1.

Which law states that the total mass of reactants is equal to the total mass of products
in a chemical reaction?
a) Law of Definite Proportions
b) Law of Conservation of Mass
c) Law of Multiple Proportions
d) Avogadro’s Law
Answer: b) Law of Conservation of Mass
Explanation: The Law of Conservation of Mass, proposed by Antoine Lavoisier, states
that mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction, so the total mass of
reactants equals the total mass of products.

2. What is the SI unit of amount of substance?

a) Gram
b) Mole
c) Kilogram
d) Liter
Answer: b) Mole
Explanation: The mole is the SI unit for the amount of substance, defined as the amount
containing Avogadro’s number (6.022 × 10²³) of particles.

3. According to the Law of Definite Proportions, a chemical compound always contains

its constituent elements in a:
a) Variable ratio by mass
b) Fixed ratio by mass
c) Fixed ratio by volume
d) Variable ratio by volume
Answer: b) Fixed ratio by mass
Explanation: The Law of Definite Proportions states that a chemical compound always
has the same elements in a fixed ratio by mass, regardless of the source.

4. Which of the following represents Avogadro’s number?

a) 6.022 × 10²²
b) 6.022 × 10²³
c) 6.626 × 10²³
d) 6.022 × 10²⁴
Answer: b) 6.022 × 10²³
Explanation: Avogadro’s number is 6.022 × 10²³, representing the number of particles
(atoms, molecules, etc.) in one mole of a substance.

5. The empirical formula of a compound represents:

a) The exact number of atoms in a molecule
b) The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms
c) The molecular mass of the compound
d) The percentage composition of the compound
Answer: b) The simplest whole-number ratio of atoms
Explanation: The empirical formula shows the simplest whole-number ratio of the atoms
of each element in a compound, while the molecular formula gives the actual number of
atoms.

6. What is the molar mass of water (H₂O)? (Atomic masses: H = 1 u, O = 16 u)

a) 16 g/mol
b) 18 g/mol
c) 20 g/mol
d) 17 g/mol
Answer: b) 18 g/mol
Explanation: Molar mass of H₂O = (2 × 1) + (1 × 16) = 2 + 16 = 18 g/mol.

7. How many moles are present in 44 g of CO₂? (Atomic masses: C = 12 u, O = 16 u)

a) 1 mole
b) 2 moles
c) 0.5 mole
d) 1.5 moles
Answer: a) 1 mole
Explanation: Molar mass of CO₂ = 12 + (2 × 16) = 12 + 32 = 44 g/mol.
Number of moles = Mass / Molar mass = 44 g / 44 g/mol = 1 mole.

8. Calculate the number of molecules in 9 g of water (H₂O). (Avogadro’s number = 6.022 ×

10²³)
a) 3.011 × 10²³
b) 6.022 × 10²³
c) 1.204 × 10²⁴
d) 9.033 × 10²³
Answer: a) 3.011 × 10²³
Explanation: Molar mass of H₂O = 18 g/mol.
Moles of H₂O = 9 g / 18 g/mol = 0.5 mol.
Number of molecules = Moles × Avogadro’s number = 0.5 × 6.022 × 10²³ = 3.011 × 10²³.

9. What is the percentage composition of oxygen in glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆)? (Atomic masses:

C = 12 u, H = 1 u, O = 16 u)
a) 40%
b) 53.33%
c) 6.67%
d) 50%
Answer: b) 53.33%
Explanation: Molar mass of C₆H₁₂O₆ = (6 × 12) + (12 × 1) + (6 × 16) = 72 + 12 + 96 = 180
g/mol.
Mass of oxygen = 6 × 16 = 96 g.
Percentage of oxygen = (96 / 180) × 100 = 53.33%.
10. In the reaction 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O, how many grams of water are produced from 4 g of
H₂? (Atomic masses: H = 1 u, O = 16 u)
a) 36 g
b) 18 g
c) 32 g
d) 9 g
Answer: a) 36 g
Explanation: Molar mass of H₂ = 2 g/mol, H₂O = 18 g/mol.
Moles of H₂ = 4 g / 2 g/mol = 2 mol.
From the reaction, 2 mol of H₂ produce 2 mol of H₂O.
Mass of H₂O = 2 mol × 18 g/mol = 36 g.

11. Which of the following elements has the highest electronegativity?

a) Lithium (Li)
b) Fluorine (F)
c) Oxygen (O)
d) Nitrogen (N)
Answer: b) Fluorine (F)
Explanation: Electronegativity increases across a period, and fluorine, being in the
top-right corner of the periodic table (Group 17, Period 2), has the highest
electronegativity (approximately 4.0 on the Pauling scale).

12. The modern periodic table is based on the arrangement of elements according to:
a) Atomic mass
b) Atomic number
c) Number of neutrons
d) Number of valence electrons
Answer: b) Atomic number
Explanation: The modern periodic law, proposed by Moseley, states that the properties of
elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

13. Which of the following properties generally decreases down a group in the periodic
table?
a) Atomic radius
b) Ionization energy
c) Electron affinity
d) Metallic character
Answer: b) Ionization energy
Explanation: Ionization energy decreases down a group due to an increase in atomic size
and shielding effect, making it easier to remove an electron.

14. Elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same:
a) Number of protons
b) Number of valence electrons
c) Atomic radius
d) Electronegativity
Answer: b) Number of valence electrons
Explanation: Elements in the same group have similar chemical properties because they
have the same number of valence electrons.

15. Which element is considered an exception to the general trend of ionization energy
across a period?
a) Beryllium (Be)
b) Nitrogen (N)
c) Oxygen (O)
d) Sodium (Na)
Answer: c) Oxygen (O)
Explanation: Oxygen has a slightly lower ionization energy than nitrogen due to the
stability of nitrogen’s half-filled 2p orbital (1s² 2s² 2p³), which makes it harder to remove
an electron from nitrogen compared to oxygen (1s² 2s² 2p⁴).

16.The atomic number of an element is 17. What is its electronic configuration?

a) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁴
b) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
c) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹ 3p⁶
d) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s² 3p⁶
Answer: b) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
Explanation: Element with atomic number 17 is chlorine. Its electronic configuration is
1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵ (total 17 electrons).

17. According to Rutherford’s atomic model, the majority of an atom’s mass is

concentrated in:
a) Electrons
b) Nucleus
c) Electron cloud
d) Orbitals
Answer: b) Nucleus
Explanation: Rutherford’s model proposed that the atom consists of a small, dense,
positively charged nucleus containing most of the atom’s mass, with electrons revolving
around it.

18. Which quantum number determines the shape of an orbital?

a) Principal quantum number (n)
b) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
c) Magnetic quantum number (m_l)
d) Spin quantum number (m_s)
Answer: b) Azimuthal quantum number (l)
Explanation: The azimuthal quantum number (l) defines the shape of the orbital (e.g., l = 0
for s-orbital, l = 1 for p-orbital).

19. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in an orbital is:
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2
Explanation: According to the Pauli Exclusion Principle, an orbital can hold a maximum
of two electrons with opposite spins.

20. Which of the following is a characteristic of Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom?
a) Electrons move in elliptical orbits
b) Electrons can occupy any energy level
c) Electrons emit energy when transitioning between fixed orbits
d) The nucleus revolves around electrons
Answer: c) Electrons emit energy when transitioning between fixed orbits
Explanation: Bohr’s model states that electrons move in fixed circular orbits, and energy
is emitted or absorbed when electrons transition between these orbits.

21. The splitting of spectral lines in the presence of a magnetic field is known as:
a) Stark effect
b) Zeeman effect
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Compton effect
Answer: b) Zeeman effect
Explanation: The Zeeman effect refers to the splitting of spectral lines in the presence of
a magnetic field due to the interaction of the magnetic field with the magnetic moment of
electrons.

22. What is the maximum number of electrons in the n = 3 energy level?

a) 6
b) 8
c) 18
d) 32
Answer: c) 18
Explanation: The maximum number of electrons in an energy level is given by 2n². For n
= 3, 2 × 3² = 2 × 9 = 18 electrons.

23. Calculate the wavelength of light emitted when an electron in a hydrogen atom
transitions from n = 4 to n = 2. (Rydberg constant, R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹)
a) 486 nm
b) 656 nm
c) 410 nm
d) 364 nm
Answer: a) 486 nm
Explanation: Using the Rydberg formula:
1/λ = R (1/n₁² – 1/n₂²), where n₁ = 2, n₂ = 4, R = 1.097 × 10⁷ m⁻¹.
1/λ = 1.097 × 10⁷ (1/2² – 1/4²) = 1.097 × 10⁷ (1/4 – 1/16) = 1.097 × 10⁷ × 3/16 = 2.055 × 10⁶ m⁻¹.
λ = 1 / 2.055 × 10⁶ = 4.86 × 10⁻⁷ m = 486 nm.

24. What is the energy of an electron in the n = 2 orbit of a hydrogen atom? (Energy of
electron in nth orbit, E = –13.6/n² eV)
a) –6.8 eV
b) –3.4 eV
c) –13.6 eV
d) –27.2 eV
Answer: b) –3.4 eV
Explanation: E = –13.6 / n² eV. For n = 2, E₂ = –13.6 / 2² = –13.6 / 4 = –3.4 eV.

25. How many orbitals are present in the subshell with n = 4 and l = 2?
a) 3
b) 5
c) 7
d) 9
Answer: b) 5
Explanation: For a given subshell, the number of orbitals is given by (2l + 1). For l = 2,
number of orbitals = 2 × 2 + 1 = 5 (corresponding to d-orbitals).

26 The frequency of a photon emitted during a transition in a hydrogen atom is 2.47 × 10¹⁵
Hz. What is the energy of the photon? (Planck’s constant, h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s)
a) 1.64 × 10⁻¹⁸ J
b) 2.68 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
c) 3.27 × 10⁻¹⁸ J
d) 4.12 × 10⁻¹⁹ J
Answer: a) 1.64 × 10⁻¹⁸ J
Explanation: Energy of a photon, E = hν.
E = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s × 2.47 × 10¹⁵ s⁻¹ = 1.637 × 10⁻¹⁸ J ≈ 1.64 × 10⁻¹⁸ J.

27.Which of the following experiments provided evidence for the existence of a positively
charged nucleus in an atom?
a) Cathode ray experiment
b) Gold foil experiment
c) Photoelectric effect
d) Blackbody radiation
Answer: b) Gold foil experiment
Explanation: Rutherford’s gold foil experiment, where alpha particles were scattered by a
thin gold foil, showed that most of the atom’s mass and positive charge is concentrated
in a small nucleus.

28.The Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle states that:

a) Electrons have both particle and wave nature
b) It is impossible to determine the exact position and momentum of an electron
simultaneously
c) Energy levels in an atom are quantized
d) Orbitals have specific shapes and orientations
Answer: b) It is impossible to determine the exact position and momentum of an electron
simultaneously
Explanation: Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle states that the product of uncertainties
in position (Δx) and momentum (Δp) of a particle is always greater than or equal to h/4π,
making precise simultaneous measurement impossible.

29. Which of the following rules determines the order of filling electrons in orbitals?
a) Aufbau Principle
b) Hund’s Rule
c) Pauli Exclusion Principle
d) Planck’s Quantum Theory
Answer: a) Aufbau Principle
Explanation: The Aufbau Principle states that electrons fill orbitals in order of increasing
energy, starting with the lowest energy orbital (e.g., 1s, 2s, 2p, etc.).

30. The spectral lines of the hydrogen atom in the ultraviolet region belong to which
series?
a) Balmer series
b) Lyman series
c) Paschen series
d) Brackett series
Answer: b) Lyman series
Explanation: The Lyman series corresponds to electron transitions from higher energy
levels (n = 2, 3, ...) to n = 1 in the hydrogen atom, producing spectral lines in the
ultraviolet region.

31. Which of the following statements is true about the quantum mechanical model of the
atom?
a) Electrons move in fixed circular orbits
b) Electrons exist in regions of probability called orbitals
c) The exact path of an electron can be predicted
d) The nucleus is negatively charged
Answer: b) Electrons exist in regions of probability called orbitals
Explanation: The quantum mechanical model describes electrons as existing in orbitals,
which are regions of space where the probability of finding an electron is high, unlike
Bohr’s fixed orbits.

32. The modern periodic table is organized based on:

a) Atomic mass
b) Atomic number
c) Number of neutrons
d) Atomic radius
Answer: b) Atomic number
Explanation: The modern periodic law, proposed by Moseley, states that the physical and
chemical properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic numbers.

33.Which group of elements in the periodic table is known as the noble gases?
a) Group 1
b) Group 16
c) Group 17
d) Group 18
Answer: d) Group 18
Explanation: Group 18 elements (e.g., He, Ne, Ar) are called noble gases due to their
stable electronic configurations and low reactivity.

34. Which of the following properties increases down a group in the periodic table?
a) Ionization energy
b) Electronegativity
c) Atomic radius
d) Electron affinity
Answer: c) Atomic radius
Explanation: Atomic radius increases down a group due to the addition of new electron
shells, which increases the distance between the nucleus and the outermost electrons.

35.The element with the electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p¹ belongs to:
a) s-block
b) p-block
c) d-block
d) f-block
Answer: b) p-block
Explanation: The outermost electron is in a p-orbital (3p¹), indicating the element
(aluminum, atomic number 13) belongs to the p-block.

36.Which of the following elements has the highest first ionization energy?
a) Sodium (Na)
b) Magnesium (Mg)
c) Aluminum (Al)
d) Chlorine (Cl)
Answer: d) Chlorine (Cl)
Explanation: Ionization energy increases across a period due to increasing nuclear
charge. Chlorine, being furthest to the right in Period 3, has the highest first ionization
energy among the options.

37. Which type of chemical bond is formed by the sharing of electrons between two
atoms?
a) Ionic bond
b) Covalent bond
c) Metallic bond
d) Coordinate bond
Answer: b) Covalent bond
Explanation: A covalent bond involves the mutual sharing of electrons between two
atoms to achieve a stable electron configuration, as seen in molecules like H₂ or Cl₂.

38.The formation of an ionic bond is most favored when:

a) Both atoms have high electronegativity
b) One atom has high electronegativity and the other has low electronegativity
c) Both atoms have low electronegativity
d) Both atoms have similar ionization energies
Answer: b) One atom has high electronegativity and the other has low electronegativity
Explanation: Ionic bonds form between atoms with a large electronegativity difference
(e.g., a metal and a non-metal), leading to electron transfer, as in NaCl.

39.According to VSEPR theory, the shape of a molecule with a central atom having two
bonding pairs and two lone pairs is:
a) Linear
b) Bent
c) Tetrahedral
d) Trigonal planar
Answer: b) Bent
Explanation: A molecule with two bonding pairs and two lone pairs (AX₂E₂, e.g., H₂O) has
a tetrahedral electron geometry but a bent molecular shape due to lone pair repulsion.

40. Which of the following molecules is non-polar despite having polar bonds?
a) H₂O
b) NH₃
c) CO₂
d) HCl
Answer: c) CO₂
Explanation: CO₂ has polar C=O bonds, but its linear geometry causes the dipole
moments to cancel out, making the molecule non-polar.
41. The concept of hybridization explains:
a) The formation of ionic bonds
b) The geometry of molecules based on electron pair repulsion
c) The mixing of atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals
d) The transfer of electrons between atoms
Answer: c) The mixing of atomic orbitals to form new hybrid orbitals
Explanation: Hybridization involves the mixing of atomic orbitals (e.g., s and p) to form
hybrid orbitals that determine the geometry of molecules, as in sp³ hybridization in CH₄.

42.In molecular orbital theory, a molecule with unpaired electrons in its molecular
orbitals is:
a) Diamagnetic
b) Paramagnetic
c) Non-polar
d) Ionic
Answer: b) Paramagnetic
Explanation: Paramagnetic molecules have unpaired electrons in their molecular orbitals,
which are attracted to magnetic fields (e.g., O₂).

43. Which of the following best describes a coordinate bond?

a) Electrons are shared equally between two atoms
b) One atom donates both electrons to form the bond
c) Electrons are transferred from one atom to another
d) Electrons are delocalized among multiple atoms
Answer: b) One atom donates both electrons to form the bond
Explanation: A coordinate bond (or dative bond) is formed when one atom provides both
electrons for the bond, as in NH₄⁺ where NH₃ donates a lone pair to H⁺.

44. The bond angle in a molecule with sp² hybridization on the central atom is typically:
a) 180°
b) 120°
c) 109.5°
d) 90°
Answer: b) 120°
Explanation: sp² hybridization results in a trigonal planar geometry with bond angles of
approximately 120°, as seen in molecules like BF₃.

45.Which of the following molecules exhibits resonance?

a) CH₄
b) O₃ (Ozone)
c) H₂
d) N₂
Answer: b) O₃ (Ozone)
Explanation: Resonance occurs when a molecule can be represented by multiple Lewis
structures. Ozone (O₃) has resonance structures with alternating single and double
bonds.

46.The dipole moment of a molecule depends on:

a) The difference in electronegativity between bonded atoms only
b) The molecular geometry only
c) Both the electronegativity difference and molecular geometry
d) The number of valence electrons only
Answer: c) Both the electronegativity difference and molecular geometry
Explanation: Dipole moment is determined by the electronegativity difference (creating
polar bonds) and the molecular geometry (determining whether dipole moments cancel
out), as seen in polar H₂O versus non-polar CO₂.

47. Which of the following is a state function in thermodynamics?

a) Heat
b) Work
c) Enthalpy
d) Path length
Answer: c) Enthalpy
Explanation: State functions depend only on the initial and final states of a system, not
on the path taken. Enthalpy (H) is a state function, whereas heat (q) and work (w) are path
functions.

48.The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of:

a) Conservation of energy
b) Conservation of mass
c) Conservation of momentum
d) Conservation of entropy
Answer: a) Conservation of energy
Explanation: The first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = q + w, states that the total energy of
an isolated system is conserved, where ΔU is the change in internal energy, q is heat,
and w is work.

49.A process that occurs without any external intervention is called:

a) Reversible process
b) Spontaneous process
c) Isothermal process
d) Adiabatic process
Answer: b) Spontaneous process
Explanation: A spontaneous process occurs naturally without external intervention,
driven by factors like a decrease in Gibbs free energy (e.g., water flowing downhill).

50. In an adiabatic process:

a) Temperature remains constant
b) No heat is exchanged with the surroundings
c) Pressure remains constant
d) Volume remains constant
Answer: b) No heat is exchanged with the surroundings
Explanation: An adiabatic process is one in which no heat is transferred between the
system and its surroundings (q = 0), but temperature, pressure, or volume may change.

51.The second law of thermodynamics implies that:

a) All energy can be converted into work
b) Heat cannot flow spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter body
c) The internal energy of an isolated system is constant
d) All processes are reversible
Answer: b) Heat cannot flow spontaneously from a colder body to a hotter body
Explanation: The second law states that heat cannot spontaneously flow from a colder
body to a hotter body without work being done, introducing the concept of entropy.

52. Entropy is a measure of:

a) The total energy of a system
b) The disorder or randomness of a system
c) The pressure exerted by a system
d) The enthalpy change in a system
Answer: b) The disorder or randomness of a system
Explanation: Entropy (S) quantifies the degree of disorder or randomness in a system,
increasing for spontaneous processes in isolated systems.

53. Which of the following is true for an isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas?
a) ΔU = 0
b) ΔH ≠ 0
c) q = 0
d) w = 0
Answer: a) ΔU = 0
Explanation: For an ideal gas undergoing isothermal expansion, temperature remains
constant, so the change in internal energy (ΔU) is zero (since ΔU = nC_vΔT). Work done
(w) and heat (q) are non-zero and equal in magnitude but opposite in sign.

54.The Gibbs free energy (G) of a system is defined as:

a) G = H + TS
b) G = H – TS
c) G = U + TS
d) G = U – TS
Answer: b) G = H – TS
Explanation: Gibbs free energy is defined as G = H – TS, where H is enthalpy, T is
absolute temperature, and S is entropy. It determines the spontaneity of a process at
constant temperature and pressure.

55.For a spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure, the change in

Gibbs free energy (ΔG) is:
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Either positive or negative
Answer: b) Negative
Explanation: A spontaneous process at constant temperature and pressure has ΔG < 0,
indicating that the process is thermodynamically favorable.

56. The enthalpy change (ΔH) of a reaction is equal to the heat exchanged under which
condition?
a) Constant volume
b) Constant pressure
c) Constant temperature
d) Adiabatic conditions
Answer: b) Constant pressure
Explanation: Enthalpy change (ΔH) is defined as the heat absorbed or released by a
system at constant pressure (ΔH = q_p).

57. Chemical equilibrium is achieved in a reversible reaction when:

a) The reaction stops completely
b) The concentrations of reactants and products become equal
c) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions become equal
d) All reactants are converted to products
Answer: c) The rates of the forward and reverse reactions become equal
Explanation: Chemical equilibrium is a dynamic state where the rate of the forward
reaction equals the rate of the reverse reaction, leading to constant concentrations of
reactants and products.

58. The equilibrium constant (K_c) for a reaction is defined as:

a) The ratio of product concentrations to reactant concentrations, each raised to their
stoichiometric coefficients
b) The ratio of reactant concentrations to product concentrations
c) The difference between product and reactant concentrations
d) The sum of product and reactant concentrations
Answer: a) The ratio of product concentrations to reactant concentrations, each raised to
their stoichiometric coefficients
Explanation: For a reaction aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD, the equilibrium constant K_c = [C]^c
[D]^d / [A]^a [B]^b, where [ ] denotes molar concentrations at equilibrium.
59.According to Le Chatelier’s principle, increasing the pressure of a gaseous
equilibrium system will:
a) Shift the equilibrium to the side with more moles of gas
b) Shift the equilibrium to the side with fewer moles of gas
c) Have no effect on the equilibrium position
d) Increase the equilibrium constant
Answer: b) Shift the equilibrium to the side with fewer moles of gas
Explanation: Le Chatelier’s principle states that increasing pressure favors the side of
the reaction with fewer moles of gas to reduce the pressure, as seen in reactions like
N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g).

60.For a reaction at equilibrium, if the equilibrium constant K_c is very large, it indicates
that:
a) The reaction is slow
b) The reaction favors reactants
c) The reaction favors products
d) The reaction is irreversible
Answer: c) The reaction favors products
Explanation: A large K_c value (>>1) indicates that the equilibrium lies far to the right,
with a higher concentration of products compared to reactants.

61. Which of the following is true for a system at equilibrium?

a) The reaction quotient (Q) is greater than the equilibrium constant (K)
b) The reaction quotient (Q) equals the equilibrium constant (K)
c) The reaction quotient (Q) is less than the equilibrium constant (K)
d) The reaction proceeds only in the forward direction
Answer: b) The reaction quotient (Q) equals the equilibrium constant (K)
Explanation: At equilibrium, the reaction quotient Q, which has the same form as K but
uses initial concentrations, equals the equilibrium constant K.

62.The addition of a catalyst to a reversible reaction at equilibrium:

a) Shifts the equilibrium to the right
b) Shifts the equilibrium to the left
c) Increases the equilibrium constant
d) Does not affect the equilibrium position
Answer: d) Does not affect the equilibrium position
Explanation: A catalyst speeds up both the forward and reverse reactions equally,
reducing the time to reach equilibrium but not affecting the equilibrium position or K.

63.For an exothermic reaction at equilibrium, increasing the temperature will:

a) Shift the equilibrium to favor the products
b) Shift the equilibrium to favor the reactants
c) Increase the equilibrium constant
d) Have no effect on the equilibrium
Answer: b) Shift the equilibrium to favor the reactants
Explanation: For an exothermic reaction (ΔH < 0), increasing temperature favors the
endothermic reverse reaction, shifting equilibrium toward reactants, per Le Chatelier’s
principle.

64.Which of the following statements is true about dynamic equilibrium?

a) All chemical reactions stop
b) The concentrations of reactants and products are constantly changing
c) The forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate
d) Only the forward reaction occurs
Answer: c) The forward and reverse reactions occur at the same rate
Explanation: Dynamic equilibrium implies that the forward and reverse reactions
continue at equal rates, maintaining constant concentrations of reactants and products.

65. The equilibrium constant K_p is used for reactions involving:

a) Only solids and liquids
b) Only gases
c) Both gases and aqueous solutions
d) Only aqueous solutions
Answer: b) Only gases
Explanation: K_p is the equilibrium constant expressed in terms of partial pressures and
is used for reactions involving gases. For aqueous solutions or mixed phases, K_c
(based on concentrations) is used.

66. In a homogeneous equilibrium, all species involved are in:

a) Different phases
b) The same phase
c) Either solid or liquid phase
d) Either gas or solid phase
Answer: b) The same phase
Explanation: A homogeneous equilibrium involves all reactants and products in the same
phase (e.g., all gases or all in aqueous solution), as in N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g).

67. Ionic equilibrium deals with the equilibrium established in:

a) Reactions involving only gases
b) Solutions containing ions
c) Reactions involving only solids
d) Non-electrolyte solutions
Answer: b) Solutions containing ions
Explanation: Ionic equilibrium involves the equilibrium in solutions where electrolytes
(acids, bases, or salts) dissociate into ions, such as in aqueous solutions of weak acids
or bases.
68.According to the Arrhenius theory, a base is a substance that:
a) Donates protons in solution
b) Accepts protons in solution
c) Produces hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution
d) Produces hydrogen ions (H⁺) in aqueous solution
Answer: c) Produces hydroxide ions (OH⁻) in aqueous solution
Explanation: Arrhenius defined a base as a substance that releases OH⁻ ions in water
(e.g., NaOH → Na⁺ + OH⁻), while an acid releases H⁺ ions.

69. The Bronsted-Lowry theory defines an acid as:

a) A proton donor
b) A proton acceptor
c) An electron pair donor
d) An electron pair acceptor
Answer: a) A proton donor
Explanation: In the Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is a substance that donates a proton
(H⁺), and a base is a substance that accepts a proton (e.g., HCl donates H⁺ to NH₃).

70.The pH of a neutral solution at 25°C is:

a) 0
b) 7
c) 14
d) Depends on the solute
Answer: b) 7
Explanation: At 25°C, a neutral solution has equal concentrations of H⁺ and OH⁻ ions ([H⁺]
= [OH⁻] = 10⁻⁷ M), so pH = –log(10⁻⁷) = 7.

71.A buffer solution resists changes in pH because it contains:

a) A strong acid and a strong base
b) A weak acid and its conjugate base
c) Only a strong electrolyte
d) Only a weak electrolyte
Answer: b) A weak acid and its conjugate base
Explanation: A buffer solution (e.g., acetic acid and sodium acetate) resists pH changes
by neutralizing added H⁺ or OH⁻ ions using the weak acid and its conjugate base (or a
weak base and its conjugate acid).

72.The solubility product (K_sp) of a sparingly soluble salt is used to predict:

a) The pH of the solution
b) The extent of ionization of the salt
c) Whether a precipitate will form
d) The strength of the acid or base
Answer: c) Whether a precipitate will form
Explanation: The solubility product (K_sp) indicates the extent to which a sparingly
soluble salt dissolves. If the ionic product exceeds K_sp, a precipitate forms.

73.The common ion effect results in:

a) Increased ionization of a weak electrolyte
b) Decreased ionization of a weak electrolyte
c) No change in ionization
d) Complete dissociation of a strong electrolyte
Answer: b) Decreased ionization of a weak electrolyte
Explanation: The common ion effect reduces the ionization of a weak electrolyte by
shifting the equilibrium backward, as per Le Chatelier’s principle (e.g., adding NaCl to
CH₃COOH suppresses its ionization).

74. Which of the following is true for a conjugate acid-base pair?

a) They differ by two protons
b) They differ by one proton
c) They have the same chemical formula
d) They are always strong acids and bases
Answer: b) They differ by one proton
Explanation: A conjugate acid-base pair differs by one proton (H⁺). For example, NH₃
(base) and NH₄⁺ (conjugate acid) differ by one H⁺.

75.The ion product of water (K_w) at 25°C is:

a) 10⁻⁷
b) 10⁻¹⁴
c) 10⁻¹⁰
d) 10⁻¹²
Answer: b) 10⁻¹⁴
Explanation: The ion product of water, K_w = [H⁺][OH⁻], is 10⁻¹⁴ at 25°C, as [H⁺] = [OH⁻] =
10⁻⁷ M in pure water.

76. According to Lewis theory, a base is defined as a substance that:

a) Donates a proton
b) Accepts a proton
c) Donates an electron pair
d) Accepts an electron pair
Answer: c) Donates an electron pair
Explanation: In the Lewis acid-base theory, a base is an electron pair donor (e.g., NH₃
donates a lone pair), and an acid is an electron pair acceptor (e.g., BF₃).

77.In a redox reaction, the substance that undergoes oxidation is called:

a) The oxidizing agent
b) The reducing agent
c) The catalyst
d) The electrolyte
Answer: b) The reducing agent
Explanation: Oxidation involves the loss of electrons. The substance that undergoes
oxidation loses electrons and acts as the reducing agent, as it reduces another
substance.

78.The oxidation number of an element in its elemental form is always:

a) +1
b) –1
c) 0
d) Variable
Answer: c) 0
Explanation: In their elemental form (e.g., O₂, Na, Cl₂), elements have an oxidation number
of zero because they are not bonded to any other element.

79. Which of the following processes involves a decrease in the oxidation number of an
element?
a) Oxidation
b) Reduction
c) Neutralization
d) Ionization
Answer: b) Reduction
Explanation: Reduction is the process in which an element gains electrons, resulting in a
decrease in its oxidation number.

80. In the reaction 2Na + Cl₂ → 2NaCl, which species acts as the oxidizing agent?
a) Na
b) Cl₂
c) NaCl
d) None of these
Answer: b) Cl₂
Explanation: Cl₂ gains electrons to form Cl⁻ (reduction), making it the oxidizing agent. Na
loses electrons (oxidation), making it the reducing agent.

81.A redox reaction in which the same substance is both oxidized and reduced is called:
a) Combination reaction
b) Displacement reaction
c) Disproportionation reaction
d) Decomposition reaction
Answer: c) Disproportionation reaction
Explanation: A disproportionation reaction is a special type of redox reaction where a
single species is simultaneously oxidized and reduced, e.g., 2Cu⁺ → Cu + Cu²⁺.

82. The oxidation number of oxygen in peroxides (e.g., H₂O₂) is:

a) –2
b) –1
c) 0
d) +1
Answer: b) –1
Explanation: In peroxides, the O–O bond results in each oxygen having an oxidation
number of –1, unlike the usual –2 in most oxygen-containing compounds.

83. Which of the following is NOT a redox reaction?

a) Zn + CuSO₄ → ZnSO₄ + Cu
b) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
c) 2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O
d) Fe + 2HCl → FeCl₂ + H₂
Answer: b) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H₂O
Explanation: HCl + NaOH is a neutralization reaction with no change in oxidation
numbers (H⁺, Na⁺, Cl⁻, OH⁻ remain unchanged). The others involve changes in oxidation
numbers, indicating redox processes.

84. The role of an oxidizing agent in a redox reaction is to:

a) Gain electrons
b) Lose electrons
c) Donate protons
d) Accept protons
Answer: a) Gain electrons
Explanation: An oxidizing agent causes oxidation of another substance by accepting
electrons, thereby undergoing reduction itself.

85.In the balancing of redox reactions by the ion-electron method, the number of
electrons lost in oxidation must equal:
a) The number of protons gained
b) The number of electrons gained in reduction
c) The number of atoms in the reaction
d) The number of moles of reactants
Answer: b) The number of electrons gained in reduction
Explanation: In the ion-electron (half-reaction) method, the electrons lost in the oxidation
half-reaction must equal the electrons gained in the reduction half-reaction to maintain
charge balance.

86.The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:

a) +2
b) +4
c) +6
d) –2
Answer: c) +6
Explanation: In H₂SO₄, H has +1, O has –2. Let the oxidation number of S be x. For the
neutral molecule: 2(+1) + x + 4(–2) = 0 → 2 + x – 8 = 0 → x = +6.

87. The branch of chemistry that deals with carbon compounds containing hydrogen and
other elements like oxygen, nitrogen, or halogens is called:
a) Inorganic chemistry
b) Organic chemistry
c) Physical chemistry
d) Analytical chemistry
Answer: b) Organic chemistry
Explanation: Organic chemistry is the study of carbon-containing compounds, typically
those with hydrogen and other elements like oxygen, nitrogen, sulfur, or halogens,
excluding simple compounds like CO₂ or carbonates.

88. The phenomenon of the existence of two or more compounds with the same
molecular formula but different properties is known as:
a) Catenation
b) Isomerism
c) Hybridization
d) Resonance
Answer: b) Isomerism
Explanation: Isomerism occurs when compounds have the same molecular formula but
differ in structure or spatial arrangement, leading to different physical and chemical
properties.

89.Which of the following is a characteristic property of carbon that allows it to form a

large number of organic compounds?
a) Electronegativity
b) Catenation
c) Low atomic mass
d) High ionization energy
Answer: b) Catenation
Explanation: Catenation is the ability of carbon atoms to bond with each other, forming
long chains, branched structures, or rings, which is the basis for the vast diversity of
organic compounds.

90. The functional group present in alcohols is:

a) –CHO
b) –OH
c) –COOH
d) –NH₂
Answer: b) –OH
Explanation: The hydroxyl group (–OH) is the functional group characteristic of alcohols,
such as ethanol (C₂H₅OH).
91.According to IUPAC nomenclature, the longest carbon chain in an organic compound
is called:
a) Parent chain
b) Functional group
c) Substituent
d) Alkyl group
Answer: a) Parent chain
Explanation: In IUPAC nomenclature, the longest continuous carbon chain containing the
functional group is designated as the parent chain, which forms the basis for naming the
compound.

92.Which type of isomerism is exhibited by compounds that differ in the arrangement of

atoms around a double bond or in a ring structure?
a) Structural isomerism
b) Geometrical isomerism
c) Optical isomerism
d) Chain isomerism
Answer: b) Geometrical isomerism
Explanation: Geometrical isomerism (cis-trans isomerism) occurs due to restricted
rotation around a double bond or in cyclic compounds, leading to different spatial
arrangements, as in cis- and trans-2-butene.

93.The hybridization of the carbon atom in methane (CH₄) is:

a) sp
b) sp²
c) sp³
d) sp³d
Answer: c) sp³
Explanation: In methane, the carbon atom forms four single bonds with hydrogen atoms,
resulting in sp³ hybridization, which gives a tetrahedral geometry.

94. Which of the following is a characteristic of aromatic compounds?

a) They contain only single bonds
b) They follow Hückel’s rule of aromaticity
c) They are always acyclic
d) They have low stability
Answer: b) They follow Hückel’s rule of aromaticity
Explanation: Aromatic compounds, like benzene, are cyclic, planar, conjugated systems
with (4n + 2) π-electrons, as per Hückel’s rule, and exhibit enhanced stability due to
delocalized electrons.

95. The process of breaking a carbon-carbon bond in a hydrocarbon to form two or more
smaller molecules is called:
a) Isomerization
b) Cracking
c) Polymerization
d) Hydrogenation
Answer: b) Cracking
Explanation: Cracking is the process of breaking large hydrocarbon molecules into
smaller ones, often used in the petroleum industry to produce fuels like gasoline.

96.Resonance in organic molecules refers to:

a) The rotation of single bonds
b) The delocalization of electrons in a conjugated system
c) The formation of isomers with different functional groups
d) The breaking of covalent bonds
Answer: b) The delocalization of electrons in a conjugated system
Explanation: Resonance occurs when a molecule can be represented by multiple Lewis
structures with delocalized electrons, as in benzene or ozone, leading to increased
stability.

97. Hydrocarbons are organic compounds composed of:

a) Carbon and oxygen only
b) Carbon and hydrogen only
c) Carbon, hydrogen, and nitrogen
d) Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen
Answer: b) Carbon and hydrogen only
Explanation: Hydrocarbons are organic compounds consisting solely of carbon and
hydrogen atoms, classified into alkanes, alkenes, alkynes, and aromatic hydrocarbons.

98.Which of the following hydrocarbons contains a carbon-carbon double bond?

a) Alkane
b) Alkene
c) Alkyne
d) Aromatic hydrocarbon
Answer: b) Alkene
Explanation: Alkenes are hydrocarbons with at least one carbon-carbon double bond
(C=C), such as ethene (C₂H₄).

99. The general formula for cycloalkanes is:

a) C H₂ ₊₂
b) C H₂
c) C H₂ ₋₂
d) C H
Answer: b) C H₂
Explanation: Cycloalkanes are saturated hydrocarbons with a ring structure, having the
general formula C H₂ , similar to alkenes but without double bonds (e.g., cyclohexane,
C₆H₁₂).

100.Which type of isomerism is exhibited by 1-butene but not by ethene?

a) Geometrical isomerism
b) Optical isomerism
c) Chain isomerism
d) Functional group isomerism
Answer: c) Chain isomerism
Explanation: 1-Butene (C₄H₈) can exhibit chain isomerism (e.g., 1-butene vs.
2-methylpropene), while ethene (C₂H₄) cannot due to its simpler structure. Geometrical
isomerism is possible in alkenes like 2-butene, not 1-butene or ethene.

101.The reaction of an alkene with hydrogen gas in the presence of a catalyst like nickel
is called:
a) Halogenation
b) Hydrogenation
c) Hydration
d) Combustion
Answer: b) Hydrogenation
Explanation: Hydrogenation is the addition of hydrogen to an alkene, converting it to an
alkane (e.g., C₂H₄ + H₂ → C₂H₆), typically catalyzed by metals like Ni, Pd, or Pt.

102. Which of the following is a characteristic reaction of alkynes?

a) Electrophilic addition
b) Nucleophilic substitution
c) Free radical substitution
d) Elimination reaction
Answer: a) Electrophilic addition
Explanation: Alkynes, due to their carbon-carbon triple bond, undergo electrophilic
addition reactions, such as addition of halogens or hydrogen halides (e.g., C₂H₂ + HBr →
C₂H₃Br).

103. Aromatic hydrocarbons are characterized by:

a) The presence of a single bond only
b) A planar ring structure with conjugated π-electrons
c) A linear carbon chain
d) The absence of π-bonds
Answer: b) A planar ring structure with conjugated π-electrons
Explanation: Aromatic hydrocarbons, like benzene, have a planar ring structure (e.g.,
C₆H₆) with delocalized π-electrons following Hückel’s rule (4n + 2 π-electrons).

104.The major product of the chlorination of methane in the presence of sunlight is:
a) Chloromethane
b) Dichloromethane
c) Trichloromethane
d) Tetrachloromethane
Answer: a) Chloromethane
Explanation: Chlorination of methane (CH₄) in the presence of sunlight proceeds via a
free radical mechanism, primarily forming chloromethane (CH₃Cl) as the initial product,
though further substitution can occur.

105.The stability of alkenes is influenced by:

a) The number of carbon atoms only
b) The degree of substitution on the double bond
c) The presence of single bonds
d) The absence of hydrogen atoms
Answer: b) The degree of substitution on the double bond
Explanation: According to Saytzeff’s rule, more substituted alkenes (e.g.,
tetrasubstituted) are more stable due to hyperconjugation and inductive effects, as seen
in 2-methyl-2-butene vs. 1-butene.

106.The electrophilic substitution reaction is a characteristic feature of:

a) Alkanes
b) Alkenes
c) Alkynes
d) Aromatic hydrocarbons
Answer: d) Aromatic hydrocarbons
Explanation: Aromatic hydrocarbons, like benzene, undergo electrophilic substitution
reactions (e.g., nitration, halogenation) due to their stable, conjugated π-electron system,
rather than addition reactions.