Deck, Operational, Container Vessel

201) What is the shortest distance between two points on the surface of the earth?
A. Great Circle.
B. Rhumb line.
C. Small circle.
D. Composite great circle.

202) As per the IMDG Code, Readily Combustible Fibres are defined as:
A. Fibres, powdered, granular, or pasty substances which are dangerous if easily
ignited by brief contact with an ignition source and if the flame spreads rapidly.
B. Fibres, powdered, granular, or pasty substances that are capable of self-heating.
C. Any solid that is capable of self-ignition.
D. A substance that will heat up and ignite due to the ignition of another substance.

203) The transmitting receiving method, when both stations can transmit and receive at the
same time is called:
A. Duplex.
B. Simplex.
C. Semi-duplex.
D. None of the mentioned.

204) Abdominal Thrust is the name on a technique which involves applying a series of
thrusts to the upper abdomen in an attempt to force air out of a choking casualty’s lungs.
How to perform this technique?
A. Stand behind the casualty. Clench your fist with the thumb inwards in the center of
upper abdomen. Grasp your fist with your other hand and pull quickly inwards.
B. Remove the obstruction and restore normal breathing.
C. Lay casualty on a hard surface, e. g. deck, and press firmly and rapidly on the
middle of the lower half of the breast bone.
D. Let the casualty grab a list and hang up right down for a period of minimum 5
minutes.

205) What would you call the wreckage of a yacht floating in the sea?
A. Flotsam.
B. Pollution.
C. Garbage.
D. Debris.
206) What signal, if any, is specified in SOLAS as the “Abandon ship” signal?
A. 6 short blasts followed by 1 long blast.
B. 7 short blasts followed by 1 long blast.
C. 4 long blasts.
D. The “Abandon ship” signal is not specified, only the general emergency alarm signal
is stated.

207) The first tier of under-deck containers, on a non-cellular container vessel, are usually
loaded:
A. Onto dunnage laid fore and aft over the tank top.
B. Onto dunnage laid athwartships over the tank top.
C. Directly onto the tank top.
D. Onto dunnage laid directly under the container’s bottom rails.
208) Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to IMDG Class 2 cargoes?
A. These goods need to be stowed in a protected location.
B. These goods require protection from heat.
C. These goods require protection against the accumulation of dangerous vapours.
D. These goods require protection against moisture.

209) Welding and burning are among the factors which give the highest risk of fire on board
ships. Precaution has to be taken to avoid this risk. Which of the following safety rules may
be regarded as the most important?
A. The welder shall have been instructed in the use of the ship’s welding plant.
B. Only use electrodes from a well-known manufacturer.
C. Only holders of welding certificates shall be allowed to carry out welding on board
ships.
D. Electric welding plants shall be controlled by a responsible engineer before use.

210) Distress MF communications should normally be operated:

A. In J3E mode – on simplex basis.
B. In J3E mode – on duplex basis.
C. In G3E mode – on duplex basis.
D. In G3E mode – on simplex basis.

211) Which of the following answers would most appropriately describe shell plating damage
to the vessel?
A. My vessel has sustained damage to shell plating below the waterline in way of No. 3
cargo hold, starboard side.
B. My vessel has sustained damage to shell plating in way of No. 3 cargo hold.
C. My vessel has sustained damage to shell plating below the waterline.
D. My vessel has sustained damage to shell plating above the waterline.
212) When a ships derrick or crane lifts a weight off the deck of a ship, from which position
can the centre of gravity of the weight be considered to act?
A. From the head of the derrick or crane.
B. From the centre of the weight lifted.
C. From the position on the deck from which the weight was lifted.
D. From a position on the deck at the base of the derrick or crane.

213) When fully loaded, a lifeboat should have a sufficient strength to withstand a drop into
the water from a height of:
A. Not less than 3,0 metres.
B. Not less than 1,5 metres.
C. Not less than 0,5 metres.
D. Not less than one third of the distance from the stowage position of the lifeboat to the
waterline in the lightest seagoing condition.

214) What does this signal hoist mean?

A. I require immediate assistance.
B. Do you require assistance?
C. Stand by to assist me.
D. I require medical assistance.

215) According to Rule 24 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions and the
illustrated lights, how long is the tow likely to be?
A. It exceeds 200 metres.
B. At least 100 metres
C. It is more than 50 metres but less than 200 metres.
D. It is less than 200 metres.

216) To stop a mooring line paying out, it is possible to set the motor to “heave” as well as
having the winch brake fully on. Is this a good idea or can it cause problems?
A. All the listed alternatives.
B. The increased braking power of the winch can exceed the breaking strength of the
line.
C. Damage to the winch by distorting the shaft.
D. Strain on the fairleads and rollers in use in excess of their Safe Working Load.
217) How much lifeboat capacity should be provided on a conventional cargo ship of more
than 85 metres in length?
A. 100 % of the ship’s complement on each side.
B. 150 % of the ship’s complement on each side.
C. 125 % of the ship’s complement on each side.
D. 50 % of the ship’s complement on each side.

218) The traffic list of a coast-station is a list of:

A. Call-signs of ships for which a radio-telephone call, a telegram or another call is
intended.
B. Names of ships which, on behalf of safety at sea, are being routed by a traffic control
system.
C. Name of ship’s scheduled for berthing.
D. Pertinent navigational and weather information.

219) Super-refraction effects the performance of some bridge devices on the vessel. What
should the bridge watchkeeper look out for?
A. Abnormal ranges of VHF radio and very long range radar detection.
B. The radar will be show abnormal sea clutter as the pulse is trapped in an
atmospheric layer.
C. Satellite communications will be severely effected.
D. The GPS may give errors of position because of interference of incoming signals
from the satellites.

220) How often shall each member of the crew participate in an “abandon ship”-drill?
A. Once every month.
B. Once every week.
C. Once every 6 months.
D. Once a year.

221) Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
A. When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s) listed in the
IMDG Code.
B. When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.
C. When declared as a non-hazardous chemical.
D. When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff.
222) What would indicate the onset of Parametric Rolling?
A. When the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship.
B. When twice the wave encounter period approaches the natural roll period of the ship.
C. When wave heights experienced from the bows exceed 6 meters.
D. IT When wave heights experienced from either quarter exceed 6 meters.

223) Why is it important to have good a relationship between the crew on board a vessel?
A. It leads to better work performance and positive atmosphere among the crew.
B. It encourages crew to extend their contract.
C. Crew comes to know each others problems.
D. It will prevent accidents from happening.

224) For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual.
B. The Stability Manual.
C. The Code for the Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing.
D. The company’s ISM handbook.

225) When planning the loading containers, the planning officer must refer to:
A. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
B. MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.
C. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS).
D. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.

226) What does the abbreviation STCW stand for?

A. The International Convention on Standards of Training, Certification and
Watchkeeping of Seafarers.
B. The International Convention of Ship’s Trading, Chartering and Waybills.
C. The International Shipowners, Transport and Cargo Work Convention.
D. Seafarer’s Training and Competence of Watchkeepers.

227) What do you do after receiving a VHF DSC DISTRESS call?

A. You set watch on VHF channel 16.
B. You set watch on channel 13.
C. You send immediatly a DSC DISTRESS RELAY call.
D. You send immediatly a DSC DISTRESS ACKNOWLEDGEMENT call.
228) Give the meaning of the following symbol:
A. Rocket parachute flares.
B. Survival craft distress pyrotechnic signals.
C. Line throwing appliance.
D. Parachute landing area.

229) A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping from it. You
should:
A. Reject the container.
B. Ensure that the container is stowed on deck.
C. Ensure that the container is stowed below deck.
D. Load the container and note protest.

230) The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that:
A. They may contain flammable cargo residue.
B. They may not be declared as being empty.
C. They are prone to collapse.
D. They could explode if their vents are closed.

231) One particular group of hazardous goods that is highlighted by the IMDG Code as
potentially being the most dangerous for carriage is:
A. Organic peroxides.
B. Toxic substances.
C. Liquefied gases.
D. Infectious substances.

232) The portable walkie talkies required to be carried by GMDSS regulations should have
which channels as a minimum?
A. Channels 6, 13 & 16.
B. Channels 6 & 16.
C. Channel 16 only.
D. Channels 13 & 16.

233) What is the disadvantage of using High Tensile Steel (HTS) in ship construction?
A. Enhanced vibration in HTS areas.
B. Low elasticity.
C. Diminished cargo carrying capacity.
D. Failure without warning.
E. I don’t know.
234) If a tank container of liquid ammonia is engulfed in fire, it is recommended:
A. To restrict ventilation.
B. To allow ventilation.
C. Not to use water to cool the container.
D. Not to use dry chemical to extinguish the fire.
E. I don’t know.

235) What colour flare is used to signal a safe landing place for small boats?
A. Green.
B. White.
C. Blue.
D. Yellow.

236) According to Rule 35 of the International Regulations for Preventing Collisions what
sound signal is made by a vessel not under command when in or near an area of restricted
visibility?
A. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more that 2
minutes.
B. One prolonged blast, followed by two short blasts, at intervals of not more that 1
minute.
C. One prolonged blast at intervals at not more than 2 minutes.
D. Two prolonged blasts, followed by one short blast, at intervals of not more than 2
minutes.
E. I don’t know.

237) Containerised scrap metal fire is best extinguished by:

A. Smothering.
B. Allowing cargo to smoulder.
C. Cooling with freshwater.
D. Dousing with seawater.
E. I don’t know.

238) On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:

A. The carriage of non-hazardous liquids, in bulk.
B. The carriage of hazardous liquids, in bulk.
C. The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.
D. The carriage of liquid cargoes that do not have a Proper Shipping Name.
239) Testing a SART is permitted:
A. Only at sea, outside territorial waters.
B. Only in a port or harbour.
C. Only in the workshop.
D. At sea, outside territorial waters, and in port or harbour.

240) What is (are) the basic component(s) of a Fire detection system?

A. All the alternatives mentioned.
B. The power supply.
C. The control unit.
D. The detector heads.

241) Which option correctly completes the following statement? An ECDIS alert:
A. Should never be ignored but must be investigated.
B. Only need to be acknowledged.
C. Is the responsibility of the Master alone.
D. I don’t know.

242) How can the error of the Gyro compass be determined?

A. By taking a transit bearing with the gyro compass of two prominent fixed shore
objects and comparing it with the bearing of the same objects on the chart.
B. By using any of the methods in the suggested answers.
C. By comparing the course readout on the GPS with the gyro course steered.
D. I don’t know.

243) The display of the DSC-controller on board is showing the following lines: TX call:
Selectiveto: 02114200; Category: RoutineUSB: telephony; DSC TX 2 189,5 kHz save > send
<. This DSC-message must be transmitted in the mode:
A. J3E.
B. G3E.
C. F1B.
D. H3E.

244) The purpose of the dovetail foundation on container vessel is:

A. Act as a sliding base for twistlocks.
B. To secure double stacking cones.
C. To lock adjacent containers together .
D. To secure a single stacking cone.
245) Sodium, when carried in containers, upon coming in contact with water under normal
atmospheric conditions will:
A. Self-ignite.
B. Decompose.
C. Implode.
D. Explode.

246) What material should boiler suits be made of?

A. Cotton.
B. Wool.
C. Nylon.
D. Asbestos.

247) Which of the following statements is the most accurate in relation to the safety depth
contour setting on an ECDIS?
A. The safety depth contour has to be set at a value to reflect the vessel’s draught.
B. The safety depth contour value is best set at a high value.
C. The safety depth contour value is best set at a low value.
D. The safety depth contour value has no effect on ECDIS operation.

248) At the design phase of a container ship, the loss of strength resulting from the large
deck openings are compensated by:
A. Large deck beams longitudinally and athwartships at the sides and ends of hatches.
B. Additional longitudinal bulkheads.
C. Additional transverse bulkheads.
D. Large doubling plates at the hatch corners.

249) The main movements experienced by a container ship, which will create the largest
forces exerted on the container frames and lashings, are:
A. Rolling, Pitching and Heaving.
B. Rolling, Heaving and Swaying.
C. Surging, Yawing and Rolling.
D. Rolling, Swaying and Yawing.

250) What device can be used by a tug to get a line aboard a disabled vessel in bad
weather, when it is dangerous for the tug to get too close?
A. A rocket line.
B. A missile line.
C. A heaving line.
D. A cannon line.
251) The safety message announces that a station:
A. Will relay a message concerning an important navigational or meteorological
warning.
B. Is in serious and imminent danger and needs immediate assistance.
C. Is going to be under repairs.
D. I don’t know.

252) The operating mode of a pyrotechnic signal depends essentially on:

A. Instructions or diagrams printed on its casing by the manufacturer.
B. A definite standard process.
C. The fact that the user is on board a liferaft, a lifeboat or ship.
D. The weather conditions of the moment.

253) Which of the following precautions should be taken when work is to be carried out on a
radar transceiver unit?
A. A sign needs to be attached to all the radars warning the bridge officers of repairs
and the fact the radars are “Not to be Used”.
B. Only the electrical breaker for the associated scanner motor need to be pulled.
C. A “Not to be Used” sign on all radars and breakers pulled for the radar system to be
worked on.
D. Only the electrical breakers for the radar undergoing repair needs to be removed,
allowing the ship to retain a workable radar.

254) If vessel has been advised of the tendency of a particular cargo on a flat-rack to deform
or compact during voyage, you would:
A. Ensure that the cargo is secured as per shipper’s instructions.
B. Slacken the cargo securing gear during voyage to allow for movement.
C. Accept the cargo as it is and clause the mate’s receipt accordingly.
D. Reject the cargo.

255) The person in charge of a lifeboat:

A. All the options are correct.
B. Must check that the crew under his command are acquainted with their duties.
C. Must have a list of the survival craft crew.
D. Must check that the second in command has also a list of the lifeboat crew.

256) Declaring a dangerous cargo as Class 3 (Sub risk Class 6) would indicate that:
A. The main hazard is flammability and the secondary hazard toxicity.
B. The main hazard is toxicity and the secondary hazard flammability.
C. The main hazards are flammability and toxicity.
D. The secondary hazards are flammability and toxicity.
257) A vessel has a right-handed fixed pitch propeller, what should happen to its heading, if
the propeller was put full astern?
A. The bow should swing to starboard.
B. The bow will remain steady.
C. The bow should swing to port.
D. The vessel will slow down.

258) Which statement about IED’s is true?

A. All IED’s have four common components.
B. All IED’s look alike.
C. IED’s don’t cause serious damage.
D. IED’s are difficult to manufacture.

259) MF radio signals propagate mainly:

A. Along the curvature of the earth.
B. In a straight line.
C. Between the earth and satellites.
D. Through hops between ionised layers and the earth.

260) The best way to ensure you get the equipment you need is to:
A. Determine your needs and do some research.
B. Buy the newest models.
C. Buy the most expensive equipment on the market.
D. Buy what everyone else is buying.

261) What is the correct procedure to extinguish a soot fire in the exhaust boiler?
A. Reduce speed and use soot blowers if some are fitted.
B. Stop the engine and let the fire burn out by itself.
C. Increase speed or continue full speed.
D. Stop the engine and use the CO2 fixed fire-extinguishing system.

262) The best way to prevent stowaways from boarding your ship is to:
A. Seal spaces that are not in use while in port, and perform a search of the ship before
leaving.
B. Conduct routine, but irregular searches of the ship.
C. Search the ship when you arrive at port and again just after leaving.
D. Conduct a Nominated Officers search.
263) For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
A. A Classification Society.
B. The Port State where vessel is currently loading.
C. IT Department of Ship owner.
D. Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.

264) A deep draught vessel sailing in a very narrow channel can develop a sudden sheer as
it slows down. What could be the cause of this?
A. The large volume of water dragged behind the vessel continues to move forward and
cause a strong turning moment on the stern of the vessel.
B. The shallow water reduces the effectiveness of the rudder and when the vessel stops
any applied rudder will become suddenly more effective.
C. The vessel stopping shifts the pivot point and creates a turning moment and results
in the ship swinging towards the bank.
D. I don’t know.

265) If the wind speed on a vessel doubles, by approximately how much will the force from it
rise?
A. The force will be Quadrupled.
B. The force will be Tripled.
C. The force will be Quintupled.
D. The force will be Doubled.

266) A wire aerial for an MF/HF-transmitter must be suspended between isolators:

A. To prevent contact with earth.
B. To save energy.
C. To make the way for aerial currents as long as possible.
D. To prevent burns when touching the aerial.

267) Under GMDSS rules the trading area A3 can be considered to be:
A. Within coverage of the INMARSAT system.
B. Within VHF range.
C. Within MF range.
D. Polar region.
268) What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
A. Double stacking cones or link plates.
B. Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.
C. Single stacking cones.
D. Twistlocks.

269) Which one of the listed requirements regarding the stowage of a survival craft
corresponds to present SOLAS regulations? Each survival craft shall be stowed:
A. In a secure and sheltered position and protected from damage by fire or explosion.
B. In a state of readiness so that two crew-members can prepare for embarkation and
launching in less than 15 minutes.
C. On the starboard side of the ship.
D. Wherever space is available.

270) The word RADIO is spelled conform the international phonetic alphabet:
A. Romeo, Alfa, Delta, India, Oscar.
B. Radio, Alfa, Delta, India, Oscar.
C. Romeo, Alpha, Delta, India, October.
D. Romeo, Atlanta, Delta, India, October.

271) In open water, you see a collision between two other ships. What immediate action
should you take?
A. Nothing, proceed on passage unless they are in distress.
B. Send out a distress relay message.
C. Slow down and standby to see if any assistance is required.
D. Contact one or both vessels involved in the incident and offer assistance.

272) During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a container
vessel would be most concerned with:
A. The added weight of icing on container stacks, leading to loss of GM.
B. The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of navigation.
C. Temperature differential between air and seawater, leading to shell plating damage.
D. I don’t know.

273) A MMSI number consist of:

A. 9 digits.
B. 6 digits.
C. 10 digits.
D. 4 digits.
274) You are on board a ship which is not specially fitted for navigation in cold regions. At
what ambient temperature should the engine of the lifeboat start within less than 2 minutes?
A. Until -15 °C.
B. Until -3 °C.
C. Until 0 °C.
D. Until -5 °C.

275) When manoeuvring a conventional ship, if the engine is stopped with the rudder hard
over what happens to the rudder turning force?
A. It is reduced because of the reduced water acting on the rudder.
B. Anything might happen as it depends upon the type of specialised rudder fitted.
C. It may increase due to a better laminar flow on the rudder.
D. It stays the same as the rudder angle is unchanged.

276) Who is responsible for ensuring your ship completes a security assessment?
A. Company Security Officer.
B. Ship Security Officer.
C. Flag State Administration.
D. Recognized Security Organization.

277) The capacity of a battery is expressed in:

A. Ampere × hours.
B. Volt × hours.
C. Volt × amperes.
D. Watt × hours.

278) As per the IMDG Code, “Marine Pollutant” is defined as:

A. A substance which, because of its tendency to degrade in seafood, or because of its
hazard potential to the aquatic environment is subject to the provisions of Annex I of
MARPOL, as amended, and carried by sea accordingly.
B. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Chapter V of SOLAS 1974 as
amended.
C. Any substance which is deemed hazardous to the marine environment.
D. A substance which is subject to the provisions of Annex III of MARPOL.
279) Poster or sign shall be provided on or in the vicinity of survival craft and their launching
controls. Which one of the following requirements has to be included?
A. Give relevant instructions and warnings.
B. Give information on survival craft capacity.
C. Give an overview of location of all lifesaving appliances.
D. Give information on survival craft speed and seaworthiness.

280) Which of the following spaces may be protected by a fixed carbon dioxide (CO2) fire-
extinguishing system?
A. Machinery spaces of category A.
B. Cargo tanks of tankers.
C. All the spaces mentioned.
D. Special category spaces of passenger ships.

281) Vessels communicating directly with each other by VHF, work:

A. Always simplex.
B. Always duplex.
C. Always semi-duplex.
D. Dependent on the set on board, either simplex or duplex.

282) The greatest limitation of the fixed pressure water-spraying fire-extinguishing systems
is a danger of:
A. Stability reduction on ships with single deck.
B. Overflowing.
C. Stability reduction on ships with several decks.
D. All answers are correct.

283) On area A4 the function “Transmission and reception of signals for locating” is mainly
based on:
A. The use of SART transponder.
B. The use of MF DSC.
C. The use of HF DSC.
D. The use of SARSAT COSPAS Epirbs.

284) DSC uses for automatic identification the MMSI. The identification 002442000 is
assigned to:
A. A coast-station or coast guard-station.
B. A vessel.
C. A group of vessels.
D. A type of vessels.
285) The word SATCOM is spelled conform the international phonetic alphabet:
A. Sierra, Alfa, Tango, Charlie, Oscar, Mike.
B. Sierra, Anna, Tango, Cornelies, Oslo, Mike.
C. Sierra, Able, Tango, Cornelies, Oslo, Man.
D. Sierra, Able, Tripoli, Charlie, Oscar, Mike.

286) Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest deflection to:
A. The door end of the container.
B. The base of the container.
C. The corner posts of the container.
D. The closed end of the container.

287) Where in accommodation spaces shall smoke detectors be located? SOLAS II-
2/13.2.2.
A. In stairways, corridors and escape routes.
B. In all crew and passenger cabins.
C. Near ventilation ducts throughout the accommodation spaces.
D. In messrooms, public lounged and other public rooms.

288) Where do you find minimum drill requirements?

A. In the SOLAS convention and its annex.
B. In classification society rules.
C. In manager’s instructions.
D. In owner’s instructions.

289) With an Inmarsat-C installation there is the addressing-option “special”. Via this option:
A. Give one of Inmarsat’s “special access codes”.
B. You can plan a message to be delivered at a special time.
C. You can deliver a message via a special telegram.
D. I don’t know.

290) Sea area A4 in maritime radio traffic sea area:

A. Outside the sea areas A1, A2 and A3.
B. Upto 12 miles of land.
C. Within VHF-radiotelephony-range of a coast station, where continuous DSC-alarm is
available.
D. I don’t know.
291) What is the meaning of the abbreviation “RQ” at the end of a DSC sequence?
A. Acknowledgement request.
B. Acknowledgement broadcast.
C. End of sequence.
D. Problem of transmission.

292) The transmitting power of the VHF is adjusted by setting:

A. High/Low power.
B. Dual watch.
C. PTT.
D. Squelch.

293) For how long time should a SART transponder be able to operate in the active mode?
A. 8 hours.
B. 24 hours.
C. 6 hours.
D. 96 hours.

294) How much water per person is provided in a lifeboat not equipped with a desalting
apparatus?
A. 3 litres.
B. 5 litres.
C. 2 litres.
D. 1 litre.

295) What is understood by carrier frequency?

A. The frequency actually used by transmitter and receiver.
B. The frequency of upper side band (UBS).
C. Frequency of the carrier wave.
D. Frequency of single side band.

296) If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages irregularities or
short shipment and the phrase “apparent good order and condition” is entered on the Bill of
Lading, then this Bill is this said to be:
A. A clean Bill of Lading.
B. An endorsed Bill of Lading.
C. A Due Title Bill of Lading.
D. I don’t know.
297) Which equipment will detect a signal from a SART transponder?
A. X-band radar.
B. S-band radar.
C. None of the above.
D. Radio Direction Finder.

298) This receiver of the Inmarsat-C installation, if the log-in procedure has been carried out,
is turned on:
A. NCS common channel.
B. LES message channel.
C. NCC information channel.
D. RCC common channel.

299) As a minimum, how often shall life boats be launched with their assigned operating
crew aboard and manoeuvred in the water according to SOLAS?
A. Every 3 months.
B. Every month.
C. Every 2 weeks.
D. Every week.

300) The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
A. To transfer forces from the container stow to the ships structure.
B. To maintain a uniform level stow across the tier of container.
C. To avoid excess load placed on the tank top.
D. To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.