CBSE XII | BIOLOGY

Case Study Questions (2023) Solutions

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Case Study Questions (2023) Solutions

CBSE
Class XII Biology
Case Study Questions Solutions (2023)

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS (SOLUTIONS)

Chapter 2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

1.
a) Outer layer of pollen grain (exine) is made up of a highly resistant substance called
sporopollenin. It is not degraded by any enzyme and not affected by high temperature,
strong acid or strong alkali.
b) One or more thin areas present in the exine of pollen grains are known as germ pores.
The germ pore helps in the formation of the pollen tube and the release of the male
gametes during fertilisation.
c) Germ pores are holes in the exine layer of the pollen grain where sporopollenin is
absent. During fertilisation, the germ pore aids in the development of the pollen tube
and the release of male gametes. In dicots, there are normally three germ pores and
one in monocots.
d) The pollen grain wall protects the male gametes from drying out or chemical attack,
therefore maintaining the DNA in the male gametes. This helps to retain the integrity of
genetic information that will be passed down to future generations.
2.
a) Apomixis can be defined as the replacement of the normal sexual reproduction by
asexual reproduction. Apomixis mimics sexual reproduction without fertilization. The
seed of the plant is developed without fertilisation. It can be observed in blackberries,
mat grass, hawk weeds and many other.
b) In recurrent agamospermy, all the cells of embryo sac are diploid as it is formed
directly either from a nuclear cell or diploid megaspore mother cell.
c) Formation of embryo directly from diploid egg without fertilisation is called diploid
parthenogenesis. It is found in Rubus, apple, Poa.
d) Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is called as
apospory.

Chapter 3: Human Reproduction

1.
a) During menstrual phase, the endometrium breaks down and menstruation begins.
b) Proliferative phase extends for about 10-12 days usually from day 6th to 13th in a 28-
day cycle.
c) During the secretory phase, after the release of the egg, the empty Graafian follicle
transforms into corpus luteum. The Corpus luteum releases the hormone progesterone
which helps in the preparation of the uterus for pregnancy and maintains the
endometrium for implantation.
d) During ovulatory phase, both LH and FSH attain a peak level.

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2.
a) FSH stimulates the growth of Graafian follicles, development of egg oocyte within the
follicles to form secondary oocyte. It also stimulates the formation of estrogen.
b) LH induces rupture of mature Graafian follicle and thereby release secondary oocyte.
c) The smaller cell is called the first polar body, and the larger cell is referred to as the
secondary oocyte. During meiosis II, a similar unequal cytokinesis takes place. Most of
the cytoplasm is retained by the mature egg (ovum), and a second polar body receives
little more than a haploid nucleus.
d) LH helps in release of secondary oocyte from Graafian follicle and also stimulates
corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.

Chapter 4: Reproductive Health

1.
a) MTP is comparatively safe upto 12 weeks of pregnancy. It becomes riskier after the
first trimester period of pregnancy as the fetus becomes intimately associated with the
maternal tissues.
b) MTP helps to get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to casual unprotected intercourse or
where pregnancy can be harmful to either mother or foetus.
c) Child detected with congenital heart disease can be aborted up to 28th week of
pregnancy under the guidance of family physician and the gynecologist.
d) MTPs are safe during first trimester of pregnancy. After first trimester, foetus become
intimately associated with the maternal tissues.
2.
a) Sahil is suffering from gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease caused by bacterium,
Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
b) Trichomoniasis, chancroid and genital warts are STDs caused by protozoa, bacteria and
virus. So, chancroid is the STD that is caused by bacteria.
c) Gonorrhea can be cured through use of appropriate antibiotics like penicillin and
ampicillin.
d) A Gram stain of urethral discharge is a test used to identify bacteria in fluid from the
tube that drains urine from the bladder (urethra) which is a rapid and sensitive
screening test for Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1.
a) 'When two pairs of traits are mixed in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of characters is
independent of the other pair of characters,' this explains the Mendel's law of
independent assortment. This law can be derived using dihybrid cross, but Prashant
only used one set of traits in his experiment.
b) Instead of self-crossing, a test cross involves crossing an organism with a dominant
phenotype whose genotype is to be determined with the recessive parent. The
offspring of such a hybrid are simply analysed in order to predict the genotype of the

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test organism. A monohybrid cross's normal test cross ratio is 1:1, and a dihybrid
cross's normal test cross ratio is 1:1:1:1.
c) A recessive factor or allele is a factor of an allelic or allelomorphic pair that is unable to
show its impact in the presence of its opposing factor in a heterozygote, such as the
allele 't' in hybrid tall pea plant Tt. The effect of a recessive component is only known
when it is present in its pure or homozygous form, such as tt in dwarf pea plants.
d) One of the two components or alleles representing the alternate features of a character
is dominant in the first filial generation or heterozygous people and expresses itself in
the hybrid or F1 generation. The other component or allele is recessive and has no
influence in the heterozygous person.

2.
a) The ability of a gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is known as pleiotropy and the
genes are called pleiotropic gene.
b) Pleiotropy refers to a gene's ability to have many phenotypic impacts since it influences
multiple features at the same time. Pleiotropy is manifested in humans by disorders
such as sickle cell anaemia and phenylketonuria.
c) Kernel colour in wheat, height and skin colour in human beings are examples of
polygenic inheritance i.e inheritance controlled by three or more genes. In Drosophila,
white eye mutation pleiotropic effect, it causes depigmentation in many parts of the
body.
d) It is not necessary for all features to be equally influenced in various phenotypic effects.
A gene can occasionally induce a lot of linked alterations. It can also happen as a result of
the gene's effect on two or more interconnected metabolic pathways.

Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1.
a) The two subunits of ribosomes come together at the time of protein formation. This
phenomenon is called association for which ion, Mg2+ is essential for it.
b) Nine initiation factors are required in eukaryotes for initiation reactions such as elf2,
elf3, elf1, elf4A, elf4B, ELF4C, elf4D, elf5 and elf6.
c) An mRNA molecule has some additional sequences that are not translated and are
called untranslated regions (UTR). The UTRs are present at both 5’end and at 3’ end.
They are required for efficient translation process.
d) The enzyme that helps in combining amino acid to its particular tRNA is amino-acyl
tRNA synthetase, also called, aa-activating enzyme.

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2.
a) tRNA is also referred to as soluble RNA (sRNA) because it cannot be easily separated
even by ultracentrifugation technique.
b) During protein synthesis, tRNA transports a specific type of amino acid from the CCA
end to the ribosome. It correctly places the appropriate amino acid in the sequence and
translates the coded message of mRNA in terms of amino acids.
c) Only DNA has the double helix structure. Ribose is only found in mRNA; deoxyribose is
contained in DNA. Thymine is only found in DNA; uracil takes its place in mRNA. Only
the sugar-phosphate backbone is shared by both.
d) Messenger RNA (mRNA) carries codes from the DNA in the nucleus to the sites of
protein synthesis in the cytoplasm (ribosomes). Once an mRNA has been produced, by
transcription and processing the information present in its nucleotide sequence is used
to synthesize a protein.

Chapter 7: Evolution
1.
a) Two characteristic features were- body is covered with hair and the skin is made up of
sweat and sebaceous glands.
b) Due to continental drift, when South America joined North America, American animals
were overridden by North American fauna. Due to the same continental drift pouched
mammals of Australia survived because of lack of competition form any other
mammal.
c) Geographic isolation accounts for the presence of similar endemic species in South
America and Australia (continental separation). Animals live in a wide range of
environments. The continuous or discontinuous distribution of a species or group of
animals is determined by a variety of factors such as evolutionary, climatic, physical, or
biological boundaries, and so on. When Australia and South America separated, the
organisms did as well, and evolved independently on their respective continents.
d) Around 200 million years ago, the supercontinent Pangea split into Laurasia (the
northern continent) and Gondwana (the southern continent). Later, as Laurasia and
Gondwana divided to form separate continents, the marsupials were separated as well.
One group became isolated on an Australian island, while the other group became
isolated in South America. Because marsupials evolved in both of these continents in
tandem, this pattern of evolution is known as parallel evolution.

2.
a) The key variables that influence genetic equilibrium and create population variability
include mutations, recombination during sexual reproduction, genetic drift, gene
migration or gene flow, and natural selection.
b) p2 represents individuals that are homozygous dominant.
c) Genetic drift can lead to the removal of certain alleles from the population. This leads
to modification of allele frequency in the gene pool. So, genetic drift should not occur in
order to maintain the equilibrium.
d) The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium has a set of conditions that must be met in order for
the population to have unchanging gene pool frequencies. There must be random
mating, no mutation, no migration, no natural selection, and a large sample size. It is
not necessary for the population to be at carrying capacity.

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Chapter 8: Human Health and Disease

1.
a) Carcinogen in tobacco smoke include polynuclear aromatic hydrocarbons, β-
napthylamine, benzopyrene, nitrosamines, hydrazine etc.
b) CT scan, sputum cytology and biopsy of lung tissue are the ways by which lung cancer
be diagnosed. But VT scan is the most widely used technique for diagnosis.
c) Surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy can be used to treat lung cancer.
Chemotherapy entails the delivery of anti-cancer medications that kill cancer cells.
Monoclonal antibodies conjugated to radioisotopes can detect cancer-specific antigens
and thus cancer.
d) Lung cancer if not treated at an early stage can spread to other initial organs of the
body. Cancer cell have uncontrolled proliferation and ability to invade new sites.
Cancer cells loses the ability of contact inhibition and so proliferate in an uncontrolled
manner. They detach from their source organ and invade fresh sites (metastasis).

2.
a) P represents IgG and Q represents IgM.
b) IgG is the only class of antibody to cross the placenta from mother to foetus.
c) Vaccine is a preparation or extract of an inactivated/attenuated (weakened) pathogen
of a disease which on inoculation into a healthy person provides immunity by inducing
antibodies production.
d) The immune system produces antibodies which stay in the blood. Memory
lymphocytes remain in the body to fight off any future infection with the same
pathogen. The dead pathogen stays in the body and constantly stimulates the immune
system.

Chapter 10: Microbes in Human Welfare

1.
a) The fermentation rate of the yeast can be calculated by measuring the volume of CO2
and dividing it by the amount of time it took for that volume to form.
b) The chemicals that are produced at the time of alcoholic fermentation with the change
of nutrient media, pH and aeration are called byproducts. The byproducts that are
produced are phenylethanol, amyl alcohol and glycerol.
c) The crushed food mixed with hot water for obtaining malt is called mash. Mashing is
the process of combining a mix of ground grains – typically malted barley with
supplementary grains such as corn, sorghum, rye, or wheat at a temperature between
45℃- 72℃.
d) Yeast are facultatively anaerobic, which implies they can only ferment under anaerobic
circumstances. The yeast will undergo aerobic metabolism in the presence of O2.
Because the roommate left the bucket open to the air, the yeast will have constant
access to O2. Through electron transport in the mitochondria, yeast will replenish their
NAD+ with O2. The fermentation pathway produces alcohol and CO2 (which causes
carbonation) and happens significantly only in the absence of O2.

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2.
a) Source of sample C is primary effluent.
b) Sample C and D have large number of pathogenic microbes since the value of BOD is
high. High BOD indicates a high level of microbial pollution. The greater the BOD, the
more rapidly oxygen is depleted in the stream. This means less oxygen is available to
higher forms of aquatic life. The consequences of high BOD are the same as those for
low dissolved oxygen: aquatic organisms become stressed, suffocate, and die.
c) Sewage discharge contains organic matter, when the sewage is discharged into a water
body, the bacteria present in the water decompose the organic matter in the sewage
and for this, large amount of dissolved oxygen is consumed by the bacteria. This results
in the increase of BOD. It will also result in decrease in level of dissolved oxygen in
water. Therefore, untreated sewage when discharged directly into water bodies cause
massive pollution and an increase in BOD of the water bodies leading to decrease in
level of dissolved oxygen.
d) Sample D has BOD level of 400 mg/L out of the rest of the samples. High BOD levels are
caused by high consumption of dissolved oxygen by microorganisms. It indicates that
the water is highly polluted with organic matter and aerobic microorganisms.

Chapter 11: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

1.
a) DNA fingerprinting was the method that was used to identify the criminal. DNA
fingerprinting uses the fingerprints sample in solving crime and legal disputes. Also it
is helpful in establishing identity of criminal and parents.
b) Subsequently, the DNA polymerase synthesizes a new DNA strand complementary to
the target by extending the primer. The polymerase used should be heat stable to
tolerate the high temperature denaturation steps of all reaction cycles. Such an enzyme
can be isolated from thermophilic bacteria like Thermus aquaticus.
c) The optimal temperature for Taq polymerase to construct the complementary strand
is 720 degrees Celsius. It binds to the primer and then sequentially adds DNA bases to
the single strand in the 5' to 3' direction. As a result, a new strand of DNA and a double-
stranded DNA molecule are formed.
d)

Denaturation Annealing Extension

2.
a) All the three types of restriction endonucleases require Mg2+ ions for restriction.
b) Restriction endonucleases was isolated for the first time by W. Arber in bacterial cell. A
bacterium uses a restriction enzyme to defend against bacterial viruses called
bacteriophages, or phages.

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c) Only Type II restriction enzymes are used in gene manipulation because: no ATP is
required for cleaving action and also it makes cleavage or cut in both the strands of
DNA molecule.
d) Restriction enzymes are also called "molecular scissors" as they cleave DNA at or near
specific recognition sequences known as restriction sites. These enzymes make one
incision on each of the two strands of DNA and are also called restriction
endonucleases.

3.
a) Taq polymerase is a thermostable DNA polymerase named after the thermophilic
bacteria Thermus aquaticus, which Chien et al. discovered in 1976. Taq Pol, or simply
Taq, is a common abbreviation.
b) A cDNA strand is formed on the separated single stranded DNA template with the help
of DNA polymerase.
c) The cDNA formation involves the alkaline denaturation of the mRNA -cDNA hybrid.
The double stranded DNA molecule formed after the activity of reverse transcriptase is
treated with alkali to digest mRNA.
d) To create a cDNA copy of the mRNA, reverse transcriptase is utilised. PCR is then used
to amplify the cDNA sample. This produces several copies of cDNA devoid of introns.
Reverse transcription followed by PCR enables for the cloning of genes beginning with
messenger RNA and therefore identifying the expressed exons of a eukaryotic gene.

Chapter 12: Biotechnology and its Applications

1.
a) TDNA stands for transfer DNA. Transfer DNA is the transferred DNA of Ti-plasmid of
some species of bacteria.
b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens infects all broad-leaved agricultural crops. It does not
infect cereals.
c) T-DNA is a portion of Ti-plasmid introduced into plant cell DNA. This T-DNA with
desired DNA spliced into it is introduced into the host plant's chromosomes, where it
generates copies of itself by randomly migrating from one chromosomal place to
another. However, it no longer generates tumours.
d) Agrobacterium mediated gene transfer in plants allows relatively large segment of
DNA, transfer of DNA with defined ends and minimal rearrangement. Also, it provides
high quality and fertility in transgenic plants.

2.
a) A represents polypeptide chain C which is removed prior to insulin formation.
b) The fermenter's optimal temperature, pH, oxygen, and nutrition conditions allow the
bacteria expressing the insulin gene to proliferate swiftly and in great quantities.
c) Each restriction enzyme generates distinct sticky ends. When the same enzyme is used
on both bacterial and human DNA, complementary sticky ends are produced that can
bond together via complementary base pairing. The human insulin gene could then be
introduced into the plasmid.

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d) DNA ligase creates a continuous double-stranded DNA loop by forming strong

hydrogen bonds between the DNA bases on the human insulin gene and the bacterial
plasmid. The human insulin gene would not be securely incorporated into the plasmid
without DNA ligase, despite its ability to conduct complementary base pairing with the
bacterial DNA at the sticky ends. As a result, the resulting E. coli bacteria would be
given plasmids lacking the human insulin gene.

Chapter 13: Organisms and Populations

1.
a) In the above figure, pyramid B represents expanding population in which it shows a
larger number of population in the younger age groups, usually with each age group
smaller in size or proportion than the one preceding it.
b) Population density is the number of individuals per unit geographic area, for example,
number per square meter, per hectare, or per square kilometer.
c) Pyramid A represents nearly stable population. A stable population has an unchanging
age structure and a constant exponential growth rate. Pyramid B represents rapidly
growing population. It refers to the aggressive increase of population brought about by
increased birth rates and decreased death rates.
d) A population with large number of older individuals than younger ones is likely to
decline since older individuals do not take part in reproduction.

2.
a) Calotropis produce highly poisonous cardiac glycosides which is why no cattle or goats
grazing on them.
b) Many plants produce and store chemicals which make herbivores sick when they are
eaten.
c) The prickly pear cactus introduced into Australia caused havoc by spreading rapidly
into millions of hectares of land. When certain exotic species are introduced into a
geographical area, they tend to become invasive and start spreading fast because of the
absence of the natural predators. A cactus feeding moth from its natural habitat was
introduced. The cactus feeding predator moth successfully brought the cactus under
control. Hence, predators keep the prey population under control.
d) Plants increase predation of herbivores by luring and keeping predators on a plant
with food rewards, shelters from harsh conditions, or chemicals signaling prey
availability.

Chapter 14: Ecosystem

1.
a) Sere refers to a series of ecological communities formed in ecological succession.
b) Ecological succession is the gradual change in the species composition of a given area
which can be predicted. During an ecological succession, some species colonize and
grow while other species decline or disappear.

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c) A sere is a continuously shifting sequence of settlements in a particular area. When the

number of species increases, the diversity of species changes, and the overall biomass
increases, the seral stages become sequential.
d) During succession, some species colonies area and their population become more
numerous, whereas, the population of other species declines and even disappears.

2.
a) Detritus is newly deposited dead or decaying organic matter that has accumulated
above or below ground. Decomposition is the breakdown of complex organic materials
in trash into simple inorganic compounds such as carbon dioxide, water, and so on. As
a result, debris serves as a raw material for decomposition.
b) Leaching is a process in which water-soluble inorganic nutrients percolate into the soil
horizon and get precipitated as unavailable salts. As water moves over the surface of
the Earth, it dissolves substances when it comes in contact with solid matrices such as
rocks, soil, soil nutrients, minerals, metals, and artificial additives such as fertilizers
and pesticides.
c) The structure of basophilic and acidophilic bacteria is affected by soil pH. Aerobic
processes occur when there is oxygen present, resulting in complete destruction of a
substance, whereas anaerobic processes occur when there is no oxygen present,
resulting in incomplete decomposition of a substance. Bacteria cannot grow to their
full potential at higher temperatures, while stress-tolerant microbes thrive at both low
and high temperatures.
d) Effect of Oxygen: Detritus breakdown is primarily an oxygen-required process. Aerobic
organisms make up the majority of decomposers (bacteria and fungus). While acting
on dead organic matter, they require oxygen for cellular processes.
Effect of chemical composition: If the detritus contains lignin and chitin, the pace of
decomposition is slowed. It is faster if the debris contains nitrogen and water-soluble
compounds such as carbohydrates.

Chapter 15: Biodiversity and Conservation

1.
a) It is used to refer to the taxa with the highest risk of extinction
b) Berberis nilghiriensis is a critically endangered species of plant. Critically endangered
taxa are those that are facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild and could
become extinct at any time in the near future.
c) Excessive exploitation of a species, whether a plant or animal reduces size of its
population so that it become vulnerable to extinction. Dodo, passenger pigeon, three
subspecies of tiger and Steller’s Sea cow have become extinct in the las 500 years due
to over exploitation by humans.
d) The following criteria need to be used in categorizing a species as threatened:
Declination in the number of species at a distressing rate
Destruction and modification of their habitat
Increasing activities of poachers

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2.
a) Offsite collections can be used to restock depleted populations, reintroduce species in
the wild and restore degraded habitats.
b) Wetlands are called Ramsar sites. They are low lying marshy areas which get filled up
during rains due to run-off and overflow from other water bodies. Therefore, they are
an in-situ conservation.
c) In case of in-situ conservation procedure, species population recovers in natural
environment. In ex-situ conservation, offspring produced in captive breeding are
released in natural habitat for acclimatization.
d) The on-site or the protection and conservation of species in their natural habitat is
called in-situ conservation. In this, we conserve and protect the whole ecosystem for
the protection of endangered species.

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