___% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at 3-celled stage.
31. _____ cell divide to give 3 celled stage. C
32. Carrot grass also called ____, came into india as a contaminant with imported _____
33. Pollen consumption has been claimed to increase the performance of ______ and _____
34. In rice and wheat, pollen grains lose viability within ___ minutes.
35. Families whose pollen remain viable for months are - (3)
36. Liquid nitrogen temperature is - (NEET)
37. Pollen grains are preserved for years by using the technique of ________
• PISTIL, MEGASPORANGIUM (OVULE) & EMBRYO SAC
38. Monocarpellary condition means ? DigaQ. 4
39. Ovarian cavity is also called ______ A
40. Placenta is located outside the ovarian cavity. T/F A
41. Megasporangia are commonly called _______ B
42. Megasporangia arise from placenta. T/F
43. Apocarpous ex (1) -
44. Syncarpous ex (1) - B
45. Single ovule is present in (3) -
46. Multiple ovules are present in (3) -
47. Ovule is attached to placenta by ______
48. The body of the ovule fuses with funicle in the C
D
region called _____
49. Integuments encircle the nucellus except at ______ A
A
50. Opposite to micropyle is the ______ end.
B
51. MIcropyle represents the basal part of the ovule. T/F C
52. ______ is enclosed within the integuments. D
E
53. Female gametophyte is also called _______ F
54. ______ have abundant reserve food materials. G
55. An ovule generally has a single embryo sac. T/F H
56. Ovules generally differentiate a single MMC from
the chalazal/micropylar region of nucellus. I
57. MMC have thin/dense cytoplasm and inconspicuous/prominent nucleus. DigaQ. 5
58. What is monosporic development ? (NEET) X
59. The nuclear divisions in the function megaspore are free nuclear. T/F A
60. Egg apparatus consists of _____ and ______
61. Synergids have special cellular thickenings at the
micropylar tip called _________
62. Fxn of filiform apparatus is -
63. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity B
C
shows 7-nucleated, 8-celled condition. T/F D
• POLLINATION
64. Pollen grains are non-motile. T/F E
65. Depending on source of pollen, the 3 types of pollination are - F
66. Ex of autogamy are - (3) Y
67. In chasmogamous flowers, anthers and stigma lie close to each other. T/F
68. ______ flowers produce assured seed-set even in the absence of pollinators.
69. What is Geitonogamy ?
70. Geitonogamy is functionally ______ and genetically similar to ______
71. Only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma is -
72. Two abiotic and one biotic agents for pollination are -
73. Majority of plants use abiotic/biotic agents for pollination.
74. Pollination by _____ is more common amongst abiotic pollinations. DigaQ. 6
75. Wind pollinators produce sticky pollen grains so that they
stick to stigma. T/F
76. Feathery stigma and well exposed stamens are feature of -
77. Wind pollinators have ____ no. of ovules in the ovary. (NEET) A
78. Packed inflorescence is a feature of wind pollinators. T/F (NEET)
79. Ex of wind pollination - (2)
80. Pollination by water is limited to ____ no. of genera,
mostly monocot/dicot.
81. Ex. of fresh water pollinated plants - (2)
82. Ex. of marine water pollinated plants - (1)
83. Sea-grass ex - B
84. Aquatic plants not pollinated by water are - (2) (NEET)
85. In _______, epihydrophily is present. (NEET)
86. Hypohydrophily is present in -
87. Long, ribbon like pollen grains are present in -
88. In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by ____________
89. Common biotic pollinating agents are - (10)
90. ____ are the dominant biotic pollinating agents. DigaQ. 7
91. Ex. of lizards reported as pollinating agents is - (2) A
92. Tallest flower is of ___ feet and its name is -
93. Largest inflorescence - B
94. Largest flower -
95. In Amorphophallus, floral reward given by plant is -
96. Yucca and _____ cannot complete their life cycle
with each other. D
C
97. Moth deposit its egg in _____ of the ovary.
98. Continued self-pollination result in _________
99. 4 outbreeding devices are -
100. Papaya is monoecious/dioecious. (NEET)
101. Monoecious ex - (2)
102. In 2-celled pollen, the generative cell divide during _________
103. ______ guides the entry of pollen tube.
104. To study pollen germination, ____% solution of _____ is taken.
105. After waiting for __-__ min, pollen grains are studied under high/low power microscope.
106. What is emasculation ?
107. Emasculated flowers are covered with a bag made up of ______. This process is called -
108. There is no need for emasculation in _____ flowers.
DigaQ. 8

• DOUBLE FERTILLISATION
C
C
109. _______ is a event unique to angiosperms. (NEET) D
110. Suspensor grow to push embryo away from _______ end.
111. Suspensor help to transfer ______ to embryo.
E

A B F
 • POST-FERTILLISATION : STRUCTURES AND EVENTS

• ENDOSPERM
112. Embryo development precedes endosperm development. T/F DigaQ. 9
113. Free-nuclear endosperm ex - (1) (NEET)
114. Endosperm is completely consumed in (3) - A
115. Endosperm persist in mature seeds in (2) -
116. Endosperm persist in cereals. T/F
• EMBRYO
B
117. The zygote give rise to ______ and subsequently _____,_____,_____
118. Name the 2 parts of embryo - C
119. Embryonal axis above the level of attachment of cotyledon
is ______ and below is ______
120. Radicle is covered by -
121. In _____ family, cotyledon is called scutellum. D
122. In monocot, root cap is enclosed in ______ E
X
123. Coleorhiza is an undifferentiated sheath cell. T/F
124. Epicotyl is enclosed in a _____ _____ structure, the _______
• SEED A
125. Fertilised ovules means -
126. Non-Albuminous seed doesn't have ______ (NEET) B
127. Residual, persistent nucellus is called ______ (NEET)
128. Non-albuminous seed ex (2) - (NEET) C
129. Albuminous seeds ex (4) -
D
130. Perispermic seeds ex (2) - (NEET)
131. Ex-albuminous means seed which contains albumin. T/F
132. As the seeds mature, seeds lose __-__ % of moisture my mass.
133. Integuments develop into ______ E
F
134. _______ facilitates the entry of water and oxygen for germination. Y G
135. Mustard fruit is fleshy/dry.
136. 3 examples of fruits which developed from thalamus are -
137. Parthenocarpic fruit ex - (1) (NEET)
138. Seeds of large [Link] species lose viability in few months. T/F
139. The oldest viable seed is of ____ ____
excavated from ________
 DigaQ. 10 A
A
B

C D

C E
D
F
E
F X Y G

140. The seed of lupine germinated after ______ years of dormancy.

141. Seed of a date palm, namely _________, had a viability of _______ years and was discovered at
______ near ______
142. Plant with large no. of tiny seeds ex. are - (4)

• APOMIXIS & POLYEMBRYONY

143. Apomixis is present in (2) -

144. _______ is a form of asexual reproduction that mimic sexual reproduction.
145. Polyembryony ex (2) - (NEET)
146. Why seeds of orchids symbiotically associate with mycorrhiza ?
147. Why coconuts are found near sea beaches ?

DigaQ. 11
A A
B B A

C
X D Y
REPRODUCTION
IN FLOWERING PLANTS

ANSWERS
• PRE-FERTILLISATION 35. Rosaceae, Leguminoseae and Solanaceae
1. Flowers 36. -196*C
2. Filament and anther 37. Cryopreservation
3. Proximal, thalamus ot petal 38. Single pistil
4. Bilobed, dithecous 39. Locule
5. 4 40. F
6. Pollen sacs 41. Ovules
7. Epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and tapetum 42. T
8. Tapetum 43. Michelia
9. Protection and help in dehiscence of anther 44. Papaver
10. Dense, more than one 45. Wheat, paddy and mango
11. Sporogenous tissue 46. Papaya, watermelon and orchids
12. Connective 47. Funicle
13. Endothecium 48. Hilum
14. T 49. Micropyle
15. Microspore tetrad 50. Chlazal
16. The process of formation of microspores from a 51. F
pollen mother cell 52. Nucellus
17. F, dehydrate 53. Embryo sac
18. 0.025-0.050 54. Nucellus
19. F 55. T
20. Exine, sporopollenin 56. Micropylar
21. Sporopollenin 57. Dense, prominent
22. T 58. Embryo sac form from single megaspore rest
23. Germ pores all degenerate
24. Thin, cellulose and pectin 59. T
25. Vegetative cell and generative cell 60. 2 synergids and 1 egg cell
26. Vegetative cell 61. Filiform apparatus
27. Spindle 62. Guide the pollen tube into the synergids
28. Generative cell, vegetative 63. F
29. T 64. T
30. 40 65. Autogamy, geitonogamy, xenogamy
31. Generative 66. Viola, Oxalis and Commelina
32. Parthenium, wheat 67. F
33. Athletes and race horses
34. 30
68. Cleistogamous (Autogamous) 99. I. Unisexuality of flower, II. Dichogamy :
69. Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to Different maturation time of androecium and
the stigma of another flower of the same plant gynoecium, III. Self-incompatibility : Inhibition of
70. Cross pollination, autogamy pollen germination of same plant, IV : Anther and
71. Xenogamy stigma are at different position so that pollen
72. Abiotic - water and wind, biotic - animals cannot come in contact
73. Biotic 100. Dioecious
74. Wind 101. Castor and maize
75. F, they produce non-sticky pollen grain 102. Growth of pollen tube in the stigma
76. Wind pollinators 103. Filiform apparatus
77. 1 104. 10, sugar
78. T 105. 15-30, low
79. Grasses and maize (corn) 106. Removal of anther from floral bud before
80. 30, monocot anther dehiscence
81. Vallisneria and Hydrilla 107. Butter paper, bagging
82. Seagrasses 108. Unisexual female
83. Zostera • DOUBLE FERTILLISATION
84. Water hyacinth and water lily 109. Double fertillisation
85. Vallisneria 110. Micropylar
86. Zostera 111. Nutrients
87. Sea grasses • POST-FERTILLISATION
88. Mucilaginous covering 112. F
89. Bees, butterflies, flies, beetles, wasp, moths, 113. Coconut water
ants, sunbirds, hummingbirds, bats 114. Pea, groundnut, beans
90. Bees 115. Castor and coconut
91. Gecko lizard and garden lizard 116. T
92. 6 feet, amorphophallus 117. proembryo, globular, heart-shaped and mature
93. Amorphophallus embryo
94. Rafflesia 118. Embryonal axis and cotyledons
95. Safe place to lay eggs 119. Epicotyl, hypocotyl
96. Moth (name Pronuba) 120. Root cap
97. Locule 121. Grass
98. Inbreeding depression
122. Coleorhiza • DigaQs
123. T DigaQ. 1 - three–dimensional cut section of an
124. Hollow foliar, coleoptile anther
125. Seed A – Pollen grains C – Line of dehiscence
126. Endosperm B – Pollen sacs D – Filament
127. Perisperm DigaQ. 2 - Transverse section of a young anther
128. Pea, groundnut X Y
129. Wheat, maize, barley, castor A – Connective A – Epidermis
130. Black pepper and beet B – Epidermis B – Endothecium
131. F C – Endothecium C – Middle layers
132. 10-15 D – Sporogenous tissue D – Microspore
133. Seed coat E – Tapetum mother cells
134. Micropyle F – Middle layers E – Tapetum
135. Dry DigaQ. 3 – stages of a microspore maturing into a
136. Apple, strawberry and cashew pollen grain
137. Banana A – Asymmetric spindle
138. F, majority live for several years B – Vegetative cell
139. Lupinus arcticus, arctic tundra C – Generative cell
140. 10,000 DigaQ. 4
141. Phoenix dactylifera, 2000, King Herod's palace, W – A dissected flower of Hibiscus showing pistil
Dead sea A – Stigma
142. Orchids, orobanche, striga, ficus B – Style
• APOMIXIS & POLYEMBRYONY C – Ovary
143. Asteraceae and grasses D – Thalamus
144. Apomixis X – Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver
145. Citrus and mango A – Stigma
146. Seeds of orchids are very small and have no B – syncarpous ovary
food reserves. This is why they have to bond Y – A multicarpellary gynoecium of Michelia
symbiotically with fungi to form mycorrhiza for A – Carpels
germination.
147. Coconuts are best to get dispersed through sea
water. Reason - 1. Coconut have mesocarp made of
husk which help to float. 2. Coconut have large food
reserve material which help for survival for long
time.
Z – A diagrammatic view of an anatropous ovule DigaQ. 9
A – Hilum X – A typical dicot embryo
B – Funicle A – Plumule
C – Micropyle B – Cotyledons
D – Micropylar pole C – Hypocotyl
E – Outer integument D – Radicle
F – Inner integument E – Root cap
G – Nucellus Y – L.S. of an embryo of grass
H – Embryo sac A – Scutellum
I – Chalazal pole B – Coleoptile
DigaQ. 5 - Mature embryo sac C – Shoot apex
X – Chalazal end D – Epiblast
Y – Micropylar end E – Radicle
A – Antipodals F – Root cap
B – Polar nuclei G – Coleorhiza
C – Central cell DigaQ. 10 - Structure of some seeds
D – Egg X Y
E – Synergids A – Seed coat A – Pericarp
F – Filiform apparatus B – Cotyledon B – Endocarp
DigaQ. 6 C – Shoot apical C – Scutellum
A – Chasmogamous flower meristem D – Coleoptile
B – Cleistogamous flower D – Hypocotyl root axis E – Plumule
DigaQ. 7 - Pollination by water in Vallisneria E – Root tip F – Radicle
A – Female flower F – Endosperm G – Coleorhiza
B – Stigma DigaQ. 11 - False fruits
C – Male flower X – apple
D – Female flower A – Thalamus
DigaQ. 8 - Stages in embryo development in a dicot B – Seed
A – Globular embryo C – Endocarp
B – Heart shaped embryo D – Mesocarp
C – Suspensor Y – strawberry
D – Radicle A – Thalamus
E – Cotyledon B – Achene
F – Plumule
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 BIOHACK NOTES

HUMAN
REPRODUCTION
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • THE MALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

1. Testis are situated in a pouch called ______ (NEET) DigaQ. 1

2. Scrotum helps to lower the temperature by __-___ °C. (NEET)
3. Lowering temperature is necessary for ________ (NEET) A
4. Length and width of testis is about - B
5. How many seminiferous tubules are present in testis?
C
6. How many testicular lobules are present in testis?
D
7. Each lobule contains __-__ no. of seminiferous tubules. O
E
8. Seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of F
cells called ______ and ______ N
G
9. ______ provide nutrition to germ cells. (NEET) M
10. Immunologically competent cells are absent in regions H
I K
outside seminiferous tubule. T/F J L
11. Arrange the male accessory ducts is sequence from testis to urethra (4) - (NEET)
12. Epididymis is located in anterior/posterior surface of testis.
13. _____ is the male external genitalia.
14. The enlarged end of penis is called ______ and is covered by a loose fold of skin called ______
15. Male accessory glands include (3) - (NEET)
16. Seminal plasma is rich in (3) - (NEET)
17. Bulbourethral gland is also called _____ gland and help in _______

DigaQ. 2 DigaQ. 3
A N
B M A
L
K
C B
D J
C
E
F I
D
G H
 • THE FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM

18. Primary female sex organ is -

DigaQ. 4
19. Ovary length is ___-___ cm.
20. Ovary is connected to pelvic wall and L
uterus by ______
A K
21. Ovary is covered by thick/thin epithelium
B
which encloses ________ C
22. Stroma is divided into 2 zones namely, J
D
_______ and ________ E
23. Female accessory ducts include (3) - F I
G
24. Fallopian tube length is - H
25. 3 parts of fallopian tube are - (NEET)
26. Infundibulum is _______ shaped. (NEET)
27. Finger-like projections from infundibulum are called ______ (NEET)
28. Fxn of fimbriae is - DigaQ. 5
A
29. Ampulla is a narrow lumen. T/F B M
30. ______ is a wider part of oviduct and
L N
______ is a narrow lumen.
K
31. Uterus is also called ______ C
D I
32. Cervical canal along with vagina forms - J
E H
33. The 3 layers of wall of uterus is - (NEET)
34. Perimetrium is thick. T/F G
35. Wall which is glandular in nature is - F
36. Myometrium is a thick/thin layer of ______ types of muscles. DigaQ. 6
37. _______ is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by
skin and pubic hair. (NEET) A H
38. _______ extend down from the mons pubis and
B G
surrounds the vaginal opening.
39. _______ are paired folds of tissue under the labia majora. C F
40. Opening of the vagina is covered partially by a membrane called ____.
E
41. Clitoris lies at the upper junction of ______ above/below D
urethral opening.
42. Presence of hymen means the female is a virgin. T/F
43. Each breast contains ___-___ no. of mammary lobes.
44. Describe the pathway from milk producing site to outside.
 DigaQ. 7
A
• GAMETOGENESIS B
C
45. Spermatogonia is haploid. T/F D
46. Spermatogonia differentiate to - (NEET) E K
47. Primary spermatocytes are haploid. T/F F J
48. Write the various stages of gametogenesis. (5)
49. First haploid stage of gametogenesis is - (NEET) G
I
50. Secondary spermatocytes have DNA content equal to H
spermatogonia. T/F
51. Spermatids are transformed into sperms by the process called ______
52. What is spermiation ? DigaQ. 8
53. LH acts on ______ and FSH acts on ______ (NEET)
F
54. Sperm is composed of (4) -
E
55. The sperm head is covered by a cap-like structure
called ______ (NEET) D
56. The middle piece contain ______ (NEET)
C
57. _______ is filled with enzymes that help fertilisation
of the ovum.
B
58. Human male ejaculate about ____-____ million
sperms during coitus.
59. At least ____ % of the total sperms must show A
vigorous motility.
60. At least, ____ % sperms must have normal shape and size. DigaQ. 9
A
61. At least, ____ % of them must show vigorous motility.
62. Semen = _____ + _____ B
63. Oogenesis is initiated after the onset of puberty. T/F (NEET) P C
64. Primary oocytes are arrested at ______ stage of meiosis. (NEET)
65. Primary oocyte surrounded by _______ is called primary follicle. Q
66. Total primary follicles left at puberty in a female body is ______-______ R
67. Primary follicles surrounded by ______ and ______ are called secondary follicles. D
68. Tertiary follicle is characterised by - (NEET)
69. The theca layer in tertiary follicle is organised into _______ and _______ S
70. Primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division in _____ stage of follicle.
71. Primary oocyte after meiosis forms _______ and _______
72. Tertiary follicle further changes into -
73. Secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called ________ surrounding it. (NEET)
 DigaQ. 10 C
B
• MENSTRUAL CYCLE A
D

74. Menstruation begins at ______ and stops at ______

75. Menses lasts for about __-__ days.
E
76. Follicular phase is also called _______
77. FSH and LH increase gradually during the _______ phase. (NEET) F
78. Secretory phase is also called ______
79. Luteal phase remains constant, i.e. of 14 days. T/F
80. LH surge causes _______
81. Graffian follicle transforms into _______ (NEET)
82. Corpus luteum secrete large amounts of ________ to maintain ________ (NEET)
83. Menstrual cycles ceases around ___ years of age.

DigaQ. 11

A B

E
C D

X Y Z
 • FERTILISATION AND IMPLANTATION

84. Fertillisation take place at ______ region of fallopian tube. (NEET)

A
85. When a sperm comes in contact with _______, it cause DigaQ. 12
blockage of entry of other sperms. (NEET)
86. What is ootid ?
87. The embryo with ___-___ no. of blastomeres is called morula.
88. Morula transforms into - D
89. Blastomeres are arranged in outer layer called _______ C B
and an inner group of cells called _______
90. _______ layer then gets attached to the endometrium.
91. What is implantation?
E

• PREGNANCY AND EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT

92. Finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called _________

93. ______ and ______ jointly form placenta.
94. Name some hormones secreted by placenta (5) - (NEET)
95. Hormones produced only during pregnancy (3) - (NEET)
96. Levels of cortisol and thyroxine increase several folds during pregnancy. T/F
97. Immediately after implantation, the inner cell mass differentiates into - (3)
98. Longest gestation period is of ______
99. Body is covered with fine hair by the end of ____th month, whereas appearance of hair on head
occur at the end of ___th month.
100. Most of the major organ systems are formed by the end of ___th month.
101. Eyelashes separate, eyelids are formed at the end of 6th month. T/F
102. In humans, after 1 month of pregnancy, ______ is formed.
103. By the end of 2nd month, fetus develop _____ and _____
104. By the end of 3 months - (3) DigaQ. 13
105. By the end of 5th month - (2)
106. By the end of 6th months - (3)

A B
 • PARTURITION AND LACTATION
DigaQ. 14 A
107. The signals for parturition originate from mother/foetus.
108. What is foetal ejection reflex ? (NEET)
109. Parturition is a example of positive/negative B
feedback mechanism. C
F
110. ______ contains several antibodies produced D
during the initial days of lactation.
111. Parturition is induced by complex neuroendocrine
mechanism involving hormones (3) –
E
 HUMAN
REPRODUCTION

ANSWERS
• ♂ REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 33. Perimetrium, myometrium and endometrium
1. Scrotum 34. F
2. 2-2.5°C 35. Endometrium
3. Spermatogenesis 36. Thick, smooth
4. Length - 4-5 cm, Width - 2-3 cm 37. Mons pubis
5. 500-750 38. Labia majora
6. 250 39. Labia minora
7. 2-3 40. Hymen
8. Male germ cell and sertoli cell 41. Labia minora, above
9. Sertoli 42. F
10. F 43. 15-20
11. rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas →
44. Mammary alveolus mammary duct
deferens → →
ampulla lactiferous duct
12. Posterior • GAMETOGENESIS
13. Penis 45. F
14. Glans penis, foreskin 46. Primary spermatocyte
15. Seminal vesicles, prostate and paired 47. F
bulbourethral glands 48. Spermatogonia - primary spermatocyte -
16. Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes secondary spermatocyte - spermatid - spermatozoa
17. Cowper, lubrication of penis 49. Secondary spermatocyte
• ♀ REPRODUCTIVE SYSTEM 50. T
18. Ovary 51. Spermiogenesis
19. 2-4 cm 52. Release of sperms into seminiferous tubule
20. Ligaments 53. Leydig cells, sertoli cells
21. Thin, ovarian stroma 54. Head, neck, middle piece, tail
22. Peripheral cortex and inner medulla 55. Acrosome
23. Oviducts, uterus and vagina 56. Mitochondria
24. 10-12 cm 57. Acrosome
25. Infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus 58. 200-300
26. Funnel 59. 24
27. Fimbriae 60. 60
28. Collection of ovum after ovulation 61. 40
29. F 62. Seminal fluid + sperms
30. Ampulla, isthmus 63. F
31. Womb
32. Birth canal
64. Prophase - I 95. hCG, hPL and relaxin
65. Granulosa cells 96. T
66. 1,20,000-1,60,000 97. Endoderm, mesoderm and ectoderm
67. Granulosa cell and new theca 98. Elephant, 22 months
68. Fluid filled antrum 99. 6th, 5th
69. Outer theca externa and inner theca interna 100. 3rd
70. Tertiary 101. F
71. Secondary oocyte and polar body 102. Heart
72. Graffian follicle 103. Limbs and digits
73. Zona pellucida 104. most of the major organ systems are formed,
• MENSTRUAL CYCLE limbs and external genital organs are well developed
74. Menarche, menopause 105. first movements of the foetus and appearance
75. 3-5 of hair on the head
76. Proliferative phase 106. body is covered with fine hair, eye-lids separate,
77. Follicular phase and eyelashes are formed
78. Luteal phase • PARTURITION AND LACTATION
79. T 107. Foetus
80. Ovulation 108. The signals for parturition originate from the
81. Corpus luteum fully developed foetus and placenta which induce
82. Progesterone, endometrium mild uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex
83. 50 109. Positive
• FERTILISATION & IMPLANTATION 110. Colostrum
84. Ampullary 111. cortisol, estrogens and oxytocin
85. Zona pellucida • DigaQs
86. Haploid ovum DigaQ. 1 – Male pelvis H – Glans penis
87. 8-16 A – Ureter I – Foreskin
88. Blastocyst B – Seminal vesicle J – Scrotum
89. Trphoblast, inner cell mass C – Urinary bladder K – Testis
90. Trophoblast D – Vas deferens L – Bulbourethral gland
91. After attachment, uterine cells divide rapidly and E – Prostate M – Anus
cover blastocyst, this result in blastocyst embedded F – Penis N – Rectum
with endometrium called implantation G – Urethra O – Ejaculatory duct
• EMBRYONIC DEVELOPMENT
92. Chorionic vill
93. Chorionic villi and uterine tissue
94. hCG, hPL, estrogens, progesterones, relaxin
DigaQ. 2 - Male reproductive system DigaQ. 7 – Mammary gland
A – Ureter H – Foreskin A – Fat G – Nipple
B – Vas deferens I – Testis B – Mammary lobe H – Areola
C – Epididymis J – Urethra C – Mammary alveolus I – Pectoralis major
D – Vasa efferentia K – Bulbourethral gland D – Mammary duct J – Muscles between
E – Rete testis L – Prostate E – Ampulla ribs
F – Testicular lobules M – Seminal vesicle F – Lactiferous duct K – Rib
G – Glans penis N – Urinary bladder DigaQ. 8 – Seminiferous tubule
DigaQ. 3 – Seminiferous tubule A – Spermatogonium
A – Interstitial cells B – Sertoli cell
B – Spermatogonia C – Primary spermatocyte
C – Spermatozoa D – Secondary spermatocyte
D – Sertoli cells E – Spermatid
DigaQ. 4 – Female pelvis F – Spermatozoa
A – Uterus G – Labium majora DigaQ. 9 – Structure of sperm
B – Urinary bladder H – Vaginal orifice A – Plasma membrane P – Head
C – Pubic symphysis I – Anus B – Acrosome Q – Neck
D – Urethra J – Vagina C – Nucleus R – Middle piece
E – Clitoris K – Rectum D – Mitochondria S – Tail
F – Labium minora L – Cervix DigaQ. 10 - Ovary
DigaQ. 5 – Female reproductive system A – Blood vessels D – Graafian follicle
A – Uterine fundus H – Cervix B – Primary follicle E – Ovum
B – Uterine cavity I – Ovary C – Tertiary follicle F – Corpus luteum
C – Endometrium J – Fimbriae DigaQ. 11 – Menstrual cycle
D – Myometrium K – Infundibulum A – FSH
E – Perimetrium L – Ampulla B – LH
F – Vagina M – Isthmus C – Estrogen
G – Cervical canal N – Fallopian tube D – Progesterone
DigaQ. 6 – Female external genitalia E – Ovulation
A – Labium majora F – Developoing corpus luteum
B – Labium minora X – Menstruation
C – Hymen Y – Follicular/Proliferative phase
D – Opening of Bartholin gland Z – Luteal/Secretory phase
E – Anus
F – Vaginal orifice
G – Urethra
H – Clitoris
DigaQ. 12 – Ovum surrounded by few sperms DigaQ. 14 – Foetus in the uterus
A – Sperm B – Ovum A – Placental villi
C – Zona pellucida B – Cavity of uterus
D – Cells of the corona radiata C – Yolk sac
E – Perivitelline space D – Embryo
DigaQ. 13 E – Plug of mucus in cervix
A – Morula B – Blastocyst F – Umbilical cord

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 BIOHACK NOTES

REPRODUCTIVE
HEALTH
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • INTRODUCTION

1. "Family planning" programs were initiated in India in year _____

2. RCH full form -
3. Statutory ban on ________ for sex determination because of increasing ______ foeticides. (NEET)
4. Amniocentesis is used to test the presence of disorders like - (3) (NEET)
5. Saheli was developed by scientist at ________
6. World population was ___ billion in 1900 and ___ billion in 2000.
7. India population was ____ at the time of independence crossed 1 billion in _______
8. Population rate was less than ____% according to census report of 2011.

• CONTRACEPTIVES
DigaQ. 1
9. What are the features of an ideal contraceptive ? (6) A
10. Name all the methods of contraception (7) -
11. Ex of a natural method - B
12. Couples avoid coitus from day ___ to ___ of the
menstrual cycle in periodic abstinence.
13. ______ is a method in which the male partner
withdraws his penis from the vagina just before ejaculation.
14. What is lactational amenorrhea ?
15. Lactational amenorrhea is effective only upto ___ months following parturition.
16. _____ is a popular brand of condom. DigaQ. 2
17. Nirodh is for male/female.
18. Condoms are made of thick/thin _____ or ______
19. Condoms also protect from _____ and ______
20. ______, _____, ____ are also barriers made of rubber
inserted into the female reproductive tract.
21. They cover _____ during coitus.
22. Barriers asked in Q.20 are reusable. T/F
23. Things used along with these barriers to increase their
contraceptive efficiency are - (3)
24. IUDs are best as they give privacy to the user. T/F
25. IUDs are inserted in -
26. Tell the 3 types of IUDs - (NEET)
27. Ex of non-medicated IUD (1) - (NEET)
28. Ex of copper releasing IUDs (3) - (NEET)
29. Ex of hormone releasing IUDs (2) - (NEET)
30. IUDs increase _______ of sperms. (NEET)
31. Cu fxn in IUDs (2) - (NEET)
32. Hormone releasing IUDs make uterus ___________ and cervix _________ (NEET)
33. _______ are ideal contraceptives for females. (NEET)
34. Progestogen and progesterone are same thing, i.e. they are synonyms. T/F
35. Oral administration of either _______ or ____________ combinations is another contraceptive
method used by the females. (NEET)
36. Pills have to be taken daily for a period of ____ days. DigaQ. 3
37. We should start taking pills within ____ days of menstrual cycle.
38. A gap of ___ days is given between pills.
39. What pills do ? - (3)
40. Pills are very effective and have less side effect. T/F
41. _____ are well accepted by the females.
42. _____ is a new non-steroidal oral contraceptive drug.
43. ______ is a "once a week" pill.
44. Progestogens alone or in combination with estrogens can be used by females as _____ and ______.
45. Emergency pregnancies due to rape etc can be prevented by 3 ways administrated within ____ hrs
of coitus. Name the 3 ways.
46. Surgical methods are also called ________ (NEET)
47. ______ is the terminal method to prevent pregnancy.
48. Incision in ______ is done in vasectomy.
49. Incision in ______ or through _____ is done in tubectomy.
50. The technique with high effectivity but poor reversibility are - (2) (NEET)

DigaQ. 4

Y
X

B
A
 • MEDICAL TERMINATION OF PREGNANCY (MTP)

51. Nearly ___ to ____ million MTPs are performed in a year.

52. This accounts to ____ % of the total no. of conceived pregnancies in a year.
53. MTP is also called ________
54. Gov. of India legalised MTP in year _____
55. MTP is safe till ______
56. MTP cannot be done legally after 12 weeks. T/F

• SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS (STI)

57. STI are also called ____ or ____

58. Name common STIs (8) -
59. ____ is the most dangerous STI.
60. Except _____,_____,_____ other diseases are completely curable if detected early.
61. Females infected with STI may often be asymptomatic and hence, may remain undetected for long. T/F
62. PID full form -
63. STI incidence is high in the age group -

• INFERTILITY

64. ET full form - (NEET)

65. ZIFT full form - (NEET)
66. IUT full form - (NEET)
67. GIFT full form - (NEET)
68. ICSI full form - (NEET)
69. AI full form - (NEET)
70. IUI full form - (NEET)
71. Embryos less than 8 blastomeres are transferred in _______, and more than 8 blastomeres are
transferred using ____ technique. (NEET)
72. In GIFT, sperms are transferred to fallopian tube. T/F (NEET)
73. In AI, sperms are transferred to fallopian tube. T/F (NEET)
74. _______ is the best methods for couples
looking for parenthood.
75. Define Infertility –
REPRODUCTIVE
HEALTH

ANSWERS
• INTRODUCTION 29. Progestasert, LNG-20
1. 1951 30. Phagocytosis
2. Reproductive and Child Health Care 31. suppress sperm motility and the fertilising
3. Amniocentesis, female capacity of sperms
4. Down syndrome, haemophilia, sickle cell anemia 32. Unsuitable for implantation, hostile to sperms
5. Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) 33. IUDs
6. 2 billion, 6 billion 34. F, progesterone is a type of progestogen
7. 350 million, 2000 35. Progestogen, progestogen-estrogen
8. 2 36. 21
• CONTRACEPTIVES 37. First five
9. User-friendly, easily available, effective, reversible, 38. 7
no or least side-effects, should not interfere with 39. Inhibit ovulation, inhibit implantation, alter the
the sexual drive quality of cervical mucus to retard entry of sperm
10. Natural/Traditional, Barrier, IUDs, Oral 40. T
contraceptives, Injectables, Implants and Surgical 41. Pills
methods 42. Saheli
11. Periodic abstinence 43. Saheli
12. 10-17 44. Injections or implants
13. Coitus interruptus 45. 72 hrs, 3 ways - Administration of
14. Absence of menstruation during lactational progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combinations
period or IUDs
15. 6 46. Sterllisation
16. Nirodh 47. Sterllisation
17. Male 48. Scrotum
18. Thin rubber, latex sheath 49. Abdomen, vagina
19. STI and AIDS 50. Vasectomy, tubectomy
20. Diaphragms, cervical caps and vaults • MTP
21. Cervix 51. 45-50
22. T 52. 20
23. Spermicidal creams, jellies and foams 53. Induced abortion
24. F 54. 1971
25. Uterus 55. 1st trimester
26. Non-medicated, copper releasing and hormone 56. F
releasing
27. Lippes loop
28. CuT, Cu7, Multiload 375
• STI 72. F, ovum is transferred not sperm
57. Venereal disease or reproductive tract infection 73. F, they are transferred into vagina and uterus
58. Gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, chlamydiasis, 74. Adoption
genital warts, trichomoniasis, hepatitis-B, AIDS 75. Inability to conceive or produce children even
59. HIV infection/AIDS after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
60. hepatitis-B, genital herpes and HIV called infertility
61. T • DigaQs
62. Pelvic inflammatory diseases DigaQ. 1 - Condom
63. 15-24 yrs A – for male
• INFERTILITY B – for female
64. Embryo transfer DigaQ. 2 – Copper T (CuT)
65. Zygote intra fallopian transfer DigaQ. 3 – Implants
66. Intra-uterine transfer DigaQ. 4 - Sterilisation
67. Gamete intra fallopian transfer A – Vasectomy
68. Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection X – Vas deferens tied and cut
69. Artificial insemination B – Tubectomy
70. Intra-uterine insemination Y – Fallopian tubes tied and cut
71. Fallopian tube, IUT

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 BIOHACK NOTES

PRINCIPLES OF
INHERITANCE
AND VARIATION
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • MENDAL’S LAWS OF INHERITANCE

1. Heredity is the basis of inheritance. T/F

2. Sahiwal cows are of ______ state, and are selected through _______
3. Gregor Mendel experimented on ______ for ___ no. of years from year _____-____ (NEET)
4. Mendel selected ____ no. of true breeding pea plant varieties. (NEET)
5. Pod shape contrasting traits were -
6. Dominant pod colour is yellow/green.
7. Name all the 7 characters taken by mendel and their contrasting characters - (More than
5 times in NEET)
DigaQ. 1
8. ______ are the unit of inheritance.
9. Punnett square was developed by German/British
geneticist name ________ (NEET)
10. What is test cross ?
11. Mendel called genes as -
12. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross -
13. No. of genotypes produced in dihybrid cross -
14. Genotypic ratio in dihybrid cross -
15. How many types of genotypes are produced when a plant with genotype AABbccDd is self-pollinated?
16. How many types of phenotypes are produced when AABbccDd is self-pollinated ?
17. How many types of gametes are produced in plant with genotype AABbccDdEe ?
18. How many types of phenotypes when AaBb x aaBb ?
19. Alternative form of genes are called ______ (NEET)
20. Name the 3 laws given by mendel.
21. "Factors occurs in pairs", is a statement of mendal's 2nd law. T/F
22. "Alleles do not show any blending" is a statement of -
23. Incomplete dominance is seen in - (1) (NEET)
24. Dog flower other 2 names are -
25. In a diploid organisms, a pair of alleles are present. T/F
26. The modified allele is generally the recessive allele. T/F
27. In case of _______, F1 generation resemble both the parents.
28. Ex. of codominance is -
29. Dominance is an autonomous feature of a gene. T/F
30. Starch grain when compared w.r.t to shape show complete/incomplete dominance but when compared
w.r.t size show complete/incomplete dominance.
31. Define law of independent assortment -
 • CHROMOSOMAL THEORY OF INHERITANCE

32. Mendel published his work on inheritance in year ______.

33. In _____ year, name the 3 scientists who rediscovered Mendel theory.
34. In _____ year, ______ and ______ gave experimental verification of chromosomal theory of
inheritance. (NEET)
35. "Independent pair segregate independently of each other". This statement cannot be used for
chromosome/gene.
36. Morgan worked on ___________
37. Why did morgan chose fruitfly our others. Give reasons (5)
38. Morgan hybridised yellow-bodied females with brown bodied males. T/F
39. Morgan hybridised red-eyes females with white-eyes males. T/F
40. Why morgan chosed X-linked traits ?
41. ______ and ______ were very tightly linked and showed only 1.3 per cent recombination.
42. _____ and ______ wing showed 37.2 per cent recombination.
43. Morgan student name _______ discovered _______ (NEET)
44. ______ coined the term linkage. (NEET)
45. One character can be controlled by many genes. T/F
46. Such phenomenon is called _________
47. Polygenic inheritance is not influenced by environment. T/F
48. Ex. of polygenic inheritance are - (2) (NEET)
49. When a single gene control many characters, phenomenon is called _______ (NEET)
50. Such genes are called ______ gene.
51. Ex. of pleiotropy is - (1)
52. Phenylketonuria is caused by mutation in the gene that
codes for enzyme __________
53. This cause multiple phenotypic expressions. Name them - (3)

DigaQ. 2

X Y

A B
 • SEX DETERMINATION & MUTATION

54. _______ discovered X chromosome in year ______

55. Drosophila sex determination is similar to ______ (NEET)
56. XO type sex determination ex - (1) (NEET)
57. ZW type is present in - (1)
58. ZO type is present in - (1)
59. Female honey bees have ____ no. of chromosomes.
60. Honey bees don't have father and son. T/F
61. ________ sex determination system operate in honeybees.
62. Males in honey bees are formed by the means of ________
63. ______ and ______ live as diploid in honey bees.
64. Chromosomal aberrations are commonly observed in ______ cells.
65. Ex. of a disease caused by point mutation - (NEET)
66. UV radiations cause mutation. T/F

• GENETIC DISORDERS

67. Name the 2 categories of genetic disorders -

• MENDELIAN DISORDERS
68. Name the mendelian disorders given in NCERT (6) -
69. Ex. of 2 sex linked recessive disoders - (NEET)
70. Ex. of 3 autosomal linked recessive disorders -
71. What is affected in haemophilia ?
72. The family pedigree of _________ shows a number of haemophilic descendents.
73. Queen Victoria was not the carrier of haemophilia. T/F
74. Sickle cell trait has persisted in africa because of giving survival advantage against the disease -
75. Substitution of _______ by ______ at __th position of the alpha/beta position of haemoglobin
occurs in sickle cell anaemia.
76. The 6th codon i.e. GAG is converted to ____ which cause sickle cell anaemia.
77. Under high/low oxygen tension, the mutant haemoglobin molecule polymerises.
78. _______ is not converted to ______ in phenylketonuria.
79. As a result, phenylalanine is then converted into _______
80. What does "Phenylketonuria" means ?
 DigaQ. 3
A D
B
C E

81. Tell a symptom of phenylketonuria -

82. People suffering from colour blindness are not able to differentiate between ____ and _____ colour.
83. Color blindness occurs in ____% of males and ____% of females.
84. Abnormal haemoglobin molecules are formed in thalassemia. T/F
85. What is the characteristic/symptom of thalassemia ?
86. Main reason which actually cause thalassemia is -
87. α-thalassemia is controlled by gene _____ and _____ on chromosome ____
88. Β-thalassemia is controlled by gene _____ at chromosome ___
89. What is the difference between thalassemia and sickle cell anaemia ? (NEET)

• CHROMOSOMAL DISORDERS DigaQ. 4 B

90. What is aneuploidy? A
91. Polyploidy condition is often seen in plants/animals.
92. What happens in Down's syndrome? (NEET)
93. This disorder was describe by _____ in year _____
94. Features of Down's syndrome - (12)
95. Klinefelter's syndrome features - (3) (NEET)
96. Turner syndrome features - (5) (NEET)
PRINCIPLES OF
INHERITANCE
AND VARIATION

ANSWERS
• MENDAL’S LAWS 18. Using formula, Types of phenotypes = 2No. Of
1. F, inheritance is the basis of heredity heterozygous pairs X 2No. Of hetero-recessive homo
2. Punjab, artificial selection pairs, ans = 2 x 2 = 4
3. Garden pea, 7, 1856-1863 19. Alleles
4. 14 20. Law of Dominance, Segregation and Independent
5. Inflated/constricted assortment
6. Green 21. F
7. 22. 2nd law
23. Dog flower
24. Snapdragon or Antirrhinum sp.
25. T
26. T
27. Codominance
28. Human blood group
29. F
8. Genes 30. Complete, incomplete
9. British, Reginald C. Punnett 31. when two pairs of traits are combined in a
10. Test cross is used to determine the genotype of hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
an organism showing dominant phenotype independent of the other pair of characters
11. Factors • CHROMOSOMAL THEORY OF
12. [Link] INHERITANCE
13. 9 32. 1865
14. RRYY 1: RRYy 2: RRyy 1: RrYY 2: RrYy 4: Rryy 33. 1900, de Vries, Correns and von Tschermak
2: rrYY 1: rrYy 2: rryy 1 34. 1902, Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri
15. Types of genotypes = 3^No. Of heterozygous 35. Gene
pairs X 2^No. Of homo-hetero pairs, so here, Bb and 36. Drosophila melanogaster
Dd will form two different heterozygous pairs, and 37. Morgan chose fruitfly because
no. of homo-hetero paris are absent (as this is self- I. Could be grown on simple synthetic medium
cross), hence ans = 32= 9 II. complete their life cycle in about two weeks
16. Types of phenotypes = 2^No. Of heterozygous III. Single mating could produce a large number
pairs X 2^No. Of hetero-recessive homo pairs, so of progeny
here, Bb and Dd will form two different IV. clear differentiation of the sexes
heterozygous pairs, and no. of homo-hetero paris V. many types of hereditary variations that
are absent (as this is self-cross), hence ans = 22= 4 can be seen with low power microscopes
17. Types of gamete = 2^No. Of heterozygous pairs,
so here, Bb, Dd and Ee will form 3 different
heterozygous pairs hence ans = 23= 8
38. T • GENETIC DISORDERS
39. F 67. Mendelian and chromosomal
40. By selecting x-linked traits, we reducing the 68. Haemophilia, Cystic fibrosis, Sickle-cell anaemia,
complexity of the process as we are only witnessing Colour blindness, Phenylketonuria,
recombination between the 2 X chromosomes of Thalassemia
females as male have XY and no recombination 69. Haemophilia & color blindness
occur between them. 70. Sickle cell anaemia, phenylketonuria and
41. White and yellow thalassemia
42. White and miniature 71. a single protein that is a part of the cascade of
43. Alfred Sturtevant, chromosome mapping proteins involved in the clotting of blood
44. Morgan 72. Queen victoria
45. T 73. F
46. Polygenic inheritance 74. Malaria
47. F 75. Glutamic acid by valine at 6th, beta
48. Human height and skin colour 76. GUG
49. Pleiotropy 77. Low
50. Pleiotropic gene 78. Phenylalanine to tyrosine
51. Phenylketonuria 79. Phenylpyruvate
52. Phenylalanine hydroxylase 80. "Phenyl" refers to phenylalanine, "keto" refers to
53. Mental retardation, reduction in hair and skin keto versions of phenylalanine like
pigmentation phenylpyruvate (which are formed as a result of
• SEX DETERMINATION & absence of phenylalanine hydroxylase), "nuria" refers
MUTATION to their excretion in urine. Hence phenylalanine keto
54. Henking(1891) form are excreted in urine in this disease.
55. Humans 81. Mental retardation
56. Grasshopper 82. Green and red
57. Birds 83. 8, 0.4
58. Butterflies 84. T
59. 32 85. Anaemia
60. False, onl males don't have father or sons 86. Reduced rate of synthesis of globin chains
61. Haploiddiploid sex determination 87. HBA1 and HBA2, 16
62. Parthenogenesis 88. HBB, 11
63. Queen and workers 89. Thalassemia is a quantitative problem which
64. Cancer sickle cell anaemia is a qualitative problem
65. Sickle-cell anaemia
66. T
90. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell 96. Turner syndrome features
division cycle results in the gain or loss I. Rudimentary ovaries
of a chromosome(s), called aneuploidy II. Lack secondary sexual characters
91. Plants III. Sterile
92. Trisomy at chromosome 21 IV. Short stature
93. Langdon Down (1866) • DigaQs
94. Features of Down's syndrome DigaQ. 1 – Incomplete dominance in Snapdragon
1. short statured plant
2. small round head DigaQ. 2 – Sex determination in honeybee
3. furrowed tongue X – Meiosis A – Male
4. partially open mouth Y – Mitosis B – Female
5. Palm is broad DigaQ. 3 – Down's syndrome
6. characteristic palm crease A – Flat back of head
7. Retarded physical, psychomotor and mental B – Many loops on finger tips
development C – Palm crease
8. Broad flat face D – Broad flat face
9. Big and wrinkled tongue E – Big and wrinkled tongue
10. Congenital heart disease F – Congenital heart disease
11. Flat back of head G – Chromosomes in a person suffering Down's
12. Many "loops" on finger tips syndrome
95. Klinefelter's syndrome features DigaQ. 4 – Chromosomal disorders
I. Overall masculine development A – Turner's syndrome
II. Gynecomastia B – Klienfelter syndrome
III. Sterile
IV. Tall stature

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 BIOHACK NOTES

MOLECULAR BASIS OF
INHERITANCE
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • DNA

1. No .of nucleotides in ϕ-174 is -

2. ϕ-174 is a _______ type of virus.
3. Total Bases is bacteriophage lambda is -
4. ________ has 4.6 x 10⁶ bp.
5. Diploid content of human DNA is _________ no. of bases.
6. Nitrogenous base is linked to the OH of 1' C/5'C of pentose sugar through _______ linkage.
7. Deoxy form of uridine is -
8. Thymine and uracil have differences in a _____ group.
9. DNA was first identified by ________ in year ______
10. He name DNA as _______
11. X-ray differentiation data of DNA was produced by the scientists - (2)
12. Double Helix model of DNA was proposed in year _____
13. Generally DNA helix is coiled in right hand fashion. T/F
14. The pitch is ____ nm and _____ no. of base pairs are present in each turn.
15. ______ proposed the central dogma of molecular biology.
DigaQ. 1
16. Distance between 1st and 15th base pair of a DNA helix is - A B
17. The length of human DNA is _____ (NEET)
18. Histones are rich in amino acids ______ and ______
19. Histone octamer contain proteins -
20. What is a nucleosome? C
21. A typical nucleosome contains _____ bp of DNA helix.
22. Function of Non-histone Chromosomal (NHC) proteins is -
23. Chromatin that is more densely packed and stains dark are called -
24. Lightly packed and stains light is called _______ D
25. Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active. T/F

• THE SEARCH FOR GENETIC MATERIAL

26. In transforming principle, _______ did a series of experiments on _______ (NEET)

27. S strain bacteria have _________ coat.
28. Living S bacteria can be recovered from a solution where S bacteria may not be present. T/F
29. _______, _______, _______ concluded that DNA
is the hereditary material.
30. ______ and ______ gave the unequivocal proof that DNA is genetic material in year _____ (NEET)
31. Hersey and Chase used ______ bacteria.
32. Virus particles were separated from the bacteria by __________
33. ____ isotope of S and ____ isotope of P were used in hershey-chase experiment.
34. The 3 steps of hershey-chase experiment were -
35. QB bacteriophage have DNA as a genetic material. T/F
36. TMV have RNA as a genetic material. T/F
37. Criteria for a molecule which act as genetic material are - (4) (NEET)
38. Stability as a property of genetic material was evident from _______ experiment.
39. Tell the 2 difference between DNA and RNA -
40. ____ was the first genetic material.
41. DNA replicated conservatively. T/F
42. Semiconservative model was proved by _______ and _______ in year _____
43. N15 radioactive isotope was used in their experiment. T/F
44. The various samples were separated independently on _____ gradients.
45. E coli divided in ____ min.
46. Taylor performed experiments on ______ using _______ in year _____ and showed that - (NEET)
47. Energetically replication is an expensive process. T/F
48. There is a definite region in E. coli DNA where the replication originates. Such regions are called ____
49. Discontinuous synthesis occur in template strand with polarity -
50. Enzymes used in DNA replication are - (5) (NEET)
51. ______ fragments are formed in the lagging strand. (NEET)

• TRANSCRIPTION

52. The enzyme that help in opening of DNA helix during transcription is -
53. The transcription unit consist of regions - (3)
54. Template strand polarity is -
55. All the reference point while defining a transcription unit is made with template strand. T/F
56. Coding strand polarity is -
57. 5'-end of template strand means upstream. T/F
58. 3'end of coding strand means downstream. T/F
59. _____ is the functional unit of inheritance.
60. What is cistron ?
 DigaQ. 2
A B C
X
Y
61. Structural gene is monocistronic in prokaryotes/eukaryotes.
62. The actual coding or expressed sequences are called ______
63. Inheritance of a character is never affected by promoter and regulatory sequences of a structural
gene. T/F
64. The 3 types of RNA are -
65. mRNA is found in the highest amount in comparison of other RNA. T/F (NEET)
66. The smallest RNA amount all the 3 is -
67. ______ play structural and catalytic role during translation.
68. The types of RNA polymerases found in bacteria are -
69. Initiation factor is ___ and termination factor is ___
70. Transcription and translation can be coupled in ______
71. In eukaryotes, ___ no. of RNA polymerases are present.
72. 5srRNA is synthesised by -
73. Tell the function of all the 3 types of RNA polymerase.
74. In capping, _______ is added at 5'end.
75. In tailing, ___-___ no. of ______ residues are added in a template dependent/independent manner.
76. The process of splicing represent the dominance of ________

• GENETIC CODE

77. ________ who was a physicist/biologist, first proposed that codons should be triplet.
78. The chemical method developed by __________ was instrumental in synthesising RNA molecules with
defined combinations of bases.
79. _______ cell-free system for protein synthesis finally helped the code to be deciphered.
80. ________ enzyme was helpful in polymerising RNA in a template independent manner.
81. Serine and proline codons are -
82. Stop codons are - (3)
83. GAG and GUG are codons for _____ and _____ respectively.
84. _____ act as a initiator codon and codes for the amino acid -
85. What does degeneracy of codon mean ?
86. Genetic code is completely universal. T/F
87. Exceptions of universality of genetic code is found in - (2)
88. Tell all the features of genetic code - (4) (NEET)
89. The t-RNA was earlier called _____
90. There is a specific tRNA for initiation called as _______
91. Describe the 4 ends of t-RNA are and the loop they have DigaQ. 3
92. In actual structure t-RNA looks like _______ A B

Y
• TRANSLATION Z C

93. Charging of t-RNA is also called __________

94. Ribosomes consists of ______ and about ___ no. of different proteins.
95. ____ rRNA in bacteria is the ribozyme. (NEET)
96. ______ are required for an efficient translation process.
97. The 4 levels at which gene expression is regulated are -
98. The ribosome moves from codon to codon along the mRNA. T/F
99. At the end, ______ binds to the stop codon.

• REGULATION OF GENE EXPRESSION

100. In prokaryotes, __________ is the predominant site for control of gene expression.
101. In most cases, the sequence of operator binds a activator/repressor.
102. What is negative regulation?
103. What is positive regulation?
104. ______ and ______ discovered lac operon. (NEET)
105. Ara operon is for -
106. Regulatory gene is called i gene where i means inducer. T/F
107. I gene codes for ________ (NEET)
108. Z,y,a genes codes for - (NEET)
109. Inducer for lac operon are - (2) (NEET)
110. What are constitutive genes?
111. Regulation of lac operon is positive/negative. (NEET)
DigaQ. 4 - X Y
i ii iii iv v vi vii

L L D
M
M A B C

• HUMAN GENOME PROJECT (HGP)

112. HGP was launched in year -

113. HGP was closely associated with ________
114. Approx. how many genes are in human DNA ?
115. ELSI full form -
116. _______ became a major partner in the early years of HGP.
117. HGP was completed in year -
118. Nematode whose genes are sequenced is -
119. It is pathogenic/non-pathogenic.
120. Plants whose genes are sequenced - (2)
121. Name the non-human models whose genes are sequenced (6) -
122. EST full form -
123. The 2 methodologies for HGP were -
124. BAC & YAC full form -
125. The DNA fragments were sequenced by the method developed by __________
126. Last chromosome to be sequenced was ___ which was sequenced in _______
127. Human genome contains ______ million bp.
128. Average gene consists of ______ no. of bases.
129. Largest known human gene is ______ at ______ no. bases.
130. ___ % of nucleotide bases are exactly the same in all people.
131. Less than ___ % of the genome codes for proteins.
132. The functions are unknown for over ___ % of the discovered genes.
133. ___ chromosome has most genes with _____ no. of genes.
134. ___ chromosome have least genes with _____ no. of genes.
135. In about ___ million locations SNPs occur in humans.
 • DNA FINGERPRINTING

136. Small peaks are referred to as ______ DNA.

137. DNA is classified as micro and mini-satellites on the basis of ? (3)
138. If more than one allele occurs with a frequency greater than _____, it is called DNA polymorphism.
139. Probability of such variation in non-coding DNA sequence is more. T/F
140. Technique of DNA Fingerprinting was initially developed by ________
141. He used bulk DNA/satellite DNA.
142. VNTR full form -
143. VNTR involved northern blot hybridisation. T/F
144. In blotting, DNA fragments are transferred to membranes made of ______ or ______
145. Southern, Northern and Western blot are respectively used for -
146. Detection of hybridised DNA fragments is by ________
147. Describe the 6 steps of DNA fingerprinting -
148. VNTR is a microsatellite/minisatellite.
149. The size of VNTR varies from ___ to ___ bases.
150. The autoradiogram gives band of same sizes in –
MOLECULAR BASIS OF
INHERITANCE

ANSWERS
• DNA 33. ³⁵S, ³²P
1. 5386 34. Infection, Blending and Centrifugation
2. Bacteriophage 35. F
3. 97004 bp 36. T
4. E. coli 37. Criteria to act as genetic material
5. 13.2 x 10⁹ (i) Replication
6. 1'C, N-glycosidic linkage (ii) stable chemically and structurally
7. Deoxythymidine (iii) provide scope for mutation
8. Methyl (iv) It should be able to express itself in the
9. Freidrich meischer, 1869 form of 'Mendelian Characters'
10. Nuclein 38. Griffith's
11. Maurice Wilkins and Rosalind Franklin 39. Difference between DNA and RNA
12. 1953 1. DNA don't have 2'-OH- group.
13. T 2. DNA have thymine in place of uracil.
14. 3.4 nm, 10 40. RNA
15. Fracis crick 41. F
16. 13 x 0.34 nm = 4.42 nm 42. Matthew Meselson & Franklin Stahl in year 1958
17. 2.2 m 43. F, N¹⁵ is not a radioactive isotope.
18. Arginine and lysine 44. CsCl
19. 2 copies of H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 45. 20
20. negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the 46. Vicia faba (faba beans), radioactive thymidine,
positively charged histone octamer 1958, DNA replicate semiconservatively
21. 200 47. T
22. Packaging of chromatin 48. Ori (origin of replication)
23. Heterochromatin 49. 5'-3'
24. Euchromatin 50. Helicase, DNA polymerase, Primase, DNA ligase,
25. F Topoisomerase
• THE SEARCH FOR GENETIC 51. Okazaki
MATERIAL • TRANSCRIPTION
26. Frederick Griffith, Streptococcus pnemoniae 52. RNA polymerase
27. Mucous 53. Promotor, Structural gene and Terminator
28. T 54. 3'-5'
29. Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod & Maclyn McCarty 55. F
30. Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase, 1952
31. E coli
32. Spinning them in centrifuge
56. 5'-3' 87. Mitochondrial codons and some protozonas
57. F 88. Degeneracy, Unambiguous, Universal, Read in
58. T Contagious fashion
59. Gene 89. sRNA (soluble RNA)
60. a segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide 90. Initiator tRNA
61. Eukaryotes 91. 4 ends of t-RNA
62. Exons 1. DHU Loop - Ribozyme bind here
63. F 2. Anticodon loop - mRNA bind here
64. mRNA, rRNA, tRNA 3. TΨC loop - Ribosome bind here
65. F, rRNA is found in highest amount 4. -CAA sequence - Amino acid attach here
66. tRNA 92. Inverted - L
67. rRNA
68. Only 1 is found (fooling type q.)
69. Sigma, rho
70. Bacteria
71. 3
72. RNA polymerase III
73. Functions of RNA polymerase
1. RNA polymerase I - rRNAs (28S, 18S, & 5.8S)
2. RNA polymerase II - hnRNA
3. RNA pol. III - tRNA, 5srRNA, & snRNAs
74. methyl guanosine triphosphate
75. 200-300, adenylate, independent
76. RNA world
• GENETIC CODE • TRANSLATION
77. George Gamow, physicist 93. Aminoacylation of tRNA
78. Har Gobind Khorana 94. rRNAs and 80
79. Marshall Nirenberg's 95. 23S rRNA
80. Severo Ochoa 96. UTR (untranslated regions)
81. Serine - UCU, UCC, UCA, UCG 97. Gene expression is regulated at
Proline - CCU, CCC, CCA, CCG (i) transcriptional level
82. UAA, UGA, UAG (ii) processing level (regulation of splicing)
83. Glu, Val (iii) transport of mRNA from nucleus to the
84. AUG, methionine cytoplasm
85. Many codons code for single amino acid (iv) translational level.
86. F 98. T
99. Release factor
• REGULATION OF GENE 127. 3164.7
EXPRESSION 128. 3000
100. Transcription level 129. Dystrophin, 2.4 million
101. Repressor 130. 99.9
102. Something is increasing, implies we have to 131. 2 %
decrease it. 132. 50
103. Something is decreasing, implies we have to 133. Chromosome 1, 2968
increase it. 134. Y chromosome, 231
104. Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod 135. 1.4
105. Arabinose • DNA FINGERPRINTING
106. F, I means inhibitor 136. Satellite
107. Repressor 137. base composition (A:T rich or G:C rich), length
108. Z gene - beta-galactosidase, y gene - permease, of segment, and number of repetitive units
a gene - transacetylase 138. 0.01
109. Lactose and allolactose 139. T
110. Those genes which constantly express 140. Alec Jeffreys
themselves in a cell 141. Satellite DNA
111. Negative 142. Variable Number of Tandem Repeats
• HGP 143. F, southern blot is involved
112. 1990 144. Nitrocellulose or nylon
113. Bioinformatics 145. DNA, RNA, protein {Mnemonic - SaDa(South-
114. 20,000-25,000 DNA) NaRial(North-RNA) wasai pani (west-protein)}
115. Ethical, legal and social issues 146. Autoradiography
116. Wellcome Trust (U.K.) 147. Steps of DNA fingerprinting
117. 2003 (i) isolation of DNA
118. Caenorhabditis elegans (ii) digestion of DNA by restriction
119. non-pathogenic endonucleases
120. Rice and arabidopsis (iii) separation of DNA fragments by
121. bacteria, yeast, Caenorhabditis elegans, electrophoresis
Drosophila, rice, Arabidopsis (iv) Blotting of separated DNA fragments
122. Expressed sequence tags (v) hybridisation using labelled VNTR probe
123. Expressed Sequence tags and Sequence (vi) detection of hybridised DNA fragments by
Annotation autoradiography
124. Bacterial Artificial Chromosome & Yeast
Artificial Chromosome
125. Frederick Sanger
126. Chromosome 1, May 2006
148. Mini-satellite DigaQ. 3 - tRNA - the adapter molecule
149. 100-20,000 X – tRNA A – Ser
150. Monozygotic twins Y – Anticodon B – Tyr
• DigaQs Z – Codon C – mRNA
DigaQ. 1 - Nucleosome DigaQ. 4 - lac operon
A – DNA X – In absence of inducer
B – H1 histone Y – In presence of inducer
C – Histone octamer L – Repressor mRNA
D – Core of histone molecules M – Repressor
N – Inducer
DigaQ. 2 - Transcription unit A – β-galactosidase
A – Promoter X – Template strand B – Permease
B – Structural gene Y – Coding strand C – Transacetylase
C – Terminator D – lac mRNA

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 BIOHACK NOTES

EVOLUTION
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • ORIGIN OF LIFE
DigaQ. 1
1. The universe is almost ____ billion years old. A
2. ______ theory attempts to explain the origin of the universe.
3. The earth was ____ billion years ago.
4. Life appeared ____ billion years ago. J P
B
5. Early Latin/Greek thinkers thought units of life called Q
R K
_____. This idea was named _______ S
C
6. No one believes in "Panspermia" today. T/F
D
7. _______ demonstrated that life comes only from
E
pre-existing life.
F
8. _____ and _____ proposed that first form of life could
have come from non-living organic molecules. G
I
9. Oparin country was ______ and Haldane country was ______ H
10. The 4 gases Miller used in his experiment were - (4) (NEET)
11. In year _____, Miller created electric discharge at temp. - (NEET)
12. Earlier conditions on earth were reducing/oxidising and high/low temperature.
13. Miller was an American/English/Russian scientist.
14. Analysis of meteorite revealed similar compounds indicating that similar processes are occurring
elsewhere in space. T/F
15. First non-cellular forms of life originated ___ billion years ago.
16. Non-cellular form of life means ?
17. The first cellular form of life did not possibly originate till about _____ billion years ago.
18. According to religious beliefs the earth is about _____ years old.
19. Charles Darwin's ship name was - (NEET)
20. Any population has built in variation in characteristics T/F
21. At which level of grouping does evolution occur ?
22. The fitness according to darwin ultimately and only refers to _______ fitness. (NEET)
23. ______, a naturalist, worked in _______ came to similar conclusions as darwin. (NEET)
24. The geological history of earth closely correlates with the biological history of earth. T/F
25. A study of fossils in different igneous layers indicates the geological period in which they existed. T/F
26. What is paleontological evidence ? (NEET)
27. Embryological support for evolution was proposed by _______ (NEET)
28. This theory was rejected on careful observation by - (NEET)
29. Ernst Baer noted that embryos pass through the adult
stage of primitive animals. T/F
30. Ex of divergent evolution - (2) (NEET) DigaQ. 2
31. Ex of convergent evolution - (4) (NEET)
32. No variant is completely wiped out. T/F
33. Due to absence of lichens, _____-winged moth survived.
34. Dark winged moths were also called ______ moths. C
35. Lichens are used as an industrial pollution indicator. T/F
36. Evolution is not a direct process, instead it is a ______ process. A
37. Triceratops evolved from Stegosaurus/Brachiosaurus.
38. Brachiosaurus gave rise to _________
39. Darwin went to ______ islands.
40. Darwin finches were black/brown. (NEET) D
41. Original varieties of Darwin finches were _____ eating.
42. Evolution of different species in a given geographical area
starting from a point and literally radiating to other areas of
geography (habitats) is called ________ (NEET) B
43. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occurred
in an isolated geographical area (representing different habitats), one can call this _________
44. Lemur is similar to -
45. Bobcat is similar to - A
46. Numbat is similar to -
47. Flying squirrel is similar to -
48. Flying phalanger is a placental J
B
mammal/australian marsupial.

I
DigaQ. 3 C

H
D
G

F E
 • BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION
DigaQ. 4
49. Adaptive ability is not inherited. T/F X Y
50. The 2 key concepts of darwin theory of evolution are -
51. Lamarck was a greek/latin/french biologist/
physicist/naturalist. A B
52. When we describe the story of the world we
describe evolution as a process/result of a process.
53. Work of ______ on population may have C D
influenced Darwin.
54. _______ work on ______ brought the idea
of mutation. (NEET)
55. Darwin variations were small/large and E F
directional/directionless while that of _______
were small/large and directional/directionless. (NEET)
56. Gene migration is also called - G H
57. If the frequency of heterozygotes in a population
is 0.5. What will be the value of p & q? (NEET)
58. 5 factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium I J
are - (NEET)
59. What is genetic drift ?
60. Genetic drift operate in small/large isolated K L
population. (NEET)
61. Which 2 effects are seen through genetic drift ?
62. What is founder effect ?
M N
63. Tell the graphs of stabilisation, directional and
disruptive changes. (NEET)

• A BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION

64. First cellular form of life arose ____ mya ago.

65. Around ____ mya, invertebrates were formed and active.
66. Name the 3 categories in which the geological time is divided. Arrange them rank wise from highest to
lowest. (NEET)
67. Jawless fishes evolved around ____ mya.
68. Sea weeds and few plants existed probably ____ mya.
69. Fish with stout and ______ could move on land and go back to water.
70. Fishes invaded land ____ mya.
71. In ____ year, ______ fish caught in country _____ which was thought to be extinct.
72. _______ evolved into first amphibians.
73. Lobefins were ancestors of modern day ______ and _______
74. Giant ferns fell to form _________
75. One important evolutionary advantage of reptiles over amphibians was -
76. Reptile which went back to become fish like reptiles was _______ probably ____ mya.
77. The biggest reptile was _________ with ___ feet height.
78. About ___ mya, the dinosaurs suddenly disappeared from the earth.
79. The first mammals were like _____
80. Due to continental drift, north america fauna was overridden by south america fauna. T/F
81. Ex. of mammals who live in water are - (4)
82. Terms like Triassic, Jurassic are epoch/era/period.
83. Name the 3 recent eras from new to old.
84. Name the different periods of the respective eras from new to old.
85. Mammals evolved from sauropsids/synapsids.
86. Birds evolved from sauropsids/synapsids.
87. The ancestors of mammals of Permian and Jurassic periods are (2) -
88. Thecodonts gave rise to - (3)
89. Sauropsids give rise to modern day _____, _____
90. Thecodont was of _______ period.
91. Chlorophyte ancestors give rise to - (2)
92. ________ diverged from Tracheophyte in Siliurian period.
93. _______ and _______ originated from zosterophyllum.
94. _______ are the oldest living vascular land plants.
95. Arborescent lycopods became extinct by the end of ________
96. _______ gave rise to psilophyton.
97. Classes of pteridophyta are -
98. Classes of gymnosperms are -
99. Psilophyton gave rise to - (6)
100. Seed ferns gave rise to - (2)
 • ORIGIN & EVOLUTION OF MAN

101. Tell the name of all the stages of human evolution given in NCERT. (7) (NEET)
102. About ___ mya, Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing. (NEET)
103. Ramapithecus was more ape-like while Dryopithecus was more man-like. T/F
104. Fossils of man-like bones have been discovered in ______ and ______
105. About ____ mya, man-like primates walked in eastern Africa.
106. They were probably not taller than ___ feet.
107. ____mya, Australopithecines probably lived in _________ (NEET)
108. Australopithecus hunted with stone weapons and essentially ate meat. T/F
109. Human-like beings are called -
110. First hominid was _______
111. Fossils discovered in ____ in year ____ revealed the next stage, i.e. -
112. Homo erectus existed ____ mya. (NEET)
113. _____ and _____ were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
114. ______ probably ate meat.
115. Neanderthal man lived near _____ and _____ between _______-______ years back. (NEET)
116. _______ first time used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
117. Cranial Capacity of homo habilis, homo erectus, Neanderthal man are - (NEET)
118. Homo sapiens arose in ______ (NEET)
119. Ice age occurred between _____-_____ years ago.
120. Pre-historic cave art developed about ______ years ago.
121. Agriculture came around ______ years back. (NEET)
EVOLUTION

ANSWERS
• ORIGIN OF LIFE 31. Ex of convergent evolution
1. 20 I. Wings of butterfly and of birds
2. Big Bang II. eye of the octopus and of mammals
3. 4.5 III. flippers of Penguins and Dolphins
4. 4 IV. Sweet potato (root modification) and potato
5. Greek, spores, Panspermia (stem modification)
6. F, still it is a favorite ideas for some astronomers 32. T
7. Louis Pasteur 33. Dark
8. Oparin and Haldane 34. Melanised
9. Russia, England 35. T
10. CH₄, H₂, NH₃, H₂O 36. Stochastic
11. 1953, 800*C 37. Stegosaurus
12. Reducing, high 38. Tyrannosaurus
13. American 39. Galapagos Islands
14. T 40. Black
15. 3 41. Seed-eating
16. Giant molecules like RNA, protein polysaccharide 42. Adaptive radiation
17. 2 43. Convergent evolution
18. 4000 44. Spotted cuscus
19. H.M.S Beagle 45. Tasmanian tiger cat
20. T 46. Anteater
21. Population 47. Flying phalanger
22. Reproductive 48. Australian marsupials
23. Alfred wallace, Malay Archipelago • BIOLOGICAL EVOLUTION
24. T 49. F
25. F, sedimentary layers 50. Branching descent and natural selection
26. Evidence due to fossils 51. French naturalist
27. Ernest Heckel 52. Process
28. Karl Ernst von Baer 53. Thomas malthus
29. F 54. Hugo deVries, evening primrose (Oenothera
30. Ex of divergent evolution lamarckiana)
I. Whales, Bats, Cheetah and Human in the 55. Darwin - Small, directional, deVries - large,
pattern of bones of forelimbs directionless
II. thorn and tendrils of Bougainvillea and
Cucurbita
56. Gene flow • BRIEF ACCOUNT OF EVOLUTION
57. By taking 2pq = 0.5 and applying eq, p + q=1 64. 2000
and p² + 2pq + q² = 1 we get p = 0.5, q = 0.5 65. 500
58. gene migration or gene flow, genetic drift, 66. Era - Period - Epoch
mutation, genetic recombination & natural selection 67. 350
59. variation in the relative frequency of different 68. 320
genotypes in a small population, owing to the chance 69. Strong fins
disappearance of particular genes as individuals die 70. 350
or do not reproduce 71. 1938, Coelacanth, South Africa
60. small 72. Lobefins
61. Bottle neck effect and Founder Effect 73. frogs and salamanders
62. It is the loss of genetic variation that occurs 74. Coal deposits
when a new population is established by a very small 75. Reptiles lay thick shelled eggs which do not dry
number of individuals from a larger population. up in sun unlike those of amphibians
63. 76. Ichthyosaurus, 200
77. Tyrannosaurus rex, 20
78. 65
79. Shrews
80. F
81. Whales, dolphins, seals and sea cows
82. Period
1. Stabilisation 83. Cenozoic - Mesozoic - Paleozoic
84. Periods of eras
I. Cenozoic : Quaternary - Tertiary
II. Mesozoic : Cretaceous - Jurassic - Triassic
III. Paleozoic : Permian - Carboniferous - Devonian -
Silurian
85. Synapsids
86. Sauropsids
2. Directional
87. Permian - Pelycosaurs, Jurassic - Therapsids
88. Crocodiles, Birds and Dinosaurs
89. Reptiles and birds
90. Permian

3. Disruptive
91. Tracheophyte ancestors and bryophyte
92. Zosterophyllum
93. Arborescent and herbaceous lycopods 104. Ethiopia and Tanzania
94. Lycopods 105. 3-4
95. Paleozoic era 106. 4
96. Rhynia-type plant 107. 2, Eastern Africa grasslands
97. Psilopsida, Lycopsida, Sphenopsida and 108. F, essentially ate fruit
Pteropsida 109. Hominids
98. Cycadophyta, Ginkgophyta, Gnetophyta, and 110. Homo habilis
Coniferophyta 111. Java, 1891, Homo erectus
99. Sphenopsida, Pteropsida (fern), Ginkgophyta, 112. 1.5
Gnetophyta, Coniferophyta, progymnosperms 113. Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus
100. Cycadophyta, Angiosperms 114. Homo erectus
• ORIGIN & EVOLUTION OF MAN 115. East and central asia, 1,00,000-40,000
→
101. Dryopithecus Ramapithecus → 116. Neanderthal man
→ →
Australopithecus Homo habilis Homo erectus
→ →
Neanderthal man Homo sapiens
102. 15
103. F
117. Habilis - 650-800cc, Erectus - 900cc, G – Water containing organic compounds
Neanderthal - 1400cc H – Liquid water in trap
118. Africa I – Boiling water
119. 75,000-10,000 J – To vacuum pump
120. 18,000 K – Gases
121. 10,000 DigaQ. 2 - Homologous organs
• DigaQs A – Bougainvillea
DigaQ. 1 - Miller's experiment C – Thorn
A – Electrodes P – CH₄ B – Cucurbita
B – Spark discharge Q – NH₃ D – Tendril
C – Water out R – H₂O
D – Condenser S – H₂
E – Water in
F – Water droplets
DigaQ. 3 - Adaptive radiation of marsupials of DigaQ. 4 - Convergent evolution of Australian
Australia Marsupials and placental mammals
A – Tasmanian wolf F – Wombat X – Placental mammals Y – Australian marsupials
B – Tiger cat G – Bandicoot A – Mole B – Marsupial mole
C – Banded anteater H – Koala C – Anteater D – Numbat
D – Marsupial rat I – Marsupial mole E – Mouse F – Marsupial mouse
E – Kangaroo J – Sugar glider G – Lemur H – Spotted cuscus
I – Flying squirrel J – Flying phalanger
K – Bobcat L – Tasmanian tiger cat
M – Wolf N – Tasmanian wolf

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HUMAN HEALTH
AND DISEASE
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • INTRODUCTION

1. Father of medicine is -
2. Health was considered as a state where there is a balance of certain "______".
3. This was asserted by _______ as well as _______
4. Person with blackbile belong to hot/cold personality.
5. Blood circulation was discovered by - (NEET)
6. _______ disproved 'good humour' hypothesis.
7. Health is affected by - (3)
8. Define health.
9. Disease can be grouped into - (2)

• COMMON DISEASES IN HUMANS

10. Typhoid is caused by - (NEET) DigaQ. 1

11. These pathogens enter in small intestine through ____ and
____ contamination. (NEET)
12. Some common symptoms of typhoid is - (6)
13. Intestinal perforations and death may occur in typhoid. T/F
14. Typhoid is confirmed by _____ test.
15. ______ nicknamed ______ was a cook and spread typhoid
through the food she prepared.
16. Pneumonia is cause by - (2) (NEET)
17. In pneumonia, the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe
problems in respiration. T/F (NEET)
18. The alveoli get filled with fluid in pneumonia. T/F
19. Symptoms of pneumonia are - (4)
20. In severe cases lips and finger-nails may turn _____ to _____ in colour.
21. Dysentery, plague, diphtheria are bacterial/protozoal diseases. (NEET)
22. Plague, diphtheria are caused by -
23. Common cold is caused by - (NEET)
24. Rhino virus infects the nose, respiratory passage and the lungs. T/F (NEET)
25. Common cold lasts for __-__ days.
26. Sore throat and hoarseness don't occur in common cold. T/F
27. Malignant malaria is cause by __________
28. ______ is the most serious malaria and can even be fatal. (NEET)
29. Name the 3 different types of plasmodium which cause malaria. (NEET)
30. Plasmodium enters the human body as ________ (infective form), through the bite of _________
mosquito. (NEET)
31. Its sexual stages are developed in ______
32. The parasite initially multiplies in ______ and then attack ______
33. RBC rupture cause release of a toxin substance called _______
34. _______ is responsible for the chill and high fever recurring every ___ to ___ days.
35. Where does fertilisation of gametocytes of plasmodium take place ?
36. Sporozoites are stored in _______ of mosquito.
37. Amoebiasis is caused by __________ in the small/large intestine. (NEET)
38. Amoebiasis is also called __________ and is cause by a bacteria/protozoa (NEET).
39. Symptoms of amoebiasis are - (4)
40. _______ act as mechanical carriers of amoebiasis.
41. Common round worm and filarial worm are _______ and _______ respectively.
42. Ascaris cause _______. Its symptoms are (5) (NEET)
43. Ascariasis spread by - (NEET)
44. The two kinds of Wuchereria are - (NEET)
45. They cause ________ also called ________ (NEET)
46. _______ organs are also affected in filariasis.
47. Wuchereria is transmitted through contaminated water and food. T/F
48. The filarial worms cause a fast/slowly developing chronic inflammation.
49. Genera of fungi responsible for ringworms are - (3)
50. _______ is the most common infectious disease in man.
51. Symptoms of ringworms is appearance of dry, scaly lesions at ____,____,____
52. These lesions are not accompanied by itching. T/F
53. Heat and moisture restrict the growth of these fungi. T/F
54. Ringworms are acquired from - ((4) DigaQ. 2
55. _______ fish feeds on mosquito larva.
56. Aedes mosquito is the vector of - (2)
 • IMMUNITY A D
DigaQ. 3

57. Name the 4 types of barriers of innate immunity.

58. Full form of PMNL is -
59. Ex. of physical barriers - (2) (NEET)
60. Ex. of physiological barriers - (3) (NEET) B
61. Ex. of cellular barriers - (4) (NEET)
62. Ex. of cytokine barrier - (1) (NEET)
63. Anamnestic response is name given to - C E
64. T-cells help B cells to produce antibodies. T/F (NEET)
65. Antibody is represented as _____
66. Name all the different types of antibodies present in humans. (5)
67. ______ mediates CMI. (NEET)
68. ______ is responsible for graft rejection.
69. The patient have to take _______ drugs all life after organ transplantation.
70. Ex. of natural passive and artificial passive immunity are - (NEET)
71. Colostrum have abundant IgA/IgG antibodies. (NEET)
72. The foetus doesn't receive antibodies from placenta. T/F
73. What is antitoxin?
74. In case of _____, quick immune response is required.
75. Hepatitis B vaccine is produced from ______
76. The antibody produced in allergy is ____ type. (NEET)
77. Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like ______and ______ from _____ cells. (NEET)
78. The use of what 3 things reduce symptoms of allergy ?
79. Ex. of autoimmune disease -(2) (NEET)
80. Primary lymphoid organs are - (2) (NEET)
81. Secondary lymphoid organs are - (5) (NEET)
82. ______ provides the sites for interaction of lymphocytes with the antigen
83. Thymus does not reduce in size with age. T/F (NEET)
84. T-lymphocyte mature in - (2)
85. Spleen is _____ shaped organ. (NEET)
86. It mainly contains _______ and _______ (NEET)
87. It acts as a filter of blood. T/F
88. Spleen have large reservoir of _______ (NEET)
89. MALT full form -
90. MALT constitutes about ___ % of the lymphoid tissue.
 • AIDS

91. AIDS full form - (NEET)

92. "_______" means a group of symptoms.
93. AIDS was first reported in year _____ and it has killed more than ____ million persons.
94. AIDS is caused by ____, which is a member of group of virus called ______ (NEET)
95. Transmission of HIV infection occur through - (4)
96. HIV spreads only through body fluids. T/F
97. HIV infected persons should be isolated from family and society. T/F
98. Time lag between infection and appearance of symptoms is usually -
99. HIV enters into macrophages and forms viral DNA. T/F (NEET)
100. _______ acts like a HIV factory.
101. HIV attack _____ lymphocytes.
102. Toxoplasma is caused by -
103. Mycobacterium is bacteria/fungi.
104. Diagnostic test for AIDS is - (NEET)
105. ELISA full form -
106. Treatment of AIDS with anti-retroviral drugs is only partially effective. T/F
107. NACO full form -

• CANCER

108. Normal cells show a property called _______ by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibits
their uncontrolled growth. (NEET)
109. The 2 types of tumours are -
110. _______ is the most feared property of malignant tumours. (NEET)
111. The cancer causing agents are classified as - (3)
112. UV rays are ionising/non-ionising radiation.
113. Ex. of physical agents - (3)
114. Cancer causing viruses are called _______.
115. _______ genes in normal cells when activated cause oncogenic transformation of cells. (NEET)
116. ______,______,_____ are very useful to detect cancer of the internal organs.
117. CT full form -
118. Computed tomography use X-rays. T/F
119. MRI uses magnetic and ionising/non-ionising radiations.
120. Treatment of cancer is commonly by - (3)
121. Some side effects of cancer drugs are - (2)
122. As tumor cells are made of our own cells, they are not destroyed by our immune system. T/F
123. _______ activates the immune system and helps in destroying the tumour. (NEET)

• DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE DigaQ. 4

124. Commonly abused drugs are - (3) (NEET)

125. Some drugs are obtained from fungi. T/F
126. Opioids binds to specific ______ receptors present in
our ______ and ______
127. Heroin is commonly called - (NEET)
128. Heroine chemical name is _________
129. Smack is black/white coloured, aroma/odourless, sweet/bitter crystalline compound.
130. Smack is obtained from acetylation of ______
131. Morphine is extracted from ______ of poppy plant name - (NEET) DigaQ. 5
132. Heroin is taken by ______ and ______
133. Heroin is stimulant/depressants.
134. Cannabinoid receptors are present in _____
135. Natural cannabinoids are obtained from _______ of the plant
_________ (NEET)
136. Ex. of some cannabinoids are - (4)
137. Which parts of cannabis are used to produce cannabinoids ? - (3)
138. They are taken by inhalation and injection. T/F
139. They are taken by - (2)
140. How many C atoms are present in the skeletal structure of a cannabinoid molecule ?
141. _______ are known for their effects on cardiovascular system.
142. _______ has a potent stimulating action on CNS.
143. Coca alkaloid is also called ______ (NEET)
144. It is obtained from plant ________ which is native to country _______ (NEET)
145. Cocaine is commonly called _____ or ______
146. Cocaine interfere with the transport of neurotransmitter _______
147. Cocaine is usually injected/snorted.
148. Cocaine is a stimulant/depressant and produces a sense of _______
149. Excessive dosage of cocaine causes ___________
150. Insomnia is a mental illness. T/F
 DigaQ. 6 DigaQ. 7 DigaQ. 8

151. Other plants with well-known hallucinogenic properties are - (2) (NEET)
152. Drugs used as medicines to cope up with mental illness are - (3)
153. _______ is a very effective sedative and painkiller. (NEET)
154. Tobacco is used by humans for more than _____ years.
155. Tobacco contain ______, which is a drug/alkaloid/toxin.
156. Nicotine stimulates ______ glands.
157. Smoking causes an increased incidence urinary bladder cancer. T/F
158. Tobacco chewing is associated with risk of _______
159. Smoking increases ____ content in blood.
160. Define dependence.
161. Those who take drugs intravenously are much more likely to acquire serious infections like - (2)
162. Both AIDS and Hepatitis B infections are chronic infections and ultimately fatal. T/F
163. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages ______ and ______ (NEET)
164. Which drugs do sportspersons misuse to enhance their performance? (3)
165. Reduction in size of testicles and decrease sperm count occur in males using anabolic steroids. T/F
166. Side effects of anabolic steroids in females - (8)
167. Side effects of anabolic steroids in males - (10)
168. Premature closure of growth centres occur by using anabolic steroids. T/F
HUMAN HEALTH
AND DISEASE

ANSWERS
• INTRODUCTION 9. Infectious and non-infectious
1. Hippocrates • COMMON DISEASES
2. Humors 10. Salmonella typhi
3. Greeks like Hippocrates and Indian Ayurveda 11. Food and water
4. Hot 12. Sustained high fever (39° to 40°C), weakness,
5. William Harvey stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of
6. William Harvey appetite
7. Genetic disorders, infections, life style 13. T
8. State of complete physical, mental and social 14. Widal
well-being 15. Mary Mallon, Typhoid Mary
16. Streptococcus pneumoniae & 45. Elephantiasis or filariasis
Haemophilus influenzae 46. Genital organs
17. T 47. F
18. T 48. Slowly
19. fever, chills, cough and headache 49. Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
20. Gray, bluish 50. Ringworm
21. Bacterial 51. skin, nails and scalp
22. Yersinia pestis, Corynebacterium diphtheriae 52. F
23. Rhino virus 53. F
24. F, it don't affect the lungs 54. Soil, by using towels, clothes, comb of infected
25. 3-7 individuals
26. F 55. Gambusia
27. Plasmodium falciparum 56. Dengue and chikungunya
28. Malignant malaria • IMMUNITY
29. P. vivax, P. malaria and P. falciparum 57. Physical, physiological, cellular and cytokine
30. Sporozoites, female anopheles barrier
31. RBC (refer the diagram) 58. Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes
32. Liver, RBC 59. Skin, Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
33. Haemozoin respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts
34. Haemozoin, 3-4 60. Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears
35. Gut from eyes
36. Salivary glands 61. PMNL, monocyte and natural killer, macrophages
37. Entamoeba histolytica, large 62. Interferons
38. Amoebic dysentery, protozoa 63. Intensified secondary response
39. Symptoms of amoebiasis 64. T
I. constipation 65. H₂L₂
II. abdominal pain and cramps 66. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE, IgD (Mnemonic - GAMED)
III. stools with excess mucus 67. T lymphocytes
IV. blood clots 68. CMI
40. Housefly 69. Immunosuppressant
41. Ascaris, Wuchereria 70. Natural passive - Colostrum, Placenta | Artificial
42. Ascariasis, Symptoms - internal bleeding, passive - Anti-tetanus serum, anti-venom after
muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the snake bite
intestinal passage 71. IgA
43. Faeces of infected person which contaminate 72. F
soil, water, plants
44. W. bancrofti and W. malayi
73. Preformed antibodies against toxins 100. Macrophage
74. Tetanus 101. helper-T
75. Yeast 102. Protozoa
76. IgE 103. Bacteria
77. Histamine and serotonin, mast 104. ELISA
78. Anti-histamine, adrenaline and steroids 105. Enzyme Linked Immuno-Sorbent Assay
79. Rheumatoid arthritis, hashimoto thyroiditis 106. T
80. Bone marrow and thymus 107. National AIDS Control Organisation
81. Spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer's patches of • CANCER
small intestine and appendix 108. Contact inhibition
82. 2° lymphoid organs 109. Benign and malignant
83. F 110. Metastasis
84. Bone marrow and thymus 111. Physical, chemical or biological agents
85. Bean 112. Non-ionising
86. Lymphocytes and phagocytes 113. X-rays, gamma rays and UV rays
87. T 114. Oncogenic viruses
88. Erythrocytes 115. Protooncogenes
89. Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue 116. X-rays, CT, MRI
90. 50 117. Computed tomography
• AIDS 118. T
91. Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome 119. Non-ionising
92. Syndrome 120. surgery, radiation therapy and immunotherapy
93. 1981, 25 121. hair loss, anemia
94. HIV, retrovirus 122. F
95. Transmission of HIV occur through 123. α-interferon
(a) sexual contact with infected person • DRUGS AND ALCOHOL ABUSE
(b) transfusion of contaminated blood and blood 124. opioids, cannabinoids and coca alkaloids
products 125. T
(c) by sharing infected needles as in the case of 126. Opioid receptor, CNS and gastrointestinal tract
intravenous drug abusers 127. Smack
(d) from infected mother to her child through 128. Diacetyl morphine
placenta 129. White, odorless, bitter
96. T 130. Morphine
97. F
98. 5-10 years
99. T
131. Latex, Papaver somniferum 161. AIDS and Hepatitis B
132. Snorting and injection 162. T
133. Depressant 163. Nervous system and liver (cirrhosis)
134. Brain 164. narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics
135. Inflorescence, Cannabis sativa 165. T
136. marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja 166. masculinisation, increased aggressiveness, mood
137. flower tops, leaves & the resin of cannabis plant swings, depression, abnormal menstrual cycles,
138. F excessive hair growth on the face and body,
139. Inhalation and oral ingestion enlargement of clitoris, deepening of voice.
140. 21 167. acne, increased aggressiveness, mood swings,
141. Cannabinoids depression, reduction of size of the testicles,
142. Coca alkaloids decreased sperm production, potential for kidney
143. Cocaine and liver dysfunction, breast enlargement,
144. Erythroxylum coca, South america premature baldness, enlargement of the prostate
145. Coke or crack gland
146. Dopamine 168. T
147. Snorted • DigaQs
148. Stimulant, euphoria DigaQ. 1 – Elephantiasis/Filariasis
149. Hallucinations – inflammation in lower limb
150. T DigaQ. 2 – Ringworm infection
151. Atropa belladona and Datura DigaQ. 3 – Antibody molecule
152. barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines A – Antigen binding site
153. Morphine B – Light chain
154. 400 C – Heavy chain
155. Nicotine, alkaloid D – Antigen binding site
156. Adrenal E – Light chain
157. T DigaQ. 4 – structure of Morphine
158. Oral cavity cancer DigaQ. 5 – Opium poppy
159. CO DigaQ. 6 – Cannabinoid molecule
160. Dependence is the tendency of the body to DigaQ. 7 – Cannabis sativa
manifest a characteristic and unpleasant withdrawal DigaQ. 8 – Datura
syndrome if regular dose of drugs/alcohol is abruptly
discontinued.
 LE YOU*

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 BIOHACK NOTES

STRATEGIES FOR
ENHANCEMENT IN
FOOD PRODUCTION
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • ANIMAL HUSBANDRY

1. ________ is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock.

2. More than ___ % of the world livestock population is in India and China.
3. But contribution in world farm produce is only ___ %.
4. Poultry animals include - (4)
5. A group of animals related by descent and similar in most characters like general appearance, features,
size, configuration, etc., are said to belong to a ______
6. Define inbreeding. (NEET)
7. Inbreeding increases homozygosity/heterozygosity. (NEET)
8. Inbreeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection. T/F (NEET)
9. Continuous inbreeding decrease _______ and _______, this phenomenon is called ________
10. How to resolve inbreeding depression ? (NEET)
11. Types of outbreeding are - (3)
12. What is out-crossing ?
13. Best breeding method for animals that are below average in productivity in milk production, growth rate
in beef cattle, etc is -
14. ______ allows the desirable qualities of two different breeds to be combined.
15. Breed developed in punjab by cross-breeding is - (NEET)
16. Hisardale is a breed of cows. T/F DigaQ. 1
17. Hisardale was developed by crossing _______ and _______
18. In interspecific hybridisation, male and female animals of
two different unrelated species are mated. T/F
19. Mule is formed by crossing male _____ and female _____
20. Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using A
artificial insemination. T/F
21. The semen is transported in a warm container. T/F
22. MOET full form - (NEET)
23. In MOET, cow is administered with hormone with LH/FSH like activity.
24. This hormone cause -
25. Due to this, instead of one egg per cycle, __-__ eggs are produced.
26. Artificial insemination is necessary for MOET to be successful. T/F B
27. The fertillised eggs at __-__ celled stages are recovered
surgically/non-surgically and transferred to __________
28. High quality meat has high/less lipid.
29. MOET is not used for rabbits. T/F DigaQ. 2
30. Bee-keeping is also called -
31. Apiculture is a cottage industry. T/F
32. Beeswax is used in - (2)
33. The most commonly reared bee species is -
34. Bee keeping is labour-intensive. T/F
35. Bees are pollinators of - (4)
36. Some common fresh water fishes - (3)
37. Some common marine fish - (4)
38. On the similar lines of green revolution, fisheries have undergone _____ revolution.

• PLANT BREEDING

39. Recorded evidence of plant breeding dates back to _____-_____ years ago.
40. The entire collection (of plants/seeds) having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
__________ (NEET)
41. _______ is the root of any breeding program.
42. _______ is crucial for success of the breeding objective.
43. ________ is a very time consuming and tedious process.
44. Usually only one in few hundred to a thousand crosses shows the desirable combination. T/F
45. Tell the 5 steps for breeding a new genetic variety of crop -
46. Agriculture accounts for approximately ____ % of India's GDP and employs ____ % of population.
47. When did Green Revolution came into picture ? (NEET)
48. During the period 1960 to 2000, wheat production increased from ___ million tonnes to
___ million tonnes while rice production went up from ___ million tonnes to ___ million tonnes.
49. _______ developed semi-dwarf wheat, at International Centre for Wheat and Maize Improvement in
country _______.
50. 2 high yielding and disease resistant wheat varieties introduced in 1963 were - (2)
51. IR-8 was developed at -
52. Variety developed at Taiwan was -
53. Later better-yielding semi-dwarf varieties _____ and _____ were developed in India. (NEET)
54. IRRI is situated in country -
55. _________ sugarcane was originally grown in north India.
56. _________ had thicker stems and higher sugar content.
57. Hybrid breeded millets are resistant to ______ stress.
58. Brown rust occur in -
DigaQ. 3 A B C

DigaQ. 3

59. Fungi cause _____ disease of sugarcane.

60. Late blight of crucifers is caused by fungi. T/F
61. Ex. of Bacterial disease in plant - (1)
62. Ex. of viral disease in plant - (2)
63. In mung beans, resistance of which disease is induced by mutation ? (2)
64. Bhindi scientific name is -
65. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in bhindi formed a new variety called ______
66. Resistance to _____ in cotton and _____ in wheat is an example of resistance by hairy leaves.
67. In wheat, solid stems lead to non-preference by the stem borers. T/F
68. _______ and _______ cotton varieties do not attract bollworms. T/F
69. High/low aspartate, high/low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads to resistance to ______
70. Diets lacking in _____, ______, _____, ______ – increase the risk for disease, reduce lifespan and
reduce mental abilities.
71. Breeding crops with higher levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher protein and healthier fats is called
72. In 2000, maize with twice the amount of ______ and ______ were developed.
73. ______ wheat variety had high protein content.
74. Iron fortified wheat/rice are developed.
75. Vitamin A enriched vegetables - (3)
76. Vitamin C enriched vegetables - (4)
77. Spinach and bathua were _____ and ______ enriched.
78. Protein enriched - (4)
79. Bathua scientific name is -
Table 1

Tell the
missing
words
in the
tables -

Table 2

• SCP & TISSUE CULTURE

80. ___ kg of grains is needed to produce 1 kg of meat.

81. More than ___ % of human population is suffering from malnutrition.
82. Ex. of SCP - (1) (NEET)
83. Bacteria with high rate of biomass production is - (NEET)
84. Plants which are genetically identical to the original plant from which they were grown are called -
85. Any part of a plant taken out and grown in a test tube is called -
86. This capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/explant is called ________
87. Method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called ____________
88. ______ part of plant is free is always free of virus. (NEET)
89. Cell without cell wall is called - (NEET)
90. What is pomato ?
 STRATEGIES FOR
ENHANCEMENT IN
FOOD PRODUCTION

ANSWERS
• ANIMAL HUSBANDRY 32. Preparation of cosmetics and polishes
1. Animal husbandry 33. Apis indica
2. 70 34. F
3. 25 35. Sunflower, brassica, apple, pear
4. chicken, ducks, turkey and geese 36. Catla, Rohu, Common Carp
5. Breed 37. Hilsa, Sardines, Mackerel and Pomfrets
6. mating of more closely related individuals within 38. Blue
the same breed for 4- 6 generations • PLANT BREEDING
7. Homozygosity 39. 9,000-11,000
8. T 40. Germplasm collection
9. Fertility and yield, inbreeding depression 41. Genetic variability
10. Outcrossing 42. Selection process
11. Out crossing, cross breeding, interspecific 43. Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
hybridisation 44. T
12. breeding of the unrelated animals, which may be 45. Steps for breeding a new genetic variety
between individuals of the same breed but having no of crop
common ancestors for 4-6 generations I. Collection of variability
13. Out-crossing II. Evaluation and selection of parents
14. Cross-breeding III. Cross hybridisation among the selected parents
15. Hisardale IV. Selection and testing of superior recombinants
16. F, sheep V. Testing, release and commercialisation of new
17. Bikaneri ewes and Marino rams cultivars
18. F, related should be unreplaced by related 46. 33, 62
19. Donkey, horse 47. Mid-1960s
20. T 48. 11 to 75, 35 to 89.5
21. F, it is transported in frozen form 49. Norman E. Borlaug, Mexico
22. Multiple Ovulation Embryo Transfer 50. Sonalika and Kalyan Sona
23. FSH 51. IRRI (International rice research institute)
24. Super ovulation 52. Taichung Native - 1
25. 6-8 53. Jaya, Ratna
26. F 54. Philippines
27. 8-32, non-surgically, surrogate mothers 55. Saccharum barberi
28. Less lipid 56. Saccharum officinarum
29. F
30. Apiculture
31. T
57. Water 79. Chenopodium
58. Wheat • SCP & TISSUE CULTURE
59. Red rot 80. 3-10
60. F, late blight of potato, not crucifer 81. 25
61. Black rot of crucifers 82. Spirulina
62. Tobacco mosaic and turnip mosaic 83. Methylophilus methylotrophus
63. Yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew 84. Somaclones
64. Abelmoschus esculentus 85. Explant
65. Parbhani kranti 86. Totipotency
66. Jassids, cereal leaf beetle 87. Micropropagation
67. F, stem sawfly instead of borers 88. meristem (apical and axillary)
68. Smooth leaved and nectar-less 89. Protoplast
69. High, low, maize stem borers 90. Somatic hybrid of tomato and potato
70. Iron, Vitamin A, iodine and zinc • DigaQs
71. Biofortification DigaQ. 1 - Improved breed of cattle and chickens
72. Lysine and tryptophan A – Jersey
73. Atlas 66 B – Leghorn
74. Rice DigaQ. 2 - Mule
75. Carrot, spinach, pumpkin DigaQ. 3 - Indian hybrid crops
76. Bitter gourd, bathua, mustard, tomato A – Maize
77. Iron and calcium B – Wheat
78. Broad, lablab, french beans and garden peas C – Garden peas

Table 1
Table 2

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 BIOHACK NOTES

ORGANISMS AND
POPULATIONS
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • INTRODUCTION

1. ________ is revered as the Father of Ecology in India. (NEET)

2. Arrange the various level of biological organisation in ascending order - (9)
3. Ecology is concerned with which 5 levels of biological organisation ?

• ORGANISM AND ITS ENVIRONMENT

4. Ecology at organismic level is essentially __________

5. Precipitation includes both rain and snow. T/F
6. Our intestine is a unique habitat for hundreds/thousands of species of microbes.
7. Name the abiotic factors that result in formation of different habitats (4) -
8. What is a niche? (NEET)
9. Most ecologically relevant environmental factor is -
10. Mangoes cannot grow in tropical/temperate countries like ______ and ______
11. Snow leopards are not found in ______ forests.
12. Tuna fish are rarely caught beyond tropical/temperate latitudes.
13. Snow leopards are found near _______ and ________
14. Organisms which can thrive on wide range temp. called -
15. Restricted to narrow temp. range called -
16. < ___ salt is present in inland water.
17. ___-___ salt is in the sea.
18. > ____ salt is in hypersaline lagoons.
DigaQ. 1
A B

C
D

F
DigaQ. 2
A B C D

19. Organisms tolerating wide range of salinities -

20. Tolerating only narrow range of salinities -
21. _____ and _____ are adapted to photosynthesise optimally under very low light.
22. Soil composition, grain size and aggregation determine the _______ and ________ of the soils.
23. Sediment characteristics often determine the type of ______ animals that can thrive there.
24. Success of mammals is because - (1)
25. 99 % of animals are regulators/conformers.
26. Nearly all plants cannot maintain a constant internal environment. T/F
27. Thermoregulation is energetically expensive for small/large animals.
28. Small animals find it very hard to live in colder areas. T/F
29. Every winter, thousands of migratory birds come from ______ to ________ (NEET)
30. Ex. of hibernation - (1)
31. Ex. of aestivation - (2)
32. Stage of suspended development is called _______ and is seen in _______
33. ____ in North/South American deserts can meet his water requirements through fat oxidation. (NEET)
34. Kangaroo rat however cannot concentrate its urine. T/F
35. In ______, photosynthetic function is taken by flattened stems.
36. Define Allen's Rule.
37. Thick layer of fat in seal is called ______
DigaQ. 3
38. Rohtang Pass is near Manali and Leh. T/F (NEET)
39. Symptoms of altitude sickness are - (3) (NEET)
A
40. Body acclimate to low oxygen at high altitude
by - (3) (NEET) B
41. [Link] animal having behavioural response to change
C
(abiotic) in environment is - (1) (NEET)
42. ________ bask in the sun, and move to shade
according to change in body temperature.
 • POPULATIONS

43. Natural selection operates at organism/population level.

44. _______ cranes are found in Bharatpur wetlands.
45. The tiger census in our _______ and _______ is often based on - (2)
46. Exponential growth is arithmetic/geometric growth.
47. In dN/dt = rN, r is called -
48. R value for norway rat -
49. R value from flour beetle -
50. In 1981, r value for human population in India was -
51. Exponential growth curve is __- shaped.
52. Logistic growth curve is __- shaped.
53. Population growing in habitat with limited resources show phases (4) -
54. This type of population growth in limited resources is called ______-______ logistic growth.
55. The logistic growth equation is - (NEET)
56. Organisms which breed only once - (2)
57. Large no. of small sized offspring are produced by - (2)
DigaQ. 4 - Name the type of pyramid.
A B C

DigaQ. 5
P

Q S

R
 • POPULATION INTERACTIONS

58. Both species lose in -

59. Ex. of interactions in which one species is benefited and other is not -
60. Interacting species live closely together in - (3)
61. Sparrow eating a seed is a predator. T/F (NEET)
62. ______ act as 'conduits' for energy transfer across trophic levels.
63. Predators keep prey population under control. T/F (NEET)
64. ________ was introduced in Australia in early _____ (year) and became invasive.
65. It was brought under control by introducing -
66. Predators have no function in maintaining the species diversity in a community. T/F (NEET)
67. In the rocky intertidal community of _______ the starfish _____ is an important predator. (NEET)
68. More than ___ (no.) species of vertebrates/invertebrates disappeared after removing starfish due to
______ (NEET)
69. Predators are not prudent. T/F
70. Some frogs are cryptically coloured. T/F
71. _____ and _____ are cryptically coloured.
72. ______ is highly distasteful to its predator. (NEET)
73. Butterfly acquire this distasteful chemical during its _______ stage by feeding on _______ (NEET)
74. Nearly 25 % of all arthropods are phytophagus. T/F
75. _____ are the most common morphological means of defense.
76. Ex of plants which have thorns - (2)
77. Calotropis produce highly poisonous ________.
78. Ex. of chemicals produced by plants for defense but extracted commercially - (5) (NEET)
79. Quinine is used to treat -
80. Strychnine is an alkaloid. T/F
81. It is used to kill pests. T/F
82. According to Darwin, interspecific/intraspecific competition is a potent force in organic evolution.
83. In south american lakes, ______ and ______ compete for their common food, i.e. ________
84. Resources need to be limited for competition to occur. T/F
85. Define competition.
86. The ________ in Galapagos Islands became extinct when _____ were introduced.
Table 1

87. Abingdon tortoises however had greater browsing efficiency than goat. T/F
88. Barnacles are arthropods/molluscs/annelids.
89. Barnacles are insects/crustacea.
90. Superior barnacle was _______ which exclude the smaller barnacle ________
91. _______ did his field experiments on rocky sea coast of _______ on barnacle.
92. Carnivores are more affected by competition than herbivores and plants. T/F
93. Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the
competitively inferior one will be eliminated [Link] statement is called - (NEET)
94. Species evolve mechanism to promote co-existence instead of exclusion. T/F
95. _______ showed that 5 closely related species of warblers avoided competition due behavioural
differences in ______ activities.
96. Host and parasite tend to coevolve. T/F
97. Loss of digestive system is seen in parasites. T/F
98. Adaptations found in parasites are - (4)
99. Ex. of a trematode parasite -
100. The intermediate host of liver fluke are - (2)
101. Ex. of ectoparasites are ____ on humans and ____ on dogs.
102. Many marine/freshwater fishes are infested with ecto/endoparasite copepods.
103. Copepods belong to class ______ and phylum _______.
104. Ex. of parasitic plant - (1)
105. Cuscuta don't have leaves and chlorophyll. T/F
106. Female mosquito is a parasite for humans. T/F
107. Life cycle of endo/ectoparasites are more complex.
108. Brood parasitism is seen between _____ and _____ (NEET)
109. In this, the crow is a parasite/host.
110. Breeding season is between _____ to ______
111. Orchids grow as a ______ on a _____ branch.
112. _______ grow on the back of the whale.
DigaQ. 6 A B

113. Ex. of commensalism seen in farmed rural areas is -

114. Sea anemone host ______ which get protected due to ______ on sea anemone.
115. Association between fungus and cyanobacteria can be called lichen. T/F
116. Lichen can form between fungus and non-photosynthesising algae. T/F
117. Mycorrhiza is between _____ and _____ (NEET)
118. Plants provide _______ to fungi.
119. Fungi help in ________
120. Fig is pollinated by _____ (NEET)
121. Female wasp use fruit as an _______.
122. Fig even offers some ______ as food for the larvae.
123. Wasp pollinated the fig inflorescence while searching for suitable ________
124. _______ show bewildering diversity of floral patterns.
125. Orchids are pollinated by - (2)
126. The __________ orchid named ______ employs "sexual deceit".
127. All orchids offer rewards. T/F
128. One petal of its flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female of the bee in ____, ____, ____.
ORGANISMS AND
POPULATIONS

ANSWERS
• INTRODUCTION Keolado National Park (Bharatpur), Rajasthan
1. Ramdeo Misra 30. Bears
2. macromolecules, cells, tissues, organs, organism, 31. Snails and fish
population, communities, ecosystems and biomes 32. Diapause, zooplankton species
3. organism, population, communities, ecosystems and 33. Kangaroo rat, north
biomes 34. F
• ORGANISM & ITS ENVIRONMENT 35. Opuntia
4. Physiological ecology 36. Mammals from colder climates generally have
5. T shorter ears and limbs to minimise heat loss
6. Hundreds 37. Blubber
7. temperature, water, light and soil 38. T
8. Each organism has defined range of conditions 39. nausea, fatigue and heart palpitations
that it can tolerate, diversity in the resources it 40. increasing RBC production, decreasing binding
utilises and a distinct functional role in the ecological affinity of hemoglobin and increasing breathing rate
system, all these together comprise its niche. 41. Desert lizards
9. Temperature 42. Desert lizards
10. Temperate, canada and germany • POPULATIONS
11. Kerala 43. Population
12. Tropical 44. Siberian
13. Himalayan range and central asia 45. Pug marks and fecal pellets
14. Eurythermals 46. Geometric
15. Stenothermals 47. Intrinsic rate of natural increase
16. 5 48. 0.015
17. 30-35 49. 0.12
18. 100 50. 0.0205
19. Euryhaline 51. J
20. Stenohaline 52. S, sigmoid
21. Herbs and shrubs 53. Lag phase, phase of acceleration, phase of
22. Percolation and water holding capacity deceleration, asymptote
23. Benthic 54. Verhulst-Pearl
24. Ability to maintain constant temp. 55. dN/dt = rN[(K-N)/K]
25. Conformers 56. Pacific salmon fish, bamboo
26. T 57. Oysters, pelagic fishes
27. Small
28. T
29. Siberia
• POPULATION INTERACTIONS 92. F
58. Competition 93. Gause's 'Competitive Exclusion Principle'
59. Predation, Parasitism, Commensalism 94. T
60. Predation, Parasitism and Commensalism 95. MacArthur, foraging
61. T 96. T
62. Predation 97. T
63. T 98. Adaptations found in parasites
64. Prickly pear cactus, 1920 I. loss of unnecessary sense organs
65. Cactus-feeding predator (moth) II. presence of adhesive organs or suckers to
66. F cling on to the host
67. American pacific ocean, pisaster III. loss of digestive system
68. 10, invertebrates, interspecific competition IV. high reproductive capacity
69. F 99. Human liver fluke
70. T 100. Snail and fish
71. Frogs and insects 101. Lice, ticks
72. Monarch butterfly 102. Marine, ectoparasite
73. Caterpillar stage, poisonous weed 103. Crustacea, arthropoda
74. F, insects would be there instead of arthropods 104. Cuscuta
75. Thorns 105. T
76. Acacia, Cactus 106. F
77. Cardiac glycosides 107. endoparasites
78. nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium 108. cuckoo(koel) and crow
79. Malaria 109. Parasite
80. T 110. Spring to summer
81. T 111. Epiphyte, mango
82. Interspecific competition 112. Barnacles
83. Flamingoes and fishes, zooplankton 113. Cattle egret and grazing cattle
84. F 114. Clown fish, stinging tentacles
85. Process in which "r" is decreased due to 115. T
presence of other species 116. F
86. Abingdon tortoise, goats 117. Fungi and higher plant
87. F 118. Energy-yielding carbohydrates
88. Arthropods 119. Absorption of essential nutrients
89. Crustacea 120. Wasp
90. Balanus, Chathamalus
91. Connell, scotland
121. Oviposition (egg-laying) C – Desert
122. Developing seeds D – Sea coast
123. Egg-laying sites DigaQ. 3 – Organismic response
124. Orchids A – Conformers
125. Bees and bumblebees B – Regulators
126. Mediterranean orchid, ophrys C – Partial regulators
127. F DigaQ. 4 – Age pyramids for human population
128. Size, colour and markings A – Expanding
• DigaQs B – Stable
DigaQ. 1 – Biome distribution C – Declining
A – Desert DigaQ. 5 – Population density
B – Grassland P – Immigration (I)
C – Tropical forest Q – Natality (B)
D – Temperate forest R – Emigration (E)
E – Coniferous forest S – Mortality (D)
F – Arctic and Alpine tundra DigaQ. 6 – Mutual relationship between fig tree
DigaQ. 2 – Major biomes of India and wasp
A – Tropical rain forest A – Fig flower is pollinated by wasp
B – Deciduous forest B – Wasp laying eggs in the fig fruit
Table 1

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BIOTECHNOLOGY
AND ITS APPLICATIONS

• Based on active recall and spaced repetition

• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • BIOTECHNOLOGICAL APPLICATIONS IN AGRICULTURE

1. Green Revolution doubled/tripled the food supply.

2. Green Revolution was enough to feed the growing human population. T/F
3. Genetic Modification helps to reduce post harvest loss. T/F
4. Golden Rice is Vitamin ___ enriched rice. (NEET)
5. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called ________ (NEET)
6. Bt tomato and Bt soybean are also made. T/F
7. Mosquitoes are ex of Coleopterans/dipterans.
8. Ex. of lepidopterans - (2) (NEET)
9. Ex. of coleopterans - (1)
10. Ex. of dipterans - (2)
11. Toxin is converted from inactive to active form in insect due to - (NEET)
12. The activated toxin binds to foregut/midgut/hindgut epithelial cells. (NEET)
13. Most Bt toxins are insect group specific. T/F
14. The toxin is coded by a gene named _____
15. The "cry" name is given because -
16. Proteins of ______ and ______ genes control cotton bollworms. (NEET)
17. Protein of ______ gene controls corn borers. (NEET)
18. A nematode ________ infects the roots of tobacco plants. (NEET)
19. RNAi takes place in all prokaryotes/eukaryotes.
20. RNAi function in normal cells -
21. In this a specific mRNA is silenced due to complementary ssRNA/dsRNA. (NEET)
22. Mobile genetic elements are called _______
23. The source of complementary RNA can be from - (2)
24. Nematode specific genes were introduced through _________
 • BIOTECHNOLOGICAL APPLICATIONS IN MEDICINE

25. About ____ (no.) recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human use.
26. In India, ___ (no.) these are presently marketed.
27. Why is insulin not administered orally to diabetes patients ?
28. Insulin earlier was extracted from pancreas of _____ and _____ which also caused _____
29. Insulin chains are linked together by _______ (NEET)
30. C peptide is joined to both A and B in pro-insulin. T/F
31. In year _____, a British/American company named _____ synthesized insulin using bacteria ______
32. First clinical gene therapy was given in year___ to a __-year old boy/girl with __ deficiency. (NEET)
33. The disorder was caused due to -
34. The enzyme is crucial for ______ system to function.
35. Gene targeting involves __________
36. In patients, functional ADA cDNA is introduced in ______ using ______ vector.
37. ELISA is based on the principle of -
38. Over ___% of all transgenic animals are mice.
39. Transgenic models of which human diseases exist ? (4)
40. Alzheimer's disease is caused due to -
41. _______ is used to treat emphysema. (NEET)
42. In year _____, first transgenic cow named _____, produced human protein enriched milk.
43. The milk had ___ grams of protein per litre and it contained human protein ________
44. Polio vaccine safety has been tested on _________
45. GEAC full from - (NEET)
46. There are estimated ____ lakh varieties of rice in India alone.
47. ____ no. of documented varieties of basmati are grown in India.
48. In year _____, an British/American company got patient right on Basmati through _______ (NEET)
49. Indian Parliament has passed first/second amendment of the _________ which takes issue like
biopiracy into consideration.
BIOTECHNOLOGY
AND ITS APPLICATIONS

ANSWERS
• BIOTECHNOLOGICAL • BIOTECHNOLOGICAL
APPLICATIONS IN AGRICULTURE APPLICATIONS IN MEDICINE
1. Tripled 25. 30
2. F 26. 12
3. T 27. Because till will then get digested by our
4. A digestive enzymes
5. Bacillus thuringiensis 28. Cattle and pig, allergy
6. T 29. Disulphide bridges
7. Dipterans 30. T
8. Tobacco budworm, armyworm 31. 1983, American, Eli Lilly, E coli.
9. Beetles 32. 1990, 4, girl, ADA
10. Flies, mosquitoes 33. Deletion of the gene for adenosine deaminase
11. Alkaline pH of gut which solubilise the crystal 34. Immune
12. Midgut 35. Gene amplification ( given in summary)
13. T 36. Lymphocytes, retroviral
14. Cry 37. Antigen-antibody reaction
15. The protein formed by this gene is "crystalline" 38. 95
16. cryIAc, cryIIAb 39. cancer, cystic fibrosis, rheumatoid arthritis and
17. cryIAb Alzheimer's
18. Meloidogyne incognita 40. Low acetylcholine
19. Eukaryotes 41. Alpha-1-antitrypsin
20. Cellular defense 42. 1997, Rosie
21. dsRNA 43. 2.4, alpha-lactalbumin
22. Transposons 44. Transgenic mice
23. infection by viruses having RNA genomes or 45. Genetic Engineering Approval Committee
mobile genetic elements (transposons) that replicate 46. 2
via an RNA intermediate 47. 27
24. Agrobacterium vectors 48. 1997, American, US Patent and Trademark
Office
49. Second, Indian Patents Bill
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 BIOHACK NOTES

ECOSYSTEM
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • INTRODUCTION

1. Term Ecosystem was given by -

2. Father of Ecology is -
3. _______ are the functional unit of nature.

• ECOSYSTEM - STRUCTURE & FUNCTION

4. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called ________ (NEET)
5. Shrubs occupy the 2nd/bottom layer of vertical strata.
6. In pond ecosystem, the consumers ex - (1)
7. The 4 functions aspects of ecosystem are -
8. Some bacteria also function as decomposers and are found in the bottom of the pond. T/F
9. There is uni-directional movement of energy to higher/lower trophic level.
10. Define primary production.
11. Unit of primary production is _____ or ______
12. The rate of biomass production is called _______ and its unit is ______ or ______
13. Define Gross Primary Productivity.
14. Write equation relating GPP and NPP.
15. What is secondary productivity ? (NEET)
16. GPP is biomass available for consumption to heterotrophs. T/F
17. The annual NPP of whole biosphere is _____ million/billion tons of organic matter.
18. Oceans occupy ___% of surface, and have only ____ billion tons of productivity.
19. _______ is referred as famer's friend.
20. Decomposition involve 3 processes namely -
21. 2 parts of catabolism are -
22. Detritivores ex - (1) (NEET)
23. Breakdown of detritus into smaller particles is called - (NEET)
24. ________ and _______ enzymes degrade detritus into simpler inorganic substances. (NEET)
25. The process in above Q. is called - (NEET)
26. Water-soluble organic/inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon and get precipitated as
unavailable salts. This process is called -
27. Catabolism and fragmentation occur simultaneously. T/F
28. All the decomposition steps operate simultaneously on
the detritus. T/F (NEET)
29. _______ and _______ occur during decomposition of soil. (NEET)
30. Humus is light/dark, amorphous/crystalline substance. (NEET)
31. _______ process leads to accumulation of humus what is highly resistant to ______ (NEET)
32. Humus undergoes decomposition at an extremely slow rate. T/F
33. What happens in mineralisation ?
34. Decomposition don't require oxygen. T/F
35. Decomposition rate is slow if detritus is rich in - (2)
36. Decomposition rate is fast if detritus is rich in - (2)
37. Most important climate factors that regulate decomposition are - (2) (NEET)
38. Anaerobic environment favours decomposition. T/F (NEET)

• ENERGY FLOW

39. Sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems except _________ ecosystems.
40. PAR full form - (NEET)
41. Less than ____ % of solar radiation is PAR. (NEET)
42. Plants capture only __-__ % of the PAR.. (NEET)
43. In terrestrial ecosystems, major producers are - (2)
44. Name aquatic ecosystem producers - (3)
45. Secondary carnivores are primary/secondary/tertiary consumers.
46. Molluscs are primary consumers. T/F
47. Saprotrophs secrete digestive enzymes inside/outside their body.
48. In aquatic ecosystems, GFC/DFC is the major conduit for energy flow.
49. Wolf and fishes are primary/secondary/tertiary consumers.
50. Man is the primary/secondary/tertiary consumer.
51. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called - (NEET)
52. How is standing crop measured ?
53. Transfer of energy follows ___ % law.
54. The 3 types of ecological pyramid are - (3)
55. Which type of pyramids can never be inverted ?
56. Which pyramid is inverted in aquatic ecosystem ?
57. A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same ecosystem at the same time. T/F
58. Ex of such a species as in above Q.- (1) (NEET)
59. _______ are not given any place in ecological pyramids.
 • ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION

60. Community that are near equilibrium with the environment are called ________
61. The sudden/gradual and unpredictable/predictable change in the species composition of a given area is
called ________ (NEET)
62. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called -
63. Primary succession is faster than secondary succession. T/F
64. Why is secondary succession faster ?
65. Ex of areas where primary succession occur - (3)
66. Name the types of succession (based on nature of habitat) - (2)
67. In hydrarch succession, conditions changes from _____ to _____ (NEET)
68. In xerarch succession, conditions changes from _____ to _____ (NEET)
69. The species that invade a bare area are called ________. Ex - (1)
70. Reed-swap stage come after marsh-meadow stage. T/F
71. Scrub-stage come before marsh-meadow stage. T/F
72. In primary succession in water, name all the seral stages. (7)

DigaQ. 1
A E

C F

D
 • NUTRIENT CYCLING

73. The amount of nutrient present in soil at any given time is called - (NEET)
74. Types of nutrient cycling are - (2) (NEET)
75. Ex. of gaseous nutrient cycle - (2)
76. Ex. of sedimentary nutrient cycle - (2)
77. Carbon constitutes ___ % of dry weight of organisms.
78. ____ % of carbon is dissolved in oceans. (NEET)
79. _______ kg of carbon is fixed in the DigaQ. 2
biosphere through photosynthesis annually. A
80. The natural reservoir of phosphorus
is ______
81. Two major differences between phosphorus X
and carbon cycle is - (2)
Y

• ECOSYSTEM SERVICES

82. _______ (scientist name) tried to put a price tag on ecosystem services.
83. The price tag was of ____ million/trillion US dollar a year/month.
84. The soil formation accounts for ___ % of total the cost of ecosystem services.
85. Cost of nutrient cycling was < ___ % of total.
86. Cost of recreation was < ___ % of total.
87. Climate regulation cost was ___ % of total.
88. Habitat for wildlife cost was ____ % of total.
ECOSYSTEM

ANSWERS
• INTRODUCTION 31. Humification, microbial action
1. Tansley 32. T
2. Eugene odum 33. humus is further degraded by some microbes
3. Ecosystems and release of inorganic nutrients occur
• ECOSYSTEM 34. F
4. Stratification 35. Lignin and chitin
5. 2nd 36. Nitrogen and water double substance like sugar
6. Zooplankton 37. Temperature and soil moisture
7. Productivity, decomposition, energy flow and 38. F
nutrient cycling • ENERGY FLOW
8. T 39. Hydrothermal ecosystems
9. Higher 40. photosynthetically active radiation
10. Amount of biomass or organic matter produced 41. 50
per unit area over a time period 42. 2-10
11. g m⁻² or kcal m⁻² 43. Herbaceous and woody plants
12. Productivity, g m⁻² yr⁻¹ or kcal m⁻² yr⁻¹ 44. phytoplankton, algae and higher plants
13. rate of production of organic matter during 45. Tertiary consumers
photosynthesis 46. T
14. GPP - R = NPP 47. Outside
15. rate of formation of new organic matter by 48. GFC
consumers 49. Secondary consumers
16. F 50. Tertiary consumer
17. 170 billion 51. standing crop
18. 70, 55 52. As biomass
19. Earthworm 53. 10
20. fragmentation, leaching, catabolism 54. pyramid of number, pyramid of biomass and
21. humification and mineralisation pyramid of energy
22. Earthworm 55. pyramid of energy
23. Fragmentation 56. Pyramid of biomass
24. Bacterial and fungal 57. T
25. Catabolism 58. Sparrow
26. Leaching 59. Saprophytes
27. T
28. T
29. Humification and mineralisation
30. Dark, amorphous
• ECOLOGICAL SUCCESSION 79. 4 × 10¹³
60. Climax community 80. Rock
61. Gradual, predictable, ecological succession 81. Atmospheric input of phosphorus are low,
62. sere(s) exchange of phosphorus bt environment are
63. F organisms are negligible
64. As some soil is present • ECOSYSTEM SERVICES
65. cooled lava, bare rock, newly created pond or 82. Robert Constanza
reservoir 83. 33 trillion
66. Hydrarch and xerarch 84. 50
67. Hydric to mesic 85. 10
68. Xeric to mesic 86. 10
69. Pioneer species, lichens 87. 6
70. F 88. 6
71. F • DigaQs
72. Seral stages in water DigaQ. 1 – Primary succession
I. Phytoplankton A – Phytoplankton
II. Rooted-submerged plants B – Submerged plant stage
III. Submerged free floating stage C – Submerged free floating plant stage
IV. Reed-swamp D – Reed-swamp stage
V. Marsh-meadow E – Marsh-meadow stage
VI. Scrub F – Scrub stage
VII. Forest or trees DigaQ. 2 – Phosphorus cycling in terrestrial
• NUTRIENT CYCLING ecosystem
73. Standing crop A – Consumers
74. Gaseous and sedimentary B – Soil solution
75. Nitrogen, carbon X – Litter fall
76. Sulphur and phosphorus Y – Decomposition
77. 49 Z – Weathering
78. 71
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 BIOHACK NOTES

BIOTECHNOLOGY
PRINCIPLES & PROCESSES

• Based on active recall and spaced repetition

• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • PRINCIPLES & TOOLS OF BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. EFB full form -

2. The 2 core technique that enable the birth of modern biotechnology are -
3. ________ is a specific DNA sequence which is responsible for initiating replication. (NEET)
4. Autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA is _______ (NEET)
5. First recombinant DNA was formed by ______ and _______ (scientists) in the year _____, by
working on _________ bacteria. (NEET)
6. Plasmid of _____ bacteria was taken and then it was inserted after modification in _____ bacteria.
7. ________ are known as molecular scissors. (NEET)
8. The linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible with the enzyme
________ (NEET)
9. 3 basic steps in genetically modifying as organism is -
10. In 1963, the two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bacteriophage in
Escherichia coli were isolated. What was the function of both of them ?
11. First restriction endonuclease was - (NEET)
12. What is the difference between endonuclease and exonuclease ?
13. How are restriction endonucleases named ?
14. Hind II palindromic sequence has ___ no. of base pairs.
15. Today we know more than ____ (no.) restriction enzymes that are isolated from ____
(no.) strains of bacteria.
16. In EcoRI, R is derived from the name of ______ (NEET)
17. EcoRI comes from bacteria - (full name) (NEET)
18. Each restriction endonuclease recognizes a specific _________ in the DNA. (NEET)
19. Palindromic nucleotide sequence of EcoRI is -
20. The DNA fragments are separated by a technique known as - (NEET)
21. In gel electrophoresis, the matrix used is of ______ (material) which is a natural polymer extracted
from _______ (NEET)
22. Agarose gel provides ______ effect. (NEET)
23. DNA fragments are visualised only after staining it with _______ followed by exposure to _______
24. Red/orange coloured bands of DNA are seen.
25. The separated bands of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and extracted from the gel piece. This
step is known as ________
26. All types of plasmids are present in equal numbers
in the cell. T/F
27. ________ is responsible for controlling copying numbers of the linked DNA. (NEET)
28. The normal E coli. carry resistance to ampicillin. T/F (NEET) A B
H
29. Give examples of selectable markers for E. coli (4) -
30. Cloning sites should be preferably single/double. G
31. What are transformants? C
F
32. What are recombinants? P Q
33. The two antibiotic resistance genes in pBR322 are -
DigaQ. 1 D
34. pBR322 have restriction sites for (6) -
35. Rop gene codes for - R
36. Restriction sites in tetR are - (2) S
37. Restriction sites in ampR are - (2)
38. Restriction site in rop is -
39. "Insertional inactivation" help is selection of transformants/recombinants. E
40. In chromogenic selection, DNA is inserted in the coding sequence of _______ enzyme. (NEET)
41. In absence of any insert, the colonies give ______ colour.
42. ________ is able to deliver a piece of T-DNA. (NEET)
43. Agrobacterium tumefaciens is a pathogen of monocot/dicot plants.
44. T-DNA transforms normal cells to tumor cells. T/F
45. ______ in animals have the ability to transform normal cells to cancerous cells.
46. Plasmid of Agrobacterium tumefaciens is called _______
47. Host are made competent by treating them with specific concentration of _____ion.
48. Heat shock is of ____ °C.
49. Recombinant DNA is forced into cells by changing temperature. Tell how ?
50. In ________ (method), recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
51. In plants, cells are bombarded with high/low velocity microparticles of ____ and ____ coated with
DNA in a method known as _____ or _____

DigaQ. 2. What process is going on?

 • PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT DNA TECHNOLOGY

52. _______ is used to break bacterial membranes, ______ is used to break plant cells and
______ is used to break fungal cells. (NEET)
53. Purified DNA ultimately precipitates out after the addition of _________ (NEET)
54. Why does DNA precipitate after adding chilled ethanol ?
55. _________ is employed to check the progression of a DigaQ. 3
restriction enzyme digestion. (NEET)
56. DNA moves towards the positive electrode (cathode). T/F G
57. PCR full form - (NEET) A
58. The 3 steps of PCR are - F
59. If a PCR cycle runs 30 times, it will produce _____ times B
the initial amount of desired DNA sequence put into the system. E
60. ______ no. of copies of desired genes will be produced after
D
the end of first 5 cycles of PCR.
61. DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from bacteria - (NEET)
62. The DNA polymerase in PCR is known as _______
63. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous C
host, it is called ________ protein.
64. In continuous culture systems, cells maintain themselves in DigaQ. 4
log phase. T/F
65. ________ phase in the physiologically most active phase. A
66. In bioreactors, ____-____ litres of culture can be processed.
B
67. The commonly used bioreactors are of ______ type.
68. A stirred-tank has a curved/flat base.
69. The bioreactors have many systems attached to them.
Name them all. (6)
70. ______ and ______ are collectively referred to as
downstream processing. (NEET)
71. The downstream processing and quality control testing
vary from product to product. T/F
BIOTECHNOLOGY
PRINCIPLES & PROCESSES

ANSWERS
• PRINCIPLES & TOOLS 26. F
1. European Federation of Biotechnology (EFB) 27. Ori
2. Genetic engineering & Bioprocess Engineering 28. F
3. Origin of replication 29. Ampicillin, chloramphenicol, tetracycline or
4. Plasmid kanamycin resistant genes
5. Stanley Cohen and Herbert Boyer, 1972, 30. Single
Salmonella typhimurium 31. Transformants are the cell that has taken the
6. Salmonella typhimurium, E coli. additional genetic material (it may be natural or
7. Restriction endonuclease genetically engineered)
8. DNA ligase 32. Recombinants are the cells who have taken up
9. Identification of DNA, introduction of DNA, the genetically engineered genetic material.
maintenance of introduced DNA 33. Ampicillin and tetracycline
10. One added methyl groups to DNA, while the 34. Hind III, EcoR I, BamH I, Sal I, Pvu II, Pst I, Cla I
other cut DNA 35. Proteins involved in replication of plasmid
11. Hind II 36. BamH I, Sal I
12. Exonucleases remove nucleotides from the ends 37. Pvu I, Pst I
of the DNA whereas, endonucleases make cuts at 38. Pvu II
specific positions within the DNA 39. Recombinants
13. First letter comes from genus and second two 40. β-galactosidase
letters come from species, then one letter from the 41. Blue
strain and the Roman numbers following the names 42. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
indicate the order in which the enzymes were 43. Dicot
isolated from that strain of bacteria. 44. T
14. 6 45. Retrovirus
15. 900, 230 46. Ti Plasmid
16. Strain 47. Calcium
17. Escherichia coli RY 13 48. 42°C
18. Palindromic nucleotide sequence 49. First cells are incubated on ice, then heat shock
19. GAATTC is given, and then again incubated on ice
20. Gel electrophoresis 50. Micro-injection
21. Agarose, sea weeds 51. High, gold and tungsten, biolistics or gene gun
22. Sieving
23. Ethidium bromide, UV radiation
24. Orange
25. Elution
• PROCESSES OF RECOMBINANT IV. Temperature control system
DNA TECHNOLOGY V. pH control system
52. Lysozyme, cellulase and chitinase VI. Sampling ports
53. Ethanol 70. Separation and purification
54. Ethanol has a low dielectric constant. As DNA is 71. T
a polar molecule, it would be more soluble in polar • DigaQs
solvents like water. As ethanol is less polar, it DigaQ. 1 – pBR322
precipitates out in it. A – Cla I P – ampʳ
55. Agarose gel electrophoresis B – Hind III Q – tetʳ
56. F, anode C – BamH I R – ori
57. Polymerase chain reaction D – Sal I S – rop
58. Denaturation, annealing and extension E – Pvu II
59. 2³⁰ F – Pst I
60. 6 (you may think that ans should be 2⁵ = 32, G – Pvu I
but on close observation you will notice that desired H – EcoR I
DNA sequence do not start to form till the 3rd DigaQ. 2 - Spooling
step) DigaQ. 3 - Simple stirred-tank bioreactor
61. Thermus aquaticus A – Acid/base for pH control
62. Taq polymerase B – Steam for sterilization
63. Recombinant C – Sterile air
64. T D – Culture broth
65. log/exponential E – Flat bladed impeller
66. 100-1000 F – Foam breaker
67. Stirring type G – Motor
68. Curved DigaQ. 4 - Sparged stirred-tank bioreactor through
69. Systems in bioreactors which sterile air bubbles are sparged
I. Agitator system A – Increased surface area for oxygen transfer
II. Oxygen delivery system B – Gas entrainment
III. Foam control system
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 BIOHACK NOTES

MICROBES
IN HUMAN WELFARE

• Based on active recall and spaced repetition

• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 DigaQ. 1 X
A
Y
B
C
D
A
E
F

• MICROBES IN HOUSEHOLD PRODUCTS

1. ______ are the proteinaceous infectious agents.

2. _______ bacteria is used for the production of curd. (NEET)
3. LAB full form -
4. Curd has more nutritional quality than milk because it has _____ (NEET)
5. LAB plays a very beneficial role in checking disease causing microbes. T/F
6. The puffed appearance of dough is due to -
7. Saccharomyces cerevisiae is also called - (2) (NEET)
8. _____ is a traditional drink in south india.
9. It is made by fermenting _____ from _____
10. Large holes are present in ______ cheese due to production of large amount of ______. (NEET)
11. Swiss cheese is formed by the bacteria ___________ (NEET)
12. _______ cheese is ripened by growing a specific fungi on them. (NEET)

• MICROBES IN INDUSTRIAL PRODUCTS

13. Yeast is used to form beverages. T/F (NEET)

14. Ex. of beverages formed by yeast. (5)
15. What is Malt ?
16. Brewer's yeast is used to ferment _______and ______ to produce ethanol. (NEET)
17. Alcoholic drinks produced without distillation - (2)
18. Alcoholic drinks produced with distillation - (3)
19. ______ was the first antibiotic to be discovered. (NEET)
 DigaQ. 2
DigaQ. 3

20. _______ was working on _______ (bacteria), noticed that the bacteria was not able to grow
because of ________ (fungi). (NEET)
21. The full potential of penicillium as an antibiotic was established by two scientist namely -
22. The antibiotic was used to treat American soldiers wounded in World War I. T/F
23. Fleming, Chain and Florey were awarded the Nobel Prize in year ______
24. Kali khansi english name -
25. Diphtheria hindi name -
26. Kusht rog english name -
27. Aspergillus niger produce ______ acid. (NEET)
28. Acetobacter aceti is a bacterium/fungi. (NEET)
29. Acetobacter aceti produce ______ acid. (NEET)
30. ________ produce butyric acid. (NEET)
31. ________ produce lactic acid. (NEET)
32. Lipases are used in _______ and help in removing ______ from the laundry. (NEET)
33. Bottle juice are clarified using ______ and ______ (NEET)
34. ________ produced by Streptococcus is used as a ________ (NEET)
35. ______ is used as a immunosuppressive agent in organ-transplant patients. (NEET)
36. It is produced by fungus __________
37. Statin are produced by the bacteria/fungus _________ (NEET)
38. Statin competitively/non-competitively inhibit enzyme responsible for synthesis of cholesterol.

• MICROBES IN SEWAGE TREATMENT

39. Municipal waste water is also called ______

40. STP full form -
41. Treatment of waste water is done by autotrophic/
heterotrophic microbes naturally present in sewage.
42. Primary treatment means physical/chemical removal of particles through ______ and
_______ (NEET)
43. Floating debris is removed by ________ DigaQ. 4
44. Grit is removed by ________
45. All solids that settle form _______ and the
supernatant form ______
46. Secondary treatment is called chemical/biological
treatment. (NEET)
47. What are flocs ?
48. Flocs are mesh like. T/F
49. Define BOD (NEET)
50. BOD is a measure of ______ present in the water. (NEET)
51. "Flocs" when sediment form _______
52. The activated sludge is pumped into ______ and ______ (NEET)
53. In anaerobic sludge digester's bacteria produces gases- (3) (NEET)
54. Ministry of ______ and ______ has initiated 2 plans to save major rivers of our country.
Name the plans.

• MICROBES IN BIOGAS PRODUCTION,

AS BIOCONTROL AGENTS & BIOFERTILLISERS
55. Biogas predominantly contain ______ gas. (NEET)
56. Ex of methanogen - (1) (NEET)
57. Bacteria found in anaerobic sludge digesters -
58. Methanogens are present in (2) (NEET)
59. Biogas tank in ___-___ feet deep.
60. The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to the efforts of _____
and _____
61. IARI and KVIC full form -
62. Beetle with red and black markings -
63. Ladybirds are useful to get rid of _____ (NEET)
64. Dragonflies are useful to get rid of _____ (NEET)
65. Butterfly caterpillars are controlled by the bacteria _________ (NEET)
66. ______ are effective biocontrol agents for several plant pathogens. (NEET)
67. Trichoderma are symbiotic/free-living fungi and very common
in shoot/root ecosystems. (NEET)
68. ________ are pathogens that attack insects
and other arthropods.
69. Majority of baculoviruses used as biological control agents are in the genus ____________ (NEET)
70. These viruses are excellent candidates for broad spectrum insecticidal application. T/F
71. These viruses have no negative impact on plants, mammals,birds. T/F
72. IPM full form -
73. The main sources of biofertilizers are - (3) (NEET)
74. Leguminous plant symbiotically associated with - (NEET)
75. Bacteria who fix nitrogen in free-living conditions are - (2) (NEET)
76. Members of genus _____ form mycorrhiza. (NEET)
77. Glomus is a genus of plant. T/F
78. In mycorrhiza, fungus absorb ______ and deliver it to plants.
79. Tolerance to salinity and drought can be brought up by mycorrhiza. T/F
80. Cyanobacteria are autotrophic/heterotrophic. (NEET)
81. Ex. of cyanobacteria who fix nitrogen - (3) (NEET)
82. In ______ fields, cyanobacteria serve as an important biofertilizer.

DigaQ. 5 D

C
A B E

F
 MICROBES
IN HUMAN WELFARE

ANSWERS
• HOUSEHOLD PRODUCTS 28. Bacteria
1. Prions 29. Acetic
2. Lactobacillus 30. Clostridium butylicum
3. Lactic acid bacteria 31. Lactobacillus
4. Vitamin B₁₂ 32. Detergent formulations, oily stains
5. T 33. Pectinases, proteases
6. CO₂ 34. Streptokinase, clot buster
7. Baker's yeast and brewer's yeast 35. Cyclosporin A
8. Toddy 36. Trichoderma polysporum
9. Sap from palms 37. Fungus, Monascus purpureus
10. Swiss , CO₂ 38. Competitively
11. Propionibacterium sharmanii • SEWAGE TREATMENT
12. Roquefort 39. Sewage
• INDUSTRIAL PRODUCTS 40. Sewage treatment plant
13. T 41. Heterotropic
14. wine, beer, whisky, brandy or rum 42. Physical, filtration and sedimentation
15. It is the germinated cereal grains that have been 43. Sequential filtration
dried in a process known as "Malting". 44. Sedimentation
The grains are made to germinate by soaking in 45. Primary sludge, effluent
water and are then halted from germinating 46. Biological
further by drying out. Malting grain develops the 47. masses of bacteria associated with fungal
enzyme required for modifying the grain's starch filaments
into various types of sugar. 48. T
16. Malted cereals and fruit juices 49. It refers to the amount of the oxygen that
17. Wine and beer would be consumed if all the organic matter in one
18. Whisky, brandy and rum liter of water were oxidised by bacteria.
19. Penicillin 50. Organic matter
20. Alexander Fleming, Staphylococci, Penicillium 51. Activated sludge
notatum 52. Aeration tanks, anaerobic sludge digesters
21. Ernest Chain and Howard Florey 53. Methane, hydrogen sulphide, carbon dioxide
22. F, in WWII 54. Environment and Forests, Plans - GAP - Ganga
23. 1945 Action Plan, YAP - Yamuna Action Plan
24. Whooping cough
25. Gal ghotu
26. Leprosy
27. Citric
• BIOGAS PRODUCTION, 79. T
BIOCONTROL & BIOFERTILLISERS 80. Autotrophic
55. Methane 81. Anabaena, Nostoc, Oscillatoria
56. Methanobacterium 82. paddy
57. Methanogens
58. Anaerobic sludge digesters and rumen of cattle • DigaQs
59. 10-15 DigaQ. 1 – Viruses
60. IARI & KVIC X – Bacteriophage
61. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI) & A – Head
Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) B – Collar
62. Ladybird C – Tail
63. Aphids D – Plate
64. Mosquitos E – Pins
65. Bacillus thuringiensis F – Prongs
66. Trichoderma Y – Rod-shaped TMV
67. Free-living, root A – Compact rod-shaped viruses
68. Baculoviruses DigaQ. 2 – Colonies of bacteria in a petri dish
69. Nucleopolyhedrovirus DigaQ. 3 – Fungal colony in a petri dish
70. F, narrow X – Fungal colony
71. T DigaQ. 4 – Secondary treatment
72. Integrated pest management DigaQ. 5 – Biogas plant
73. bacteria , fungi and cyanobacteria A – Dung
74. Rhizobium B – Water
75. Azotobacter and azospirillum C – Gas holder
76. Glomus D – Gas
77. F, a fungi E – Sludge
78. Phosphorus F – Digester

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 BIOHACK NOTES

BIODIVERSITY AND
CONSERVATION
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • BIODIVERSITY

1. No. of species of ants -

2. No. of species of beetle -
3. No. of species of fishes -
4. No. of species of orchids -
5. Biodiversity term is popularised by ecologist/sociobiologist named _______ (NEET)
6. The 3 types of diversity are -
7. Ex. of genetic diversity - (1)
8. Rauwolfia vomitoria is a medicinal plant. T/F
9. They have a active chemical called -
10. > ______ genetically different strains of rice in India. (NEET)
11. > ______ varieties of mango in India.
12. Eastern Ghats have a greater amphibian species diversity than Western Ghats. T/F (NEET)
13. At ecosystem level india have greater biodiversity than ______
14. Norway is a _________ country.
15. Total no. of plants and animal species described till now are around ____ million.
16. _______ made a scientifically sound estimate of ___ million global species diversity.
17. More than ___ % of all species recorded are animals.
18. Plants comprise no more than ___ % of total.
19. ____ % of animal species are insects. (NEET)
20. The number of _____ species in the world is more than the combined total of the species of fishes,
amphibians, reptiles and mammals. (NEET)
21. Biologists are not sure about how many prokaryotic species there might be. T/F
22. India has only ___ % of world's land area, its share in global species diversity is ___ %. (NEET)
23. India is in the 12 mega diversity countries of the world. T/F (NEET)
24. According to May, only ___ % of the total species are recorded so far.

DigaQ. 1 X Y Z A B
D A
A
B
B
E F
C
C
C D E
D
 • PATTERNS OF BIODIVERSITY

25. Species diversity increases as we move away from equator to the poles. T/F
26. Colimbia has nearly _____ species while New York has ____ species and Greenland have only ____
species of birds.
27. India have more than _____ species of birds.
28. ________ rain forest in _______ (continent) has the greatest biodiversity on earth.
29. _______ species of plants, ______ of fishes, _____of birds, ____ of mammals, ____ of
amphibians, ____ of reptiles and of more than ________ invertebrates are found in amazon.
30. Why diversity is more in tropics. Give reasons (3) -
31. In North American/South American jungles, _________ (scientist name) worked.
32. He was a British/German naturalist/philosopher and observed that - (NEET)
33. Graph between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa turns out to be a ______ curve.
34. Value of Z lies in the range of ___ to ___
35. With change in region or taxonomic group under study, the value of Z also change. T/F
36. Value of Z on analysing on continents become ____ to _____
37. Areas with more species diversity show less year to
year variation in biomass. T/F A DigaQ. 2
38. Increased diversity means higher productivity. T/F
39. Above two statements were given by the scientist -
40. Rivet popper hypothesis was given by _______
41. Species were compared with _____ of aeroplanes.
42. Flight safety was compared with _____________

• LOSS OF BIODIVERSITY B

43. The IUCN Red List documented extinction of _____ (no.) species in last 500 years.
44. _____ no. of vertebrates, _____ no. of invertebrates and ____ no. of plants got extinct.
45. Name ex. of recent extinctions. (7)
46. Dodo country -
47. Quagga country -
48. Extinction ex from Russia -
49. Extinction ex from Australia -
50. Amphibians are more vulnerable to
extinction. T/F (NEET)
51. ____ % of amphibian species are facing the threat of extinction. (NEET)
52. ____ % of birds, ____ % of mammals, ___ % of gymnosperms are facing extinction threat.
53. Loss of biodiversity leads to decline in plant production. T/F
54. Name all the Evil Quartet. (NEET)
55. Most important cause of extinction is - (NEET)
56. ________ is called the lungs of the planet.
57. Ex. of extinctions due to over-exploitation are - (2)
58. ______ introduced in Lake Victoria in West/East Africa. (NEET)
59. It caused extinction of more than 100/200 species of _______ (NEET)
60. Invasive weeds ex - (3) (NEET)
61. Introduction of American/African catfish called _______ is posing threats to indigenous catfish.

• BIODIVERSITY CONSERVATION

62. Reasons why we should conserve biodiversity are grouped into 3 categories. Name them.
63. More than ___ % of drugs currently sold in the market worldwide are derived from plants.
64. _______ species of plants contribute to the traditional medicines.
65. Aesthetic pleasures are categorised into ________ category.
66. When an animal or plant is at a very high risk of extinction, it is conserved by in situ/ex situ. (NEET)
67. What is endemism ? (NEET)
68. Total no. biodiversity hotspots in the world are - (NEET)
69. 3 of these hotspots present in our country are - (NEET)
70. All hotspots put together cover less than ___ % of earth's land area. (NEET)
71. No of biosphere reserves in India -
72. No. of national parks in India -
73. No. of Wildlife sanctuaries in India -
74. 3 areas of Madhya Pradesh that are sacred groves - (NEET)
75. 2 areas of Meghalaya that are sacred groves - (NEET)
76. Sacred grooves are found in areas - (4) (NEET)
77. Ex. of ex-situ conservation are - (3)
78. The Earth Summit was held in city __________ in year _____ (NEET)
79. World Summit on Sustainable Development was held in ___ (year) in _____ city of ____ (country).
80. In it, _____ no. of countries pledged their commitment to achieve by year _____, a significant
reduction in rate of biodiversity loss.
BIODIVERSITY AND
CONSERVATION

ANSWERS
• BIODIVERSITY 30. Reasons for more diversity in tropics:
1. 20,000 I. Tropical env. hasn't undergone glaciation
2. 3,00,000 II. Tropical environment are less seasonal
3. 28,000 III. There is more solar energy in tropics
4. 20,000 31. South American, Alexander von Humboldt
5. Sociobiologist, Edward Wilson 32. German naturalist, species richness increase
6. Genetic diversity, species diversity, ecological with increasing explored area, but only upto a limit
diversity 33. Rectangular hyprbola
7. Rauwolfia vomitoria 34. 0.1 to 0.2
8. T 35. F
9. Reserpine 36. 0.6 to 1.2
10. 50,000 37. T
11. 1,000 38. T
12. F 39. David Tilman
13. Norway 40. Paul Ehrlich
14. Scandinavian 41. Rivlets
15. 1.5 42. Proper functioning of ecosystem
16. Robert May, 7 • LOSS OF BIODIVERSITY
17. 70 43. 784
18. 22 44. 338 vertebrates, 359 invertebrates and 87
19. 70 plants
20. Fungi 45. Dodo, quagga, thylacine, Steller's Sea Cow, and
21. T three subspecies (Bali, Javan, Caspian) of tiger
22. 2.4, 8.1 46. Mauritius
23. T 47. Africa
24. 22 48. Steller's Sea Cow
• PATTERNS OF BIODIVERSITY 49. Thylacine
25. F 50. T
26. 1,400, 105, 56 51. 32 %
27. 1,200 52. 12 % of bird, 23 % of mammal and 31 % of
28. Amazonian Rain forest, South America gymnosperm
29. 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 53. T
of birds, 427 of mammals, 427 of amphibians, 378
of reptiles, 1,25,000 of invertebrates
54. The Evil Quartet Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat regions of
I. Habitat loss and fragmentation Karnataka and Maharashtra and the Sarguja,
II. Over-exploitation Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh
III. Alien species invasions 77. Zoological parks, botanical gardens and wildlife
IV. Co-extinctions safari parks
55. Habitat loss and fragmentation 78. Rio de Janeiro, 1992
56. Amazon rainforest 79. 2002, Johannesburg, south africa
57. Steller's sea cow & Passenger pigeon 80. 190, 2010
58. Nile perch, east africa • DigaQs
59. 200, cichlid fish DigaQ. 1 - Global biodiversity
60. carrot grass (Parthenium), Lantana and water X – Invertebrates
hyacinth (Eicchornia) A – Crustaceans
61. African, Clarias gariepinus B – Molluscs
• BIODIVERSITY CONSERVATION C – Insects
62. Narrowly utilitarian, broadly utilitarian, ethical D – Other animals
63. 25 Y – Vertebrates
64. 25,000 A – Mammals
65. Broadly utilitarian B – Birds
66. Ex situ C – Reptiles
67. species confined to that region and not found D – Amphibians
anywhere else E – Fishes
68. 34 Z – Plants & Fungi
69. Western Ghats (Sri Lanka also take a part in A – Mosses
it), Indo-Burma and Himalaya B – Fern & allies
70. 2 C – Angiosperms
71. 14 D – Lichens
72. 90 E – Algae
73. 448 F – Fungi
74. Sarguja, Chanda and Bastar DigaQ. 2 – Species area relationship
75. Khasi and Jaintia Hills A – Species riches
76. Khasi and Jaintia Hills in Meghalaya, Aravalli B – Area
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 BIOHACK NOTES

ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
• Based on active recall and spaced repetition
• Target 360/360 in NEET Biology & 100/100 in Boards!
 • AIR POLLUTION & ITS CONTROL

1. Gov. of India passed Environment act in year _____

2. Discharge corona in an electrostatic precipitator is negatively/positively charged.
3. Electrostatic precipitator remove particulate/gaseous pollution. (NEET)
4. Most widely used way to remove particulate matter is by using ________ (NEET)
5. It removes over ___ % of particulate matter. (NEET) D
6. Scrubber removes gas ex - (1) (NEET) DigaQ. 1
7. CPCB full form - (NEET)
8. Particulate size ___ micrometer or less in diameter are causing
the greatest harm. (NEET)
9. Lead free petrol reduce pollution. T/F
10. Catalytic converters have ______-______ and _______
B
as the catalyst. (NEET)
11. Unburnt hydrocarbons are converted into ____ and ____ through
the catalytic converter. (NEET)
12. CO and NO are converted to ___ and ___ by catalytic converter.
A
13. Lead in petrol activates the catalyst. T/F
C
14. Air act included noise as an air pollution. T/F
15. Air act came into force in year _____, but was amended in year _____ (NEET)
16. PIL full form -
17. CNG full form - (NEET)
18. More stringent norms means steadily reducing ______ and ______ content of fuels.
19. Euro III norms said sulphur be controlled at _____ ppm in diesel and ____ ppm in petrol.
20. Aromatic hydrocarbon are to be contained at ____ % of the concerned fuel.
21. Goal is to reduce sulphur to ____ ppm in petrol and diesel and bring down the level to ____ %.
22. Bharat Stage IV is implemented throughout the country since ______ (month/year).

• WATER POLLUTION AND ITS CONTROL

23. Water Act was passed in year _____ (NEET)

24. Bacteria is an example of colloidal impurity. T/F
25. Ex. of suspended solids - (3)
26. A mere ___ % of impurity make domestic sewage
unfair for human use.
27. Plankton means - DigaQ. 2
28. ______ cause deterioration of water
quality and fish mortality.
29. Some bloom-forming algae are extremely
toxic to human beings and animals. T/F
30. ________ is the world's most
X B
problematic aquatic weed.
31. Terror of Bengal is name given to -
32. Heavy metals definition -
33. Copper is a heavy metal. T/F
34. _______ refers to increase in
concentration of the toxicant at C
successive trophic levels. (NEET)
35. Biomagnification occurs with pollutants Y
_____ and ______.
36. High DDT disturbs _______ metabolism A
in birds.
37. Disturbed calcium metabolism causes _______, which cause decline of bird population.
38. What is Eutrophication ? (NEET)
39. Thermal waste water may enhance growth of plants and fishes. T/F
40. FOAM full form -
41. In Arcata, over ___ (no.) hectares of marshland was made with collaboration with scientists of
_________ State University.
42. Ecosan toilets are present in ______ and _______ (places).

• SOLID WASTE

43. All solid waste can be categorised into 3 types. Name them.
44. _______ is the only solution for the treatment of e-waste.
45. _______ (name) of age ___, of city _______ invented polyblend.
46. Polyblend and bitumen increase the road life by a factor of ____
47. Khan offers rag pickers ___ rs per kg now instead of ___ rs as it was earlier.
48. _________ and _________ are the examples of
accidental leakage of radioactive material.
49. Radioactive waste should be kept ____ m deep.
 • GHG EFFECT & GLOBAL WARMING

50. GHG effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon. T/F

51. GHG absorb long/short wavelength waves from earth.
52. Without GHG effect, average temp of earth would be ____ rather than present ____
53. Arrange CFC, CO₂, N₂O and CH4 in order of their contribution in global warming. (NEET)
54. El Nino effect occurs due to rise in temperature. T/F DigaQ. 3
55. Ozone thickness is given in ______ unit.
56. Ozone hole over Antarctica develop each year between D
early/late July/August and early/late Oct/Nov. C
57. "Bad" ozone forms in the stratosphere/troposphere. (NEET)
58. Good ozone is formed in _______ layer.
59. Ozone absorbs ____ from the sun. B
A
60. Ozone is degraded nowadays by pollutant - (NEET)
61. UV rays act on CFC and release -
62. Ozone depletion is most seen in ________ region of the world.
63. Wavelength shorter than _____ are completely absorbed by earth atmosphere.
64. In human eye, _______ absorbs UV-B.
65. Snow blindness is a disease of ______ is caused due to - (NEET)
66. ________, was signed at Canada/Japan in year ______ to control emission of Ozone depleting
substance. (NEET)
67. Montreal protocol was effective in year _____
68. ______ and ______ are some of the problems that have come in the wake of the Green Revolution.
69. About ___ % of forest has been lost in tropics, while ____ % in temperate region.
70. National Forest Policy was given in year _____
71. It recommended ___ % of forest cover for plains and ___ % for the hills. (NEET)
72. Slash and burn agriculture is commonly called _____ agriculture. (NEET)
73. Jhum cultivation is seen in north-west/north-east states of India.
74. Which award GOI gives to people who show extraordinary courage to protect wildlife ?
75. Amrita Devi story occurred in year _____
76. The ______ community is known for its peaceful coexistence with nature.
77. Chipko movement is of __________ (place). (NEET)
78. Chipko movement occurred in year _____ (NEET)
79. JFM full form - (NEET)
80. JFM was introduced in decade - _____s and
year _____. (NEET)
ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES

ANSWERS
• AIR POLLUTION & ITS CONTROL 35. Mercury and DDT
1. 1986 36. Calcium
2. Negatively 37. Thinning of eggshell
3. Particulate 38. Natural aging of lake by nutrient enrichment of
4. Electrostatic precipitator its water
5. 99 39. T
6. SO₂ 40. Friends of the Arcata Marsh
7. Central Pollution Control Board 41. 60, humboldt
8. 2.5 42. Kerala and Sri lanka
9. T • SOLID WASTE
10. Platinum-palladium, rhodium 43. Biodegradable, recyclable, non-biodegradable
11. CO₂, H₂O 44. Recycling
12. CO₂, N₂ 45. Ahmed khan, 57, bangalore
13. F 46. 3
14. T 47. 6 rs per kg, 0.4 rs per kg
15. 1981, 1987 48. Three Mile Island and Chernobyl incidents
16. Public Litigation Interest 49. 500
17. Compressed Natural Gas • GLOBAL WARMING
18. Sulphur and aromatic 50. T
19. 350 ppm diesel, 150 ppm petrol 51. Long
20. 42% 52. –18°C, 15°C
21. 350, 35 53. CO₂ > CH₄ > CFC > N₂O
22. 2017 54. T
• WATER POLLUTION & CONTROL 55. Dobson
23. 1974 56. Late august, early october
24. T 57. Troposphere
25. Sand, silt and clay 58. Stratosphere
26. 0.1 59. UV
27. free-floating 60. CFC
28. Algal bloom 61. Cl
29. T 62. Antarctica
30. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes) 63. UV-B
31. Water hyacinth (Eichhornia crassipes)
32. Elements with density > 5 g/cm²
33. T
34. Biomagnification
64. Cornea • DigaQs
65. Cornea, UV-B DigaQ. 1 – Electronic precipitator (Scrubber)
66. Montreal protocol, canada, 1987 A – Dirty air
67. 1989 B – Water/lime spray
68. Waterlogging and soil salinity C – Particulate matter
69. 40, 1 D – Clean air
70. 1988 DigaQ. 2 – Effect of sewage discharge on some
71. 33, 67 important characteristics of a river
72. Jhum A – Sewage discharge X – Concentration
73. North-east B – Dissolved oxygen Y – Direction of flow
74. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife Protection Award C – BOD
75. 1731 DigaQ. 3 – Relative contribution of various
76. Bishnoi greenhouse gases to total global warming
77. Garhwal himalayas A – CO₂
78. 1974 B – CH₄
79. Joint Forest Management C – CFCs
80. 1980s, 1988 D – N₂O

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